Pharmacology Flashcards
(136 cards)
1
Q
RENAL/URINARY SYSTEM
A
2
Q
the nephron is the basic functional unit of the kidney
A
true
3
Q
urinary acidifiers can be given to help with which type of crystal/urolith?
A
struvite
4
Q
proin
A
phenylpropanolamine
5
Q
lasix
A
furosemide
6
Q
minpress
A
prazosin
7
Q
enacard
A
enalapril
8
Q
buscopan
A
butylhyoscine
9
Q
which of the following diuretic families should not be used in pregnant animals as it crosses the placental border?
A
thiazide diuretics
10
Q
hypernatremia can sometimes be seen with long-term use of potassium sparing diuretics
A
false
11
Q
which of the following is not a catecholamine?
A
aldosterone
12
Q
epakatin is made from the shells of shrimp and crabs
A
true
13
Q
a regenerative anemia can occur when the kidneys are compromised bc erythropoietin production is also compromised
A
false
14
Q
what converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II
A
ACE
15
Q
_____ are drugs used to remove excess extracellular fluid by increasing urine flow and sodium excretion
A
diuretics
16
Q
which of the following drugs is most commonly used to treat urinary incontinence in dogs?
A
phenylprpanolamine
17
Q
where do loop diuretics exert their action within the nephron?
A
ascending loop of henle
18
Q
which of the following diuretic classes can also be used to treat glaucoma bc it reduces the production of aqueous humor?
A
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
19
Q
catecholamines are made by what/
A
adrenal glands
20
Q
which of the following drugs can be given to cats that have a hypertonus urethra sphincter to aide in relaxing the internal sphincter tone?
A
prazosin
21
Q
hyponatremia is decreased sodium levels
A
true
22
Q
baclofen is a very safe drug that can be used to treat urinary retention in dogs since it has a wide margin of safety
A
false
23
Q
uremic patients require higher dosages of nephrotoxic medications since nephron is not working at normal capacity so more of the drug needs to be administered to reach therapeutic lvls
A
false
24
Q
a vet prescribes erythropoietin for use in a dog with terminal renal failure. Why was this drug prescribed?
A
for its ability to stimulate red blood cell production and release
25
which of the following drug families can cause decreased GI motility and decreased gastric emptying, which can lead to decreased absorption of certain medications
anticholinergic drugs
26
which of the following drug classes can be used to treat urinary incontinence by promoting urinary retention within the bladder?
anticholinergic drugs
27
if kidney function is compromised, erythropoietin production is ___
decreased
28
anticholinergic drugs cause muscle _____
relaxation
29
which of the following drugs is antidotal to the adverse reactions of cholinergic drugs?
atropine
30
which type of diuretic would you give to a patient that was hit by a car and now has increased CSF pressure?
osmotic diuretics
31
which of the following is an example of a urinary alkalizer?
potassium citrate
32
loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of___-
sodium
33
adrenaline is another name for epinephrine
true
34
which of the following is an example of an osmotic diuretic?
mannitol 20%
35
which of the following drugs is an example of a potassium sparing diuretic?
spironolactone
36
NEUROLOGY
37
fentanyl transdermal patches
are dosed according to surface area of the patch
38
all of the following drugs are antagonsits and are used to reverse the effects of another drug, except
anased
39
what is the general role of the neurotransmitter serotonin?
mood determinant
40
what is the treamtent of choice when an animal is experiencing serotinin syndrome?
cyproheptadine
41
drugs that are "lyse" anxiety or decrease fear responses are called
anxiolytic drugs
42
in which of the following circumstances should a thiobarbiturate (Thiopental) drug be avoided?
in sight hounds, or very thin patients
43
fentanyl
has a shorter duraiton of action than morphine
44
you have a very painful dog that was presented to your clinic, the DVM on duty decides to give the dog fentanyl. How long will this IV injection last?
20-30 minutes
45
which of the following is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer?
midazolam
46
Acepromazine is a commonly used phenothiazine tranquilizer used often as a premedication in preparation for general anesthesia induction. Which of the following adverse effects has been discounted recently in regards to veterinary use?
reduce the seizure threshold in dogs
47
three classes of antidepressant drugs used in human beings have also found use in vet med include all except
gamma aminobutyric acid
48
which of the opioids is considered the standard to which all other opioids are compared in terms of analgesic effects, which are resulting from its primary activity at the mu receptor?
fentanyl
49
seizures generally originate from the brain but seizure activity can also arise from other causes. Vet techs should always consider these other sources except
hypothermia
50
_____ is the naturally derived opiate drug that is used primarily for its pain alleviating properties
mophine
51
of the following, which is correct when considering topical or transdermal fentanyl delivery to vet patients
fentanyl patches may not begin working for 8-12 hours and other analgesia may be needed during that time frame
52
which of these statements about phenobarbital is true
phenobarbital may cause idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity
53
another name for a pain receptor is
nociceptor
54
several opioids such as butorphanol and buprenorphine exhibit a limited effect of analegsia regardless of the dose that is administered. This is a phenomenon called the ____ effect
ceiling
55
which of the following choices is not an example of an alpha-2 agonist?
antisedan
56
which of the following is a property of potassium bromide
vomiting is a common side effect
57
there are several mechanisms of action for behavior- modifying drugs used in vet med. which of the following is not considered one of these mechanisms
stimulate euphoria by binding to the mu opioid receptor
58
on an animal that is not responding particularly well to phenobarbital or the phenobarbital/bromide combination for long-term seizure control, all of the following drugs might be tried except
clomicalm
59
in addition to treating behavioral problems, selegiline is also used to treat this condition in dogs
cushings's disease
60
When a painful injury occurs, it’s not just those tissues that are directly damaged that stimulate pain receptors. Over time nearby cells become excessively sensitized and therefore are easily stimulated to detect pain. The resulting throbbing pain found areas near an injury are because of tissue ______________.
hyperalgesia
61
an uncommonly used unit of measurement that is often used in conjuction with barbiturates is the grain. What is the approximate size in milligrams of a 2-grain phenobarbital tablet
120 mg
62
when discussing the subject of patient pain relief, it is important to understand teh difference between analgesia and anesthesia. Analgesia involves the loss of _____, while anesthesia involves loss of
pain, consciousness or sensation
63
which of the following is an oral barbiturate that has been used as the drug of choice to manage seizure patients for several years
phenobarbital
64
which of teh following is an example of a CNS stimulant that is no longer as a respiratory stimulant in neonates
doxapram
65
plasma phenobarbital concentrations achieved with any given dose vary considerably from patient to patiient. therefore, the only way to ensure a dosage regimen is adequate is to
check blood levels of phenobarbital
66
side effects of using phenobarbital to control seizure activity in dogs include
polyuria, ataxia, polyphagia
67
neuroleptanalegia is the combination of a
opioid and tranquilizer
68
which neurotransmitter does acepromazine antagonize to decrease anxiety in both humans and vet patients
dopamine
69
Buprenorphine is an opioid analgesic that is considered to have both agonist and antagonist opioid receptor effects, which allows for the benefit of providing a long duration of effect with fewer adverse effects compared to other drugs in this class. Buprenorphine exhibits agonistic activity at the ___________ receptor, and antagonistic activity at the _____________ receptor.
mu, kappa
70
which of these opiods is an agonist/antagonist
butorphanol
71
which opiod is easily absorbed across the mucous membranes and is commonly used in cats
buprenorphine
72
levetiraetam is the active ingredient in
keppra
73
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
74
which of the following is false in regards to beta-adrenergic agonist bronchodilators?
all options are correct
75
which of the following cells are responsible for releasing both heparin and histamine?
mast cells
76
terbutaline, albuterol, and metaproterenol are used in vet med to
treat feline asthma or other bronchoconstrictive diseases
77
you can overdose your patient on oxygen
true
78
which of the following can be used in stimulating respiration in cases of xylazine overdose?
yohimbine
79
which of the following drugs combines an antitussive with a corticoid steroid?
temaril-P
80
loratadine
claritin
81
acetylcysteine
mucomyst
82
butorphanol tartrate
torbugesic
83
albuterol
ventolin
84
cetirizine
zyrtec
85
dextromethorphan
robitussin DM
86
diphenhydramine
benadryl
87
prednisolone
solu-medrol
88
which of the following drugs is available over the counter as an antitussive
dextromethorphan
89
methylxanthines are often used to improve breathing in cardiac patients, as well as patients with respiratory disease. Which of the following drugs are methylxanthines used for this purpose?
theophylline and aminophylline
90
if beta-2 agonists are non-selective they will affect both the cardiovascular and respiratory system
true
91
what effects do beta-receptor agonists have on the respiratory tree?
cause bronchodilation
92
______ is an example of a loop diuretic
lasix
93
butorphanol and hydrocodone are examples of
antitussives
94
metered dose inhalers deliver small drug particles to the _____ respiratory system
upper
95
guaifenesin is an example of a(n)
expectorant
96
which of the following is no longer recommended in neonates as it can cause cerebral hypoxia
dopram
97
which of the following can be used in stimulating respiration in cases of narcotic overdose?
narcan
98
thy type of drug that would be most helpful for a patient with a productive cough is
expectorant
99
drugs used to increase airflow, through respiratory passageways narrowed by the relaxation of smooth muscle around them, are called
bronchodilators
100
drugs that reduce the viscosity of secretions in the respiratory tract are called
expectorants
101
drugs that effectively block the cough reflex are called
antitussives
102
nebulizers require positive force to get the aerosolized droplets deep into the respiratory tract
false
103
which of the following is an example of a mucolytic
steam and mucomyst
104
vomiting can be a side effect with expectorants as they can
irritate the gastric mucosa
105
care must be taken when prescribing hydrocodone to our veterinary patients because it is a human-labeled product and often times has which of the following medications added to it?
acetaminophen
106
antihistamines should be given _____ histamine release in the body for optimum effects
before
107
which class of drug is designed to break up mucus as well as reduce its viscosity
mucolytics
108
smooth muscle contraction and brochial constriction is mainly caused by
histamine
109
decongestants work by causing vasodilation in swollen nasal passages
false
110
if your patient will be on oxygen therapy for longer than a few hours the O2 should be ______ as to not dry out the respiratory tract and cause irritation
humidified
111
an asthmatic cat may receive which of the following drugs for its bronchodilatory effect?
theophylline
112
which of the following is an example of a volatile oil in regards to being an expectorant?
eucalyptus oil
113
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
114
When DES, a synthetic estrogen, is used at higher does, it can have the potentially dangerous side effect of
bone marrow suppresion
115
which of the following drugs should not be given to pregnant mares or cows as it can accidently induce abortion or premature parturition?
dexamethasone
116
CIDR's are implant to help prolong diestrus in cattle for several days
true
117
which of the following is a testosterone analog that can be used as a contraceptive in dogs that works by inhibiting LH release?
mibolerone
118
cloprostenol
estrumate
119
diethylstilbestrol
DES
120
gonadorelins
OvaCyst
121
dinoprost tromethamine
lutalyse
122
altrenogest
Regu-Mate
123
which of the following drugs can be used in an animal with dystocia?
oxytocin
124
the drug oxytocin aids in milk production
false
125
which of the following drugs can be used to terminate pregnancies in mare?
lutalyse
126
estrogens can depress hematopoiesis, which can result in aplastic anemia
true
127
which of the following drugs used to be widely used in food animals as a growth-promoting steroid that has since been banned in food animals as it has been shown to be carcinogenic?
diethylstilbestrol
128
what are estrogen products mainly used for in small animal medicine?
treating urinary incontinence
129
which of the following produces progesterone?
the placenta and corpus luteum
130
estrumate is a prostaglandin drug
true
131
which of the following drugs can aid in milk letdown?
oxytocin
132
dopamine antagonists promote the release of prolactin from the pituitary
true
133
which of the following groups of drugs can be used by livestock breeders to help estrus synchronization?
prostaglandins
134
which of the following drugs should females wear gloves with if they are/suspect they are pregnant because it can extend a pregnancy beyond its natural end
altrenogest
135
which of the following is a noun referring to the state of being in heat?
estrus
136
which of the following is a feed additive given to cattle to either suppress estrus or extend diestrus?
melengestrol acetate
