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Flashcards in Pilot MQF Deck (200):
1

With the SAS/FPS computer, _________ is required for turn coordination to disengage and transition to heading hold.

airspeed less than 60 KIAS

2

If the Ground BITE check (AFCC) is inadvertently initiated, _________.

do not takeoff for approximately 2 minutes to ensure FPS authority has been reenabled

3

Flight near high power RF emitters such as microwave antennas or shipboard radar may cause uncommanded AFCS and/or stabilator inputs.

True

4

If _____ of the stabilator check fails, do not fly the helicopter.

any part

5

With the AFCC, _________ is required for turn coordination to disengage and transition to heading hold.

roll attitude less than 3 degrees

roll rate less than 5 deg/sec

airspeed less than 60 KIAS

6

Do not conduct hoist training with the hoist operator's intercom inoperative.

True

7

For live hoist training, hoist riders will not be lifted higher than _____ feet over terrain, obstacles, or water; but may be lifted up to _____ feet to meet unique training requirements with concurrence of both the Aircraft Commander and Team Leader.

25, 50

8

____________ determine eligibility of personnel authorized to ride the hoist during training.

Unit Commanders

9

Once the tankers assume ________, the ________ will be responsible for all navigation, weather avoidance, and position reporting.

formation lead, tankers

10

Overt _______ may cause excessive glare during NVG join ups.

anti-collision lights

11

During HAAR Formation Option 2 (Trail), the helicopter flight separates into two elements in trail. Standard spacing between helicopter elements is ______; however, it may be as little as _____ and should be determined based on mission requirements such as number of receivers, terrain, forecast visibility, and light conditions.

2nm, 0.5nm

12

If visual and electronic contact are lost after the tanker is within 3 NM of the receiver, the tanker will immediately call "CONTACT LOST", establish a minimum ______ foot vertical separation and ______ of the track heading.

500/turn 45 degrees right

13

Under no circumstances should the pilot stare at the ______ as this will result in poor aircraft control and may result in spatial disorientation.

drogue

14

Wing/prop turbulence can cause uncontrolled settling. If this occurs while connected to the drogue, disconnect immediately.

True

15

A counter-clockwise rotating drogue could result in partial or complete unthreading of the probe nozzle.

False

16

Lengths of pod hoses vary between ______ and ______ depending on the system and use; 24 m (80 ft) is typical of an integral system hose.

15 m (50 ft)/27 m (90 ft)

17

If a crossover is required, the receiver pilot will move to the outside of the tanker wing tip, ______ feet aft of the horizontal stabilizer and increase altitude a minimum of ______ feet above the tanker's vertical stabilizer.

100/50

18

Due to distraction and the difficulty of maintaining lateral separation, two receivers will not disconnect or fly in the ______ position simultaneously.

astern

19

The ARCP (HAAR ONLY) is defined as _______.

normally the earliest point the tanker can pass abeam the receiver during join-up

20

When conducting RV procedures, both the receivers and the tankers should plan to arrive at the ARCP on time; however, if a deviation is required, receivers should arrive at the ARCP _______ and tankers should arrive at the ARCP _______.

earlier (no more than 1 minute)/later (no more than 1 minute)

21

Disconnect is approximately _______ feet above the contact position.

5 - 10

22

One White light from the tanker indicates _______ to the receiver.

"proceed to observation"

23

The AAR Abort Point is defined as _______.

a planned point along the receiver track at which the receiver must divert, if he is not in contact receiving fuel

24

________ is the minimum acceptable equipment for conducting electronic RV (HAAR).

all of the above are acceptable minimum equipment

25

________ is the command given by the tanker to receiver, either verbally or by signal, instructing receiver to disengage from tanker refueling equipment.

"Disconnect"

26

During a "Tobaggan" procedure, the rate of descent is between ______ and ______ feet per minute and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.

300/500

27

A planned geographic point prior to the RVCP to which tankers and receivers time independently to effect an arrival at the RVCT is the ________.

RVIP

28

The Observation Position is defined as a position to the left or right of the tanker, _______ of the wingtip and slightly above and _______ the tanker horizontal stabilizer.

outboard, behind

29

Emission Option ______ (Emission Out) is defined as: No emitters will be used unless specifically authorized by the plan that the HAAR is supporting (ATO, SPINS, Rules of Engagement (ROE), Operations plan, Safe Passage procedures, or other mission directive).

4

30

___________ is defined as: Any and all emitters are authorized, ie full RT for training purposes adding any timing that would affect the RV.

Emission Option 1 - (HAAR)

31

Emission Option _______ (Silent R/T) is defined as: Radio silent operations including formation, RV and HAAR. The use of other emitters is authorized unless specifically prohibited.

3 (HAAR)

32

A _______ is made when the probe engages the drogue.

Contact

33

During Aerial Refueling if the OVERFLOW indicator on the fuel management panel illuminates, the following corrective action should be taken ____________.

hold the MAIN switch to SHUTOFF

34

The probe valve can be opened to on-load fuel through a retracted probe with the helicopter on the ground by _____________.

activation of the left WOW switch

35

The FUEL PUMP switch should be at APU BOOST for all APU operations.

True

36

The following corrective action should be accomplished in order to recover from a vortex ring state.

increase forward airspeed and decrease collective pitch

enter autorotation, if altitude permits

37

If the APU generator is the sole source of AC power all equipment may be operated except

blade de-ice

windshield anti-ice when the backup pump is on

38

When the #1 AC generator is inoperative and BACKUP PUMP PWR circuit breaker is out for any reason, _________ must be shut off before resetting the circuit breaker.

BACKUP PUMP switch

39

The crash axe is located ___________.

AG's console

40

A boost servo malfunction ______ be accompanied by illumination of the BOOST SERVO OFF caution light.

may or may not

41

Weapon Systems Emergencies: A ______ is the complete failure of the weapon to fire. This is not dangerous, but must be treated as a malfunction in the firing mechanism or a faulty round.

misfire

42

Loss of DC primary power will result in the engine anti-ice and engine inlet anti-ice valves failing to the ___________ position.

open

43

During autorotations, pitch attitudes from a hover attitude to _________ degrees nose-up at the point of touchdown normally result in a safe landing.

25

44

Do not respond to ENG OUT audio and warning lights until checking _________.

Nr

TGT

45

If AC electrical power is not available, only the ________ engine compartment has fire protection. Additionally only the ________ fire bottle is capable of being discharged.

#1; reserve

46

The minimum rotor speed for a single-engine go-around is __________% Nr.

95

47

If the airspeed fault advisory light is illuminated, continued flight above _________ KIAS with the stabilator in the AUTO mode is unsafe.

70

48

_________ is the first step for both #1 or #2 FUEL PRESS CAUTION LIGHT and #1 or #2 FUEL FLTR BYPASS CAUTION LIGHT ON checklist.

Fuel Selector (affected engine) - Select alternate tank. (DIR or XFD)

49

_______________ should be done when #1 RSVR LOW and #1 HYD PUMP caution lights illuminate with BACKUP PUMP ON advisory light on, followed by BACKUP RSVR LOW caution light on.

SVO OFF switch - 1st STG

50

___________ is the first step of the BOOST SERVO MALFUNCTION checklist.

BOOST switch - OFF

51

If tail rotor control is lost, do not use aerodynamic braking to slow the helicopter after touchdown.

True

52

The HMU provides Ng overspeed protection, __________ if Ng reaches 110% +/- 2.

shutting off all fuel flow with no possible restart until maintenance corrective action

53

With the throttle in ECU/DEC LOCKOUT, _______ is deactivated and the _______ must be manually controlled.

Automatic TGT Limiting System, TGT

54

If ENG INLET ANTI-ICE ON light goes on with ENG ANTI-ICE NO. 1 and NO. 2 switches in the OFF position, it indicates that heat is being applied to that engine and a malfunction exists.

True

55

Which of the following functions does the mixing unit provide as a result of increased collective?

left lateral cyclic input

increased tail rotor pitch

56

Auxiliary Tanks: If the 200 Gallon Internal Auxiliary Fuel Tank contains more than _____ of its total fuel capacity, the lower cargo rings structure securing the left and right restraint beams may fail on impact with the ground, causing the tank to dislodge. This causes an increase in the probability and severity of injury.

58%

57

When using fuel without icing inhibitor, avoid flying at altitudes where indicated OAT is below ________ to preclude fuel system icing.

0° C

58

Helicopters equipped with a _______ that provides sufficient light for a landing may substitute that for an operable landing light.

searchlight

59

Deviations from AFI 11-2HH-60V3 require specific approval of the ________ unless an urgent requirement or an aircraft emergency dictates otherwise.

MAJCOM/A3 (NGB: NGB/A3)

60

The Aircraft Commander is responsible for all of the following except_________.

Approving deviations from AFI 11-2HH-60V3 during routine mission accomplishment.

61

Passengers will not be carried on flights involving practice emergency procedure training.

True

62

Concerning MEP, unless otherwise stated in MAJCOM supplements to AFI 11-401, _______ or equivalent with Operational Control (OPCON) is the approving authority.

OG/CC

63

When WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE switch is on, and there is windshield ice build up, it indicates that the monitor has turned off the system, the following corrective action should be taken __________.

WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE PILOT, CTR, and COPILOT switches must be placed OFF and then ON

64

Maintain positive control of the engine cowling/work platform when opening and closing. Do not lean on vertical arm of cowling. Do not exceed _____ pounds of total weight on platform. Individual on platform will not exceed _____ pounds.

400, 250

65

A PIC may deviate from any flight rule only when ________.

an in-flight emergency requires immediate action

deviation is required to protect lives

when safety of flight dictates

66

The following are approved types of flight logs _______.

AF Form 70

navigator's flight log

lead command approved computer-generated flight log

67

When two aircraft are approaching head-on, each shall alter course to the ________.

right

68

If weather prevents continued flight under VFR on the planned route, the PIC will alter the route of flight as necessary, so as to continue operations under VFR _________.

to the destination

until obtaining an IFR clearance

to a suitable landing location

69

Avoid thunderstorm activity by any means available by at least ______ laterally below FL 230.

10 NM

70

Helicopters operating in class G airspace below 1200 ft AGL adhere to the following cloud clearance and visibility _________.

day ½ SM clear of clouds

night 1 SM clear of clouds

71

The final responsibility regarding equipment required for a mission rests with the _____________.

Aircraft Commander

72

When visible moisture is present, pitot heat, engine anti-ice, blade de-ice and windshield anti-ice should be turned on when at or below ________ degrees C. These systems must be turned on at or below _________ degrees C.

10; 4

73

If high engine oil pressure is observed during initial start in cold weather, accomplish the following _________.

run engine at idle until pressure is within limits

74

During hot weather ground operations if engine oil pressure falls into the red gauge range and/or the engine oil pressure caution light comes on when the throttle is in IDLE, accomplish the following ____________.

slightly advance the throttle, if engine oil pressure caution light extinguishes, oil pressure is acceptable

75

During salt water operations, the rate of salt build up in engines is greatest in winds of ________ knots.

8 to 12

76

In flight which of the following caution/advisory lights will indicate a hydraulic leak test was attempted_________.

BACKUP RSVR LOW

77

Helicopter pilots must use the published visibility minimums for "Copter Only" approaches as published.

True

78

The required climb gradient for a selected IFR departure is _________________ (if a higher gradient is not published) to the appropriate minimum IFR altitude.

200 ft/NM

79

For an airport to qualify as an alternate, the worst forecasted prevailing weather conditions (ETA +/- 1 hour) must meet or exceed _________________.

a ceiling 200 ft. above, and a visibility of at least 1 SM above, the lowest compatible published landing minimum.

80

For an airfield without a Published Instrument Approach Procedure to qualify as an alternate, the forecast weather for the ETA (+/- _______) must permit a VFR descent from the MIA to a VFR approach and landing.

1 hour

81

Pilots may select an airport as an alternate that includes a temporary condition in the forecast if the condition is due to_______.

thunderstorm

rain/snow shower

82

For airports without a published instrument approach, pilots may not ________.

file IFR to the airport

83

For IFR takeoff minimums for training flights, weather must be equal to or higher than _________.

the published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility)

84

If unable to meet or exceed the required IFR departure climb gradient, a VMC climb to the IFR MEA or a VFR departure are authorized as a last resort for mission accomplishment.

True

85

If the airport does not have an authorized IFR departure method, then ________.

an IMC departure under IFR is not authorized

86

The term "Radar contact" by a controller means the aircraft has been identified on radar, but does not mean that terrain and obstruction clearance responsibility has transferred to the controller.

True

87

The use of a hood or other artificial vision-restricting device is authorized ________.

never

88

For precision instrument approach procedures, all of the following are required PNF calls except _________.

"500 feet above DH"

89

Any crewmember will announce heading deviations of _____ degrees, airspeed deviations of _____ knots, or when altitude deviation exceeds _____ feet.

10, 10, 100

90

After about a 2 minute warm up, the radar altimeter altitude pointer will be ________ feet, and the digital readout will be ________ feet.

0+/-5; 0 to +3

91

Flights conducted in IMC require ________.

operative pitot heat

operational anti-icing and/or deicing equipment

92

If the helicopter has become airborne (the WOW switch has cycled) the Mode 4 codes will be lost if power is removed unless ___________.

specifically held with the HOLD function

93

To prevent APU overheating, APU operation at an OAT of _____ degrees Celsius and above with engine and rotor operating, is limited to _____ minutes. With engine and rotor not operating, the APU may be operated continuously up to an OAT of _____ degrees Celsius.

43, 30, 51

94

Maximum allowable Nr for normal operations and emergency procedures training is _________ %. Maximum allowable Nr for functional check flights is _________ %.

110; 120

95

The maximum wind velocity, from any direction, for rotor start or stop is _______ KIAS.

45

96

Avoid operation in the ______________ Nf ranges.

20%-40% and 60%-90%

97

Routine rotor brake stops shall be done between _________% Nr, and should be limited to ________ psi.

30 to 50; 180

98

The maximum airspeed with one engine inoperative is____________KIAS.

130

99

__________ is the sideward/rearward flight limit into the wind, when combined with wind speed.

45 KIAS

100

__________ is the maximum airspeed to extend either searchlight.

100 KIAS

101

The maximum airspeed authorized with cabin doors open, with soundproofing removed aft of station 379 or with soundproofing retention kit installed is ____________.

145 KIAS

102

The cabin heater should be turned off before starting descents in icing conditions.

True

103

The blade deicing system shall not be operated at an OAT above _________.

21 deg C

104

The VFR weather training minimums are ______ and IAW AFI 11-202 for night practice emergency procedures.

700/1 (Day) / 700/2,(NVG) / 1000/3 (Night Unaided)

105

IFR Takeoff Minimums for training flights require weather equal to or higher than ___________.

published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility), but no less then 1/2 mile (RVR 2400) at the departure airfield

106

An IFR departure alternate airfield for operational flights _________.

should be within 60 minutes flight time

must have prevailing weather equal to or better than the lowest published approach ceiling and visibility minimum (no lower than 1200 RVR), and forecast to remain so for 1 hour after the time you expect to arrive

is not required if visibility at the departure point is at or above the published visibility minimums required for the appropriate aircraft category for an available approach

107

For instrument flight planning purposes, when __________ criterion is used, or when destination weather information may be unreliable, fuel requirements for descent, approach, and missed approach will be __________ pounds. Ensure sufficient fuel remains to arrive at the alternate with appropriate reserves.

visibility-only, 500

108

Minimum en route altitude for unaided night navigation is 500 feet AHO within 5 NM for ________.

operational flights

training flights

109

Helicopter crewmembers will wear survival vest/Load Bearing Vest (LBV) on all flights departing the local traffic pattern.

True

110

A new or corrected DD Form 365-4, Weight and Balance Form F, need not be recomputed provided the initial takeoff gross weight (item 16) is not changed by more than ______ pounds.

500

111

Malfunctions of the Enhanced Fuel Quantity Indicating (EFQI) system should not affect main fuel quantity indications and do not restrict the crew from flying the aircraft. However, if mission requirements dictate the use of auxiliary fuel with a malfunction in the EFQI then __________.

the tank must be visually checked prior to takeoff

a crewmember must be designated to monitor the transfer of auxiliary fuel to preclude damaging the auxiliary fuel transfer pumps

112

If an alternate is required, fuel for approach and missed approach must be included in the total flight plan fuel when _________.

visibility only weather criteria is used

113

Regarding helicopter operations, the required visibility minimum may be reduced to _________ of the published visibility minimums for category A aircraft.

one-half

114

Regardless of weather, pilots must designate an alternate on all IFR flight plans when filing to a destination where _________.

all compatible approaches require radar

there is no weather reporting capability

required navaids are unmonitored

115

Passengers will not occupy a seat with access to a set of flight controls.

True

116

Aircraft will avoid taxi obstructions by _____ feet without wing walkers and by ______ feet with wing walkers.

25, 10

117

The maximum hover taxi speed is _______, or as required when directed by ATC (N/A for air taxi).

15 KGS

118

The maximum ground taxi speed is ________ KGS, or as required when directed by ATC.

10

119

During rotor turning crew changes, the new crew will review ________.

aircraft forms, weight and balance, asterisk item before takeoff items and TOLD

120

If the aircraft commander becomes doubtful of the helicopter's airworthiness or encounters hazardous weather conditions, a _________ should be accomplished.

precautionary landing

121

In addition to flight manual prohibited maneuvers, all of the following maneuvers will not be practiced in the aircraft except __________.

throttle reduction on a single engine

122

Accomplish all emergency procedures to _______.

runways or taxiways

helipads

other areas approved by the SQ/CC and listed in the local Chapter 8.

123

Marginal power and maximum performance takeoffs will be terminated when clear of the simulated obstacle and above safe single engine airspeed (or _________ KIAS if safe single engine airspeed is not available).

80

124

When practicing a rolling takeoff, simulate max power _____ percent below hover power.

10

125

Initiate practice steep approaches at ________, _________, and a _____ degree apparent angle.

300 feet AGL, 50 knots KGS, 45

126

The maximum rate of descent on a steep approach is _______ feet a minute.

800

127

The maximum touchdown speed for a practice roll-on landing is __________.

60 KGS

128

When reducing torque available on the simulated failed engine, initiation of practice single-engine emergencies will not be lower than ______ feet AGL, _______ KIAS.

300 / 80

129

Practice single-engine emergencies may be initiated below 300 feet AGL and 80 KIAS so long as torque available is limited on both engines versus reducing torque available on the simulated failed engine by actual throttle manipulation.

True

130

The following simulated single-engine maneuvers will be practiced by simulating a limited torque available on both engines versus reducing torque by actual throttle manipulation __________.

single-engine air refueling

single-engine approaches to a spot (min-roll)

131

Practice autorotations will terminate and a power recovery will be initiated at the first indications of _________.

abnormally high/low rotor RPM

excessive sink rate

low airspeed

132

For restricted visibility approaches, when the anticipated power margin is ______ or less, a second aircrew member will reconfirm power computations using flight manual performance charts or the CDU Calculator Page.

10%

133

For restricted visibility approaches training, power available must be equal to or greater than __________________.

OGE hover power + 5%

134

For water operations training, power available must be equal to or greater than ___________.

OGE hover power + 5%

135

When landing to a surface area smaller than your rotor diameter, such as a pinnacle or ridgeline, power for ________ hover must be available.

an OGE

136

Do not initiate fuel dumping except for life and death rescue missions, operational missions, MAJCOM exercises and emergencies. Except during emergencies, or operational deeds dictate due to inability to climb due to threats or weather, fuel will not be dumped below 3,000 feet AGL or over agricultural/populated areas.

True

137

Do not taxi another aircraft within ______ feet of a refueling operation.

50

138

Aircraft may be flown with one strobe light inoperative.

True

139

_______ approval is required to remove the FE and AG seats. _______ may delegate this authority no lower than _______.

OG/CC, OG/CC, SQ/CC

140

Conduct all operations at or above ________ above ground level (AGL) except when lower altitudes are required for takeoff, departure, arrival, landing, operational missions, training flights in approved areas or routes, or approved exercise missions.

500 feet

141

For all flights, VFR or IFR, plan to arrive at destination with a ____-pound usable fuel reserve.

500

142

Prior to each flight the aircraft commander will ensure all passengers are briefed IAW TO 1H-60(H)G-1CL-1 and applicable MAJCOM guidance.

True

143

Aircraft energy is the combination of airspeed (kinetic energy) and altitude (potential energy) at any time during flight.

True

144

Engine performance is affected by pressure altitude (PA) and outside air temperature, with ________ generally having the largest impact on power available.

temperature

145

The lowest point of the total power required curve indicates the airspeed that normally determines the aircraft's level flight speed for VY, VBE, and minimum rate-of-descent speed for autorotation is referred to as the _________ speed.

bucket

146

As gross weights and DA increase, the single-engine airspeed range ________.

narrows

147

For an HH-60G in a stabilized hover in a no-wind environment, the application of right pedal for a moderate-rate pedal turn will result in an approximate ___________change in torque.

5 % decrease

148

When hovering with a crosswind, the application of pedal to hold heading will result in power (required to hover) readings that will not match those estimated for a no-wind environment.

True

149

As main rotor and tail rotor thrust are both increased to cushion the landing, the helicopter may exhibit a right lateral drift. This phenomenon is most noticeable just prior to touchdown during an approach to the ground and is known as __________.

translating tendency

150

If a loss of tail rotor effectiveness occurs, consider counteracting by________.

reducing power

allowing the aircraft to align into the wind

increasing forward airspeed

151

Excessive cyclic input and insufficient collective application may result in inadequate taxi speed and droop-stop pounding.

True

152

Hover references off the nose of the helicopter (or using the probe on the pilot side) will help in detecting heading and sideward drift. If only one reference is available, attempt to position it at a ________ degree angle to the side.

45

153

The normal takeoff may be made from the ground or a hover. Target torque value for the normal takeoff is _________.

hover power +10 percent

154

Using more than _________ degrees nose low when in close proximity to the ground can lead to difficulty during a single-engine or uncommanded stabilator movement emergency or result in inadvertent probe-to-ground contact.

10

155

For practice and simulated maximum performance takeoffs, use a target torque value of _________ or as specified by the IP/EP and a 100-foot vertical obstacle.

OGE hover power + 5%

156

Maximum performance takeoff: As the aircraft clears the obstacle, adjust cyclic to obtain an accelerative attitude (e.g., approximately 5 to 10 degrees nose low) and allow the aircraft to crab into the wind while maintaining desired ground track. Once the aircraft is clear of the obstacle and above safe single-engine airspeed, or _________ if safe single-engine airspeed is not available, continue with normal takeoff procedures.

70-80 KIAS

157

The marginal power takeoff is made from the ground or a stabilized 10-foot hover. For practice or simulated marginal power takeoffs, use a target torque value of _________ and a 50-foot vertical obstacle.

10 ft hvr pwr

158

The _______ is used when power available is limited (e.g., high gross weights/high DA) and will not allow for the use of other types of takeoffs.

rolling take-off

159

For practice rolling takeoffs, use a simulated maximum power available value of _________. For rolling takeoffs when power is actually limited, apply torque as necessary, up to maximum available power (without droop).

10 percent less than 10-foot hover power

160

To begin a rolling take-off, place the cyclic forward of neutral so that the tip-path plane is slightly above the horizon. Increase the collective and release the brakes. Apply approximately __________ percent torque to accelerate the aircraft.

30 to 40

161

The normal approach uses a __________ degree apparent angle and is initiated at __________ KIAS and 300 feet AGL. The normal approach may terminate on the ground or in a hover.

30, 80

162

The steep approach is used when obstacles or terrain will not allow the use of other types of approaches. The steep approach uses a 45-degree apparent angle, is initiated at __________ and __________, and may terminate on the ground or in a hover.

50 KGS, 300 AGL

163

The shallow approach uses a 10-degree apparent angle and is initiated at 80 KIAS and 300 feet AGL. The shallow approach may terminate on the ground or in a hover.

True

164

Aerodynamic braking is normally used when wheel-braking action may be inadequate due to the landing surface's size or surface or there is a concern that the aircraft's brakes may overheat. By using the aerodynamic forces of the main rotor system, the aircraft can be stopped or slowed down significantly in a relatively short distance.

True

165

When executing a rolling landing, maintain airspeed ________ or above minimum safe single-engine airspeed, until the landing area can be reached in the event of a loss of power.

between 60 to 80 KIAS

166

During a Boost/SAS malfunction, a well-executed ________ approach requires little maneuvering to terminate. Whatever approach angle is selected, ensure slow, smooth collective inputs at termination.

Steep

167

During a stabilator malfunction, in order to provide a normal deceleration, sight picture, and landing attitude, the stabilator is slewed full down below ________.

40 KIAS

168

With the Stab set at zero degrees, the aircraft will take more time and distance to decelerate. The nose of the aircraft will pitch up several degrees higher than normal during the deceleration (particularly on short final), perhaps making forward visibility difficult.

True

169

When a throttle is dragged to simulate a single-engine failure, consider dragging the throttle on the __________ engine in the event of inadvertent shutdown.

weaker (e.g., lower engine torque factor [ETF])

170

During practice emergency DEC operations, the PNF pulls the throttle downward out of the FLY detent and smartly/swiftly advances it full forward to LOCKOUT, then smartly/swiftly reduces it to _________.

an intermediate position between IDLE and FLY (the six o'clock position is recommended)

171

For autorotations, any crewmember noting an out of parameter condition or adverse trend should announce the condition/trend and/or direct a __________, as necessary.

go around

172

Some actual autorotations might require a near-zero ground speed, such as landing in/on __________.

trees

water

a confined LZ

173

Allowing the aircraft attitude to pitch up during initiation of practice autorotations can result in ________.

loss of airspeed throughout the maneuver

174

During performance of practice autorotations, initiating the wake-up while leveling the aircraft may not allow sufficient time for the engines to respond and may result in rotor droop and/or inadvertent landing.

True

175

During brownout/whiteout operations and ________ wind conditions, extreme caution must be exercised due to the potential of near-zero visibility conditions.

light

zero

176

Flying the high recon at approximately _________ should provide a reasonable compromise between providing a familiar sight picture and margin above hazards/obstacles, while being low enough to provide good viewing/analysis of the landing area.

300 feet above site elevation

177

Light and variable wind conditions could result in a tailwind component on final approach, significantly increasing power requirements.

True

178

High DA, clear skies, and vegetation can cause a bubble effect on mountaintops that can result in surface temperatures of ________ degrees warmer than the same elevation outside the bubble.

several

179

A common problem associated with steep approaches over barriers is that translational lift may be lost when the helicopter is possibly __________ AGL.

100-200 feet

180

Use of IR lighting in brownout or whiteout conditions can seriously degrade visibility. When these conditions are anticipated, IR lighting, if used, should be _________.

dimmed to the lowest level necessary to safely accomplish the landing

181

During formulation of approach plans during remote area reconnaissance, a normal approach may prove advantageous because it provides a familiar ____________.

sight picture

closure rate

power application

182

The ______ is a proactive, pre-emptive action taken when external conditions warn of a deteriorating condition.

go-around

183

The ______ is a reactive maneuver performed because of malfunction or because the PF failed to notice a deteriorating condition.

escape

184

Failure to wait the full _____ minutes for APU cool down may result in the APU failing to start.

30

185

If the APU does not start, you should wait __________ before attempting a restart.

2 minutes

186

Monitor main fuel quantity during probe extension and retraction to ensure no more than the normal _________ pound changes occur in total main fuel quantity.

20 to 30

187

Due to the danger to personnel of electromagnetic fields radiating from the SATCOM antenna, no personnel should be on top of the aircraft when transmitting.

True

188

With the BACKUP HYDRAULIC PUMP as the sole source of hydraulic pressure for either the #1 or #2 TAIL SERVO, do not _________ during shutdown.

move the BACKUP HYD PUMP switch from AUTO

189

If the stabilator is slewed up using battery power, _________ to get a normal engagement of the automatic mode.

it must be manually slewed back down

190

During the Engine HIT check, if TRQ is greater than 5% at 92% to 98% Nf, a torque stiction malfunction is possible ________.

do not fly the aircraft

191

Do not place the MODE SEL switch to AUTO prior to moving the MAN AUX FLOW switches to NO FLOW.

True

192

Recommended hoist altitude over water or vessels is the minimum altitude necessary to avoid salt spray and/or shipboard obstacles.

True

193

Designate an alternate, for the first point of intended landing if the worst weather is forecast to be less than ________.

1000/2

Ceiling 400 ft. above the lowest compatible approach minimums, vis 2

194

Which of the following is an authorized method of departing IFR?

Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP)

Standard Instrument Departure (SIDs) Procedures

Visual Climb Over the Airport (VCOA)

195

Helicopters may fly in fixed-wing rectangular pattern if they maintain a compatible airspeed with the fixed-wing traffic.

True

196

On a diverse departure, track runway centerline to _____________________ before turning on course.

400 feet above the departure end of the runway

197

Simulated hoist and gun emergencies may be performed at night with ___________.

concurrence of the aircraft commander

198

Boost/SAS-Off maneuvers can be initiated ________.

on the ground, in straight and level flight with a minimum of 300 feet AGL and 80 KIAS

199

When performing hover operations with light and variable winds at high gross weight and/or in a high density altitude environment, _________ the power required computations.

add a margin to

200

For EMCON 2 - 4 Aided HAAR, receivers will FLASH formation/position lights _______ seconds prior to movement for disconnect.

5