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Flashcards in Pharm into questions Deck (65):
1

Which of the following best defines drug absorbtion?

a. The transfer of the drug from the bloodstream to the tissues.
b. The transfer of the drug from the GI track to the bloodstream.
c. The transfer of the drug from the tissues back to the bloodstream.
d. The transfer of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream.

d. The transfer of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream.

2

Where is the main site of absorption for internally administered drugs?

a. Stomach
b. Terminal ileum
c. Upper duodenum
d. Lower duodenum

c. Upper duodenum

3

True or False?
Plasma protein binding increases the half-life of the drug?

True

4

Which of the following disease states would result in decreased drug distribution?

a. Congestive heart failure
b. liver failure
c. Protein losing renal disease
d. Inflammation of the BBB

a. Congestive heart failure

5

True or False?
An enzyme inducer will typically prolong the half-life of a drug?

False

6

Which of the following is considered to be a hepatic microsomal enzyme inducer?

a. Phenobarbital
b. Ketoconazole
c. Cimetidine
d. Phenoxybenzamine

a. Phenobarbital

7

True or False?

An enzyme inhibitor will typically prolong the half-life of a drug?

True

8

Which of the following is an example of a hepatic microsomal enzyme inhibitor?

a. Phenobarbital
b. Phenylbutazone
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Rifampin

c. Chloramphenicol

9

How does significant enterohepatic recirculation affect half life?

Prolongs half-life

10

How will IV fluid therapy affect GFR?

Increase GFR

11

Administration of which of the following will enhance urinary excretion of a weakly basic drug?

a. Ketoconazole
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Phenobarbital
d. Ammonium Chloride

d. Ammonium Chloride

12

Which active ingredient in plants are basic nitrogenous substances that end in '-ine'

alkaloids

13

What type of oils will evaporate when exposed to air?

Volatile oils

14

Which of the following routes of drug administration will have the fastest onset of action?

a. Intramuscular
b. Inhalation
c. Per os
d. Transmucosal

b. Inhalation

15

Which of the following best describes an idiosyncratic drug reaction?

a. Antigen-antibody mediated
b. Prior exposure required
c. Reactions are dose-dependent
d. Genetically predetermined and unpredictable

d. Genetically predetermined and unpredictable

16

All of the following are true regarding newborn and pediatric patients except.

a. Decreased drug metabolism
b. Decreased plasma protein binding of drugs
c. Increased drug crossing of blood-brain barrier
d. Decreased total body water

d. Decreased total body water

17

Which of the following types of drug-drug interactions is best defined as the exaggerated effects of two drugs with the same mechanism of action?

a. Summation
b. Potentiation
c. Synergism
d. Antagonism

c. Synergism

18

True or False

Passive diffusion requires energy?

False

19

True or False

Facilitated diffusion requires energy?

False

20

True or False

Active diffusion requires energy?

True

21

Which of the following drug properties would not favor transport via passive diffusion?

a. High lipid solubility
b. Small size
c. Mostly ionized
d. Uncharged

c. Mostly ionized

22

Which scenario favors drug absorption the most?

a. A weakly acidic drug introduced into a weakly basic environment
b. A weakly acidic drug introduced into a weakly acidic environment
c. A weakly basic drug introduced into a weakly acidic environment
d. A weakly basic drug introduced into an environment with a pH=drug pKa

b. A weakly acidic drug introduced into a weakly acidic environment

23

What is the definition of clinical pharmacology?

a. The study of the interactions of drugs with living organisms.
b. The application of pharmacology principles to patients.
c. The study of drugs in different species.
d. The science of the preparation of drugs.

b. The application of pharmacology principles to patients.

a. pharmacology
c. comparative pharmacology
d. pharmacy

24

What does ADME stand for in pharmacokinetics?

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

25

What computer system provides information including withdrawal times of all drugs approved for use in food producing animals?

FARAD (Food animal residue avoidance databank)

26

Which type of oils evaporate readily when exposed to air?

a. Volatile
b. Fixed
c. Fatty

a. Volatile

27

What is renal clearance usually measured by?

Renal clearance is usually measured by creatinine clearance

28

Which of the following is not a phase 1 metabolic reaction?

a. Oxidation
b. Conjugation
c. Reduction
d. Hydrolysis

b. Conjugation

29

What is the definition of renal insufficiency?

a. Can't metabolize most drugs normally
b. Cant excrete most drugs via the kidney and into the urine normally.
c. Can't pump drugs to the site of action, metabolism, or excretion normally.

b. Cant excrete most drugs via the kidney and into the urine normally.

a. Hepatic dysfunction
c. Congestive Heart Failure

30

When giving another drug with a different action and 1+1>2 what is this?

a. Summation
b. Potentiation
c. Synergism
d. Antagonism

b. Potentiation

a. Sum of the affects of the drug 1+1=2
c. Give another drug with the same action 1+1>2
d. Decreases the affect of another drug 1+1<2

31

What are tetracyclines incompatible with?

Calcium

32

At how many half lives is the concentration of a drug at 90%?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 3.3
d. 2.2

c. 3.3

33

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for myasthenia gravis?

a. Pyridostigmine
b. Neostigmine
c. Endrophonium
d. Bethanechol

a. Pyridostigmine

34

Which of the following is used in the testing of myasthenia gravis?

a. Glycopyrrolate
b. Neostigmine
c. Endrophonium
d. Bethanechol

c. Endrophonium

35

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of atropine?

a. Sinus bradycardia
b. 2nd degree AV block
c. Closed angle glaucoma
d. Nausea

c. Closed angle glaucoma

36

Compared with atropine, which of the following is true about glycopyrrolate?

a. Lasts longer than atropine
b. Crosses BBB
c. Antagonizes primarily nicotinic receptors
d. Does not treat bradycardia

a. Lasts longer than atropine

37

Which of the following will result in the least amount of vasodilation?

a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Isoproterenol
d. Dopamine
e. Dobutamine

b. Norepinephrine

38

Which of the following causes D1 mediated vasodilation at low doses?

a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Isoproterenol
d. Dopamine
e. Dobutamine

d. Dopamine

39

Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of bronchial asthma?

a. Norepinephrine
b. Isoproterenol
c. Albuterol
d. Zilpateral

c. Albuterol

40

Which of the following drugs acts by directly agonizing B3 receptors?

a. Norepinephrine
b. Isoproterenol
c. Albuterol
d. Zilpateral

d. Zilpateral

41

Which drug is used in the treatment of methylxanthine toxicity?

a. Albuterol
b. Propanolol
c. Ephedrine
d. Reserpine

b. Propanolol

42

Which drug acts by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine into the presynaptic vesicles?

a. Albuterol
b. Proanolol
c. Ephedrine
d. Reserpine

d. Reserpine

43

Which of the following would be least indicated for use as a vasopressor?

a. Vasopressin
b. Phenylephrine
c. Dobutamine
d. Norepinephrine

c. Dobutamine (primarily used for Beta-1 positive inotropic effects)

44

Which of the following is not a characteristic of NSAIDS?

a. GI ulcers
b. Renal damage
c. Hepatic metabolism
d. All of the above are characteristics of NSAIDS

d. All of the above are characteristics of NSAIDS

45

A patient that weighs 25kg at the rate of 10mL/kg over 30 mins. What is the fluid rate that should be set in mL/hr?

a. 250mL
b. 300mL
c. 750mL
d. 500mL

d. 500mL

46

Which of the following species metabolizes glucaronyl transferases most and has a longer T 1/2 life?

a. Cat
b. Dog
c. Horse
d. Llama

a. Cat

47

Word that means coughing up blood?

a. Hemostasis
b. Hemoptysis
c. Hemolytic
d. Hematopoiesis

b. Hemoptysis

48

What is a contraindication when using Bethanechol?

a. Constipation
b. Asthma
c. Urethra obstruction
d. Cardiac disease

c. Urethra obstruction

49

True or False?
Sympathetic pathways use acetylcholine.

False. Sympathetic pathways use norepinephrine

50

What does SLUDD stand for?

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Digestion
Defection

51

Which of the following is a direct acting parasympatholytic drug?

a. Bethanechol
b. Atropine
c. Pilocarpine
d. Neostigmine

b. Atropine

52

Which of the following is an indirect acting parasympathomimetic?

a. Bethanechol
b. Atropine
c. Pilocarpine
d. Neostigmine

d. Neostigmine

53

Which of the following is a direct acting parasympathomimetic?

a. Bethanechol
b. Atropine
c. Oxybutynin
d. Neostigmine

a. Bethanechol

54

What is the action of Bethanechol?

Acts by directly stimulating contraction of the detrusor muscle of the bladder.

55

What is the reversal agent of choice for neuromuscular blockers?

a. Neostigmine
b. Atropine
c. Pilocarpine
d. Bethanechol

a. Neostigmine

56

True or False?
Neostigmine lasts longer than pyridostigmine?

False. Pyridostigmine has a longer duration of action than Neostigmine

57

Which of the following has the fastest onset and shortest duration?

a. Neostigmine
b Pilocarpine
c. Edrophonium
d. Pyridostigmine

c. Edrophonium

58

True or False?
When atropine is initially administered there will be a drop in heart rate before a quick increase?

True

59

Which of the following would be indicated in a case that had an overactive bladder?

a. Neostigmine
b. Atropine
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Oxybutynin

d. Oxybutynin

60

What drug would you use prior to surgery of a pheochromocytoma to improve the outcome?

a. Phenlyproanolamine(PPA)
b. Clomipramine
c. Phenoxybenzamine
d. Selegeline

c. Phenoxybenzamine

61

Which of the following nociception pathways is least affected by the administration of a local anesthetic?

a. Transduction
b. Transmission
c. Modulation
d. Perception

d. Perception

62

Which of the following is an ester-local anesthetic?

a. Lidocaine
b. Proparacaine
c. Bupivicaine
d. Mepivicaine

b. Proparacaine

63

What amide are you most likely to use in a wound soaker catheter?

a. Mepivacaine
b. Lidocaine
c. Bupivacaine
d. Proparacaine

c. Bupivacaine

64

What amide is most commonly used in nerve blocks in equines?

a. Mepivacaine
b. Lidocaine
c. Bupivacaine
d. Proparacaine

a. Mepivacaine

65

When performing a pressure test on the eye, what local anesthetic would you use?

a. Procanamide
b. Proparacaine
c. Procaine
d. Benzocaine

b. Proparacaine