Flashcards in Pilot MQF Deck (200):
With the SAS/FPS computer, _________ is required for turn coordination to disengage and transition to heading hold.
airspeed less than 60 KIAS
If the Ground BITE check (AFCC) is inadvertently initiated, _________.
do not takeoff for approximately 2 minutes to ensure FPS authority has been reenabled
Flight near high power RF emitters such as microwave antennas or shipboard radar may cause uncommanded AFCS and/or stabilator inputs.
If _____ of the stabilator check fails, do not fly the helicopter.
With the AFCC, _________ is required for turn coordination to disengage and transition to heading hold.
roll attitude less than 3 degrees
roll rate less than 5 deg/sec
airspeed less than 60 KIAS
Do not conduct hoist training with the hoist operator's intercom inoperative.
For live hoist training, hoist riders will not be lifted higher than _____ feet over terrain, obstacles, or water; but may be lifted up to _____ feet to meet unique training requirements with concurrence of both the Aircraft Commander and Team Leader.
____________ determine eligibility of personnel authorized to ride the hoist during training.
Once the tankers assume ________, the ________ will be responsible for all navigation, weather avoidance, and position reporting.
formation lead, tankers
Overt _______ may cause excessive glare during NVG join ups.
During HAAR Formation Option 2 (Trail), the helicopter flight separates into two elements in trail. Standard spacing between helicopter elements is ______; however, it may be as little as _____ and should be determined based on mission requirements such as number of receivers, terrain, forecast visibility, and light conditions.
If visual and electronic contact are lost after the tanker is within 3 NM of the receiver, the tanker will immediately call "CONTACT LOST", establish a minimum ______ foot vertical separation and ______ of the track heading.
500/turn 45 degrees right
Under no circumstances should the pilot stare at the ______ as this will result in poor aircraft control and may result in spatial disorientation.
Wing/prop turbulence can cause uncontrolled settling. If this occurs while connected to the drogue, disconnect immediately.
A counter-clockwise rotating drogue could result in partial or complete unthreading of the probe nozzle.
Lengths of pod hoses vary between ______ and ______ depending on the system and use; 24 m (80 ft) is typical of an integral system hose.
15 m (50 ft)/27 m (90 ft)
If a crossover is required, the receiver pilot will move to the outside of the tanker wing tip, ______ feet aft of the horizontal stabilizer and increase altitude a minimum of ______ feet above the tanker's vertical stabilizer.
Due to distraction and the difficulty of maintaining lateral separation, two receivers will not disconnect or fly in the ______ position simultaneously.
The ARCP (HAAR ONLY) is defined as _______.
normally the earliest point the tanker can pass abeam the receiver during join-up
When conducting RV procedures, both the receivers and the tankers should plan to arrive at the ARCP on time; however, if a deviation is required, receivers should arrive at the ARCP _______ and tankers should arrive at the ARCP _______.
earlier (no more than 1 minute)/later (no more than 1 minute)
Disconnect is approximately _______ feet above the contact position.
5 - 10
One White light from the tanker indicates _______ to the receiver.
"proceed to observation"
The AAR Abort Point is defined as _______.
a planned point along the receiver track at which the receiver must divert, if he is not in contact receiving fuel
________ is the minimum acceptable equipment for conducting electronic RV (HAAR).
all of the above are acceptable minimum equipment
________ is the command given by the tanker to receiver, either verbally or by signal, instructing receiver to disengage from tanker refueling equipment.
During a "Tobaggan" procedure, the rate of descent is between ______ and ______ feet per minute and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.
A planned geographic point prior to the RVCP to which tankers and receivers time independently to effect an arrival at the RVCT is the ________.
The Observation Position is defined as a position to the left or right of the tanker, _______ of the wingtip and slightly above and _______ the tanker horizontal stabilizer.
Emission Option ______ (Emission Out) is defined as: No emitters will be used unless specifically authorized by the plan that the HAAR is supporting (ATO, SPINS, Rules of Engagement (ROE), Operations plan, Safe Passage procedures, or other mission directive).
___________ is defined as: Any and all emitters are authorized, ie full RT for training purposes adding any timing that would affect the RV.
Emission Option 1 - (HAAR)
Emission Option _______ (Silent R/T) is defined as: Radio silent operations including formation, RV and HAAR. The use of other emitters is authorized unless specifically prohibited.
A _______ is made when the probe engages the drogue.
During Aerial Refueling if the OVERFLOW indicator on the fuel management panel illuminates, the following corrective action should be taken ____________.
hold the MAIN switch to SHUTOFF
The probe valve can be opened to on-load fuel through a retracted probe with the helicopter on the ground by _____________.
activation of the left WOW switch
The FUEL PUMP switch should be at APU BOOST for all APU operations.
The following corrective action should be accomplished in order to recover from a vortex ring state.
increase forward airspeed and decrease collective pitch
enter autorotation, if altitude permits
If the APU generator is the sole source of AC power all equipment may be operated except
windshield anti-ice when the backup pump is on
When the #1 AC generator is inoperative and BACKUP PUMP PWR circuit breaker is out for any reason, _________ must be shut off before resetting the circuit breaker.
BACKUP PUMP switch
The crash axe is located ___________.
A boost servo malfunction ______ be accompanied by illumination of the BOOST SERVO OFF caution light.
may or may not
Weapon Systems Emergencies: A ______ is the complete failure of the weapon to fire. This is not dangerous, but must be treated as a malfunction in the firing mechanism or a faulty round.
Loss of DC primary power will result in the engine anti-ice and engine inlet anti-ice valves failing to the ___________ position.
During autorotations, pitch attitudes from a hover attitude to _________ degrees nose-up at the point of touchdown normally result in a safe landing.
Do not respond to ENG OUT audio and warning lights until checking _________.
If AC electrical power is not available, only the ________ engine compartment has fire protection. Additionally only the ________ fire bottle is capable of being discharged.
The minimum rotor speed for a single-engine go-around is __________% Nr.
If the airspeed fault advisory light is illuminated, continued flight above _________ KIAS with the stabilator in the AUTO mode is unsafe.
_________ is the first step for both #1 or #2 FUEL PRESS CAUTION LIGHT and #1 or #2 FUEL FLTR BYPASS CAUTION LIGHT ON checklist.
Fuel Selector (affected engine) - Select alternate tank. (DIR or XFD)
_______________ should be done when #1 RSVR LOW and #1 HYD PUMP caution lights illuminate with BACKUP PUMP ON advisory light on, followed by BACKUP RSVR LOW caution light on.
SVO OFF switch - 1st STG
___________ is the first step of the BOOST SERVO MALFUNCTION checklist.
BOOST switch - OFF
If tail rotor control is lost, do not use aerodynamic braking to slow the helicopter after touchdown.
The HMU provides Ng overspeed protection, __________ if Ng reaches 110% +/- 2.
shutting off all fuel flow with no possible restart until maintenance corrective action
With the throttle in ECU/DEC LOCKOUT, _______ is deactivated and the _______ must be manually controlled.
Automatic TGT Limiting System, TGT
If ENG INLET ANTI-ICE ON light goes on with ENG ANTI-ICE NO. 1 and NO. 2 switches in the OFF position, it indicates that heat is being applied to that engine and a malfunction exists.
Which of the following functions does the mixing unit provide as a result of increased collective?
left lateral cyclic input
increased tail rotor pitch
Auxiliary Tanks: If the 200 Gallon Internal Auxiliary Fuel Tank contains more than _____ of its total fuel capacity, the lower cargo rings structure securing the left and right restraint beams may fail on impact with the ground, causing the tank to dislodge. This causes an increase in the probability and severity of injury.
When using fuel without icing inhibitor, avoid flying at altitudes where indicated OAT is below ________ to preclude fuel system icing.
Helicopters equipped with a _______ that provides sufficient light for a landing may substitute that for an operable landing light.
Deviations from AFI 11-2HH-60V3 require specific approval of the ________ unless an urgent requirement or an aircraft emergency dictates otherwise.
MAJCOM/A3 (NGB: NGB/A3)
The Aircraft Commander is responsible for all of the following except_________.
Approving deviations from AFI 11-2HH-60V3 during routine mission accomplishment.
Passengers will not be carried on flights involving practice emergency procedure training.
Concerning MEP, unless otherwise stated in MAJCOM supplements to AFI 11-401, _______ or equivalent with Operational Control (OPCON) is the approving authority.
When WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE switch is on, and there is windshield ice build up, it indicates that the monitor has turned off the system, the following corrective action should be taken __________.
WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE PILOT, CTR, and COPILOT switches must be placed OFF and then ON
Maintain positive control of the engine cowling/work platform when opening and closing. Do not lean on vertical arm of cowling. Do not exceed _____ pounds of total weight on platform. Individual on platform will not exceed _____ pounds.
A PIC may deviate from any flight rule only when ________.
an in-flight emergency requires immediate action
deviation is required to protect lives
when safety of flight dictates
The following are approved types of flight logs _______.
AF Form 70
navigator's flight log
lead command approved computer-generated flight log
When two aircraft are approaching head-on, each shall alter course to the ________.
If weather prevents continued flight under VFR on the planned route, the PIC will alter the route of flight as necessary, so as to continue operations under VFR _________.
to the destination
until obtaining an IFR clearance
to a suitable landing location
Avoid thunderstorm activity by any means available by at least ______ laterally below FL 230.
Helicopters operating in class G airspace below 1200 ft AGL adhere to the following cloud clearance and visibility _________.
day ½ SM clear of clouds
night 1 SM clear of clouds
The final responsibility regarding equipment required for a mission rests with the _____________.
When visible moisture is present, pitot heat, engine anti-ice, blade de-ice and windshield anti-ice should be turned on when at or below ________ degrees C. These systems must be turned on at or below _________ degrees C.
If high engine oil pressure is observed during initial start in cold weather, accomplish the following _________.
run engine at idle until pressure is within limits
During hot weather ground operations if engine oil pressure falls into the red gauge range and/or the engine oil pressure caution light comes on when the throttle is in IDLE, accomplish the following ____________.
slightly advance the throttle, if engine oil pressure caution light extinguishes, oil pressure is acceptable
During salt water operations, the rate of salt build up in engines is greatest in winds of ________ knots.
8 to 12
In flight which of the following caution/advisory lights will indicate a hydraulic leak test was attempted_________.
BACKUP RSVR LOW
Helicopter pilots must use the published visibility minimums for "Copter Only" approaches as published.
The required climb gradient for a selected IFR departure is _________________ (if a higher gradient is not published) to the appropriate minimum IFR altitude.
For an airport to qualify as an alternate, the worst forecasted prevailing weather conditions (ETA +/- 1 hour) must meet or exceed _________________.
a ceiling 200 ft. above, and a visibility of at least 1 SM above, the lowest compatible published landing minimum.
For an airfield without a Published Instrument Approach Procedure to qualify as an alternate, the forecast weather for the ETA (+/- _______) must permit a VFR descent from the MIA to a VFR approach and landing.
Pilots may select an airport as an alternate that includes a temporary condition in the forecast if the condition is due to_______.
For airports without a published instrument approach, pilots may not ________.
file IFR to the airport
For IFR takeoff minimums for training flights, weather must be equal to or higher than _________.
the published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility)
If unable to meet or exceed the required IFR departure climb gradient, a VMC climb to the IFR MEA or a VFR departure are authorized as a last resort for mission accomplishment.
If the airport does not have an authorized IFR departure method, then ________.
an IMC departure under IFR is not authorized
The term "Radar contact" by a controller means the aircraft has been identified on radar, but does not mean that terrain and obstruction clearance responsibility has transferred to the controller.
The use of a hood or other artificial vision-restricting device is authorized ________.
For precision instrument approach procedures, all of the following are required PNF calls except _________.
"500 feet above DH"
Any crewmember will announce heading deviations of _____ degrees, airspeed deviations of _____ knots, or when altitude deviation exceeds _____ feet.
10, 10, 100
After about a 2 minute warm up, the radar altimeter altitude pointer will be ________ feet, and the digital readout will be ________ feet.
0+/-5; 0 to +3
Flights conducted in IMC require ________.
operative pitot heat
operational anti-icing and/or deicing equipment
If the helicopter has become airborne (the WOW switch has cycled) the Mode 4 codes will be lost if power is removed unless ___________.
specifically held with the HOLD function
To prevent APU overheating, APU operation at an OAT of _____ degrees Celsius and above with engine and rotor operating, is limited to _____ minutes. With engine and rotor not operating, the APU may be operated continuously up to an OAT of _____ degrees Celsius.
43, 30, 51
Maximum allowable Nr for normal operations and emergency procedures training is _________ %. Maximum allowable Nr for functional check flights is _________ %.
The maximum wind velocity, from any direction, for rotor start or stop is _______ KIAS.
Avoid operation in the ______________ Nf ranges.
20%-40% and 60%-90%
Routine rotor brake stops shall be done between _________% Nr, and should be limited to ________ psi.
30 to 50; 180
The maximum airspeed with one engine inoperative is____________KIAS.
__________ is the sideward/rearward flight limit into the wind, when combined with wind speed.
__________ is the maximum airspeed to extend either searchlight.
The maximum airspeed authorized with cabin doors open, with soundproofing removed aft of station 379 or with soundproofing retention kit installed is ____________.
The cabin heater should be turned off before starting descents in icing conditions.
The blade deicing system shall not be operated at an OAT above _________.
21 deg C
The VFR weather training minimums are ______ and IAW AFI 11-202 for night practice emergency procedures.
700/1 (Day) / 700/2,(NVG) / 1000/3 (Night Unaided)
IFR Takeoff Minimums for training flights require weather equal to or higher than ___________.
published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility), but no less then 1/2 mile (RVR 2400) at the departure airfield
An IFR departure alternate airfield for operational flights _________.
should be within 60 minutes flight time
must have prevailing weather equal to or better than the lowest published approach ceiling and visibility minimum (no lower than 1200 RVR), and forecast to remain so for 1 hour after the time you expect to arrive
is not required if visibility at the departure point is at or above the published visibility minimums required for the appropriate aircraft category for an available approach
For instrument flight planning purposes, when __________ criterion is used, or when destination weather information may be unreliable, fuel requirements for descent, approach, and missed approach will be __________ pounds. Ensure sufficient fuel remains to arrive at the alternate with appropriate reserves.
Minimum en route altitude for unaided night navigation is 500 feet AHO within 5 NM for ________.
Helicopter crewmembers will wear survival vest/Load Bearing Vest (LBV) on all flights departing the local traffic pattern.
A new or corrected DD Form 365-4, Weight and Balance Form F, need not be recomputed provided the initial takeoff gross weight (item 16) is not changed by more than ______ pounds.
Malfunctions of the Enhanced Fuel Quantity Indicating (EFQI) system should not affect main fuel quantity indications and do not restrict the crew from flying the aircraft. However, if mission requirements dictate the use of auxiliary fuel with a malfunction in the EFQI then __________.
the tank must be visually checked prior to takeoff
a crewmember must be designated to monitor the transfer of auxiliary fuel to preclude damaging the auxiliary fuel transfer pumps
If an alternate is required, fuel for approach and missed approach must be included in the total flight plan fuel when _________.
visibility only weather criteria is used
Regarding helicopter operations, the required visibility minimum may be reduced to _________ of the published visibility minimums for category A aircraft.
Regardless of weather, pilots must designate an alternate on all IFR flight plans when filing to a destination where _________.
all compatible approaches require radar
there is no weather reporting capability
required navaids are unmonitored
Passengers will not occupy a seat with access to a set of flight controls.
Aircraft will avoid taxi obstructions by _____ feet without wing walkers and by ______ feet with wing walkers.
The maximum hover taxi speed is _______, or as required when directed by ATC (N/A for air taxi).
The maximum ground taxi speed is ________ KGS, or as required when directed by ATC.
During rotor turning crew changes, the new crew will review ________.
aircraft forms, weight and balance, asterisk item before takeoff items and TOLD
If the aircraft commander becomes doubtful of the helicopter's airworthiness or encounters hazardous weather conditions, a _________ should be accomplished.
In addition to flight manual prohibited maneuvers, all of the following maneuvers will not be practiced in the aircraft except __________.
throttle reduction on a single engine
Accomplish all emergency procedures to _______.
runways or taxiways
other areas approved by the SQ/CC and listed in the local Chapter 8.
Marginal power and maximum performance takeoffs will be terminated when clear of the simulated obstacle and above safe single engine airspeed (or _________ KIAS if safe single engine airspeed is not available).
When practicing a rolling takeoff, simulate max power _____ percent below hover power.
Initiate practice steep approaches at ________, _________, and a _____ degree apparent angle.
300 feet AGL, 50 knots KGS, 45
The maximum rate of descent on a steep approach is _______ feet a minute.
The maximum touchdown speed for a practice roll-on landing is __________.
When reducing torque available on the simulated failed engine, initiation of practice single-engine emergencies will not be lower than ______ feet AGL, _______ KIAS.
300 / 80
Practice single-engine emergencies may be initiated below 300 feet AGL and 80 KIAS so long as torque available is limited on both engines versus reducing torque available on the simulated failed engine by actual throttle manipulation.
The following simulated single-engine maneuvers will be practiced by simulating a limited torque available on both engines versus reducing torque by actual throttle manipulation __________.
single-engine air refueling
single-engine approaches to a spot (min-roll)
Practice autorotations will terminate and a power recovery will be initiated at the first indications of _________.
abnormally high/low rotor RPM
excessive sink rate
For restricted visibility approaches, when the anticipated power margin is ______ or less, a second aircrew member will reconfirm power computations using flight manual performance charts or the CDU Calculator Page.
For restricted visibility approaches training, power available must be equal to or greater than __________________.
OGE hover power + 5%
For water operations training, power available must be equal to or greater than ___________.
OGE hover power + 5%
When landing to a surface area smaller than your rotor diameter, such as a pinnacle or ridgeline, power for ________ hover must be available.
Do not initiate fuel dumping except for life and death rescue missions, operational missions, MAJCOM exercises and emergencies. Except during emergencies, or operational deeds dictate due to inability to climb due to threats or weather, fuel will not be dumped below 3,000 feet AGL or over agricultural/populated areas.
Do not taxi another aircraft within ______ feet of a refueling operation.
Aircraft may be flown with one strobe light inoperative.
_______ approval is required to remove the FE and AG seats. _______ may delegate this authority no lower than _______.
OG/CC, OG/CC, SQ/CC
Conduct all operations at or above ________ above ground level (AGL) except when lower altitudes are required for takeoff, departure, arrival, landing, operational missions, training flights in approved areas or routes, or approved exercise missions.
For all flights, VFR or IFR, plan to arrive at destination with a ____-pound usable fuel reserve.
Prior to each flight the aircraft commander will ensure all passengers are briefed IAW TO 1H-60(H)G-1CL-1 and applicable MAJCOM guidance.
Aircraft energy is the combination of airspeed (kinetic energy) and altitude (potential energy) at any time during flight.
Engine performance is affected by pressure altitude (PA) and outside air temperature, with ________ generally having the largest impact on power available.
The lowest point of the total power required curve indicates the airspeed that normally determines the aircraft's level flight speed for VY, VBE, and minimum rate-of-descent speed for autorotation is referred to as the _________ speed.
As gross weights and DA increase, the single-engine airspeed range ________.
For an HH-60G in a stabilized hover in a no-wind environment, the application of right pedal for a moderate-rate pedal turn will result in an approximate ___________change in torque.
5 % decrease
When hovering with a crosswind, the application of pedal to hold heading will result in power (required to hover) readings that will not match those estimated for a no-wind environment.
As main rotor and tail rotor thrust are both increased to cushion the landing, the helicopter may exhibit a right lateral drift. This phenomenon is most noticeable just prior to touchdown during an approach to the ground and is known as __________.
If a loss of tail rotor effectiveness occurs, consider counteracting by________.
allowing the aircraft to align into the wind
increasing forward airspeed
Excessive cyclic input and insufficient collective application may result in inadequate taxi speed and droop-stop pounding.
Hover references off the nose of the helicopter (or using the probe on the pilot side) will help in detecting heading and sideward drift. If only one reference is available, attempt to position it at a ________ degree angle to the side.
The normal takeoff may be made from the ground or a hover. Target torque value for the normal takeoff is _________.
hover power +10 percent
Using more than _________ degrees nose low when in close proximity to the ground can lead to difficulty during a single-engine or uncommanded stabilator movement emergency or result in inadvertent probe-to-ground contact.
For practice and simulated maximum performance takeoffs, use a target torque value of _________ or as specified by the IP/EP and a 100-foot vertical obstacle.
OGE hover power + 5%
Maximum performance takeoff: As the aircraft clears the obstacle, adjust cyclic to obtain an accelerative attitude (e.g., approximately 5 to 10 degrees nose low) and allow the aircraft to crab into the wind while maintaining desired ground track. Once the aircraft is clear of the obstacle and above safe single-engine airspeed, or _________ if safe single-engine airspeed is not available, continue with normal takeoff procedures.
The marginal power takeoff is made from the ground or a stabilized 10-foot hover. For practice or simulated marginal power takeoffs, use a target torque value of _________ and a 50-foot vertical obstacle.
10 ft hvr pwr
The _______ is used when power available is limited (e.g., high gross weights/high DA) and will not allow for the use of other types of takeoffs.
For practice rolling takeoffs, use a simulated maximum power available value of _________. For rolling takeoffs when power is actually limited, apply torque as necessary, up to maximum available power (without droop).
10 percent less than 10-foot hover power
To begin a rolling take-off, place the cyclic forward of neutral so that the tip-path plane is slightly above the horizon. Increase the collective and release the brakes. Apply approximately __________ percent torque to accelerate the aircraft.
30 to 40
The normal approach uses a __________ degree apparent angle and is initiated at __________ KIAS and 300 feet AGL. The normal approach may terminate on the ground or in a hover.
The steep approach is used when obstacles or terrain will not allow the use of other types of approaches. The steep approach uses a 45-degree apparent angle, is initiated at __________ and __________, and may terminate on the ground or in a hover.
50 KGS, 300 AGL
The shallow approach uses a 10-degree apparent angle and is initiated at 80 KIAS and 300 feet AGL. The shallow approach may terminate on the ground or in a hover.
Aerodynamic braking is normally used when wheel-braking action may be inadequate due to the landing surface's size or surface or there is a concern that the aircraft's brakes may overheat. By using the aerodynamic forces of the main rotor system, the aircraft can be stopped or slowed down significantly in a relatively short distance.
When executing a rolling landing, maintain airspeed ________ or above minimum safe single-engine airspeed, until the landing area can be reached in the event of a loss of power.
between 60 to 80 KIAS
During a Boost/SAS malfunction, a well-executed ________ approach requires little maneuvering to terminate. Whatever approach angle is selected, ensure slow, smooth collective inputs at termination.
During a stabilator malfunction, in order to provide a normal deceleration, sight picture, and landing attitude, the stabilator is slewed full down below ________.
With the Stab set at zero degrees, the aircraft will take more time and distance to decelerate. The nose of the aircraft will pitch up several degrees higher than normal during the deceleration (particularly on short final), perhaps making forward visibility difficult.
When a throttle is dragged to simulate a single-engine failure, consider dragging the throttle on the __________ engine in the event of inadvertent shutdown.
weaker (e.g., lower engine torque factor [ETF])
During practice emergency DEC operations, the PNF pulls the throttle downward out of the FLY detent and smartly/swiftly advances it full forward to LOCKOUT, then smartly/swiftly reduces it to _________.
an intermediate position between IDLE and FLY (the six o'clock position is recommended)
For autorotations, any crewmember noting an out of parameter condition or adverse trend should announce the condition/trend and/or direct a __________, as necessary.
Some actual autorotations might require a near-zero ground speed, such as landing in/on __________.
a confined LZ
Allowing the aircraft attitude to pitch up during initiation of practice autorotations can result in ________.
loss of airspeed throughout the maneuver
During performance of practice autorotations, initiating the wake-up while leveling the aircraft may not allow sufficient time for the engines to respond and may result in rotor droop and/or inadvertent landing.
During brownout/whiteout operations and ________ wind conditions, extreme caution must be exercised due to the potential of near-zero visibility conditions.
Flying the high recon at approximately _________ should provide a reasonable compromise between providing a familiar sight picture and margin above hazards/obstacles, while being low enough to provide good viewing/analysis of the landing area.
300 feet above site elevation
Light and variable wind conditions could result in a tailwind component on final approach, significantly increasing power requirements.
High DA, clear skies, and vegetation can cause a bubble effect on mountaintops that can result in surface temperatures of ________ degrees warmer than the same elevation outside the bubble.
A common problem associated with steep approaches over barriers is that translational lift may be lost when the helicopter is possibly __________ AGL.
Use of IR lighting in brownout or whiteout conditions can seriously degrade visibility. When these conditions are anticipated, IR lighting, if used, should be _________.
dimmed to the lowest level necessary to safely accomplish the landing
During formulation of approach plans during remote area reconnaissance, a normal approach may prove advantageous because it provides a familiar ____________.
The ______ is a proactive, pre-emptive action taken when external conditions warn of a deteriorating condition.
The ______ is a reactive maneuver performed because of malfunction or because the PF failed to notice a deteriorating condition.
Failure to wait the full _____ minutes for APU cool down may result in the APU failing to start.
If the APU does not start, you should wait __________ before attempting a restart.
Monitor main fuel quantity during probe extension and retraction to ensure no more than the normal _________ pound changes occur in total main fuel quantity.
20 to 30
Due to the danger to personnel of electromagnetic fields radiating from the SATCOM antenna, no personnel should be on top of the aircraft when transmitting.
With the BACKUP HYDRAULIC PUMP as the sole source of hydraulic pressure for either the #1 or #2 TAIL SERVO, do not _________ during shutdown.
move the BACKUP HYD PUMP switch from AUTO
If the stabilator is slewed up using battery power, _________ to get a normal engagement of the automatic mode.
it must be manually slewed back down
During the Engine HIT check, if TRQ is greater than 5% at 92% to 98% Nf, a torque stiction malfunction is possible ________.
do not fly the aircraft
Do not place the MODE SEL switch to AUTO prior to moving the MAN AUX FLOW switches to NO FLOW.
Recommended hoist altitude over water or vessels is the minimum altitude necessary to avoid salt spray and/or shipboard obstacles.
Designate an alternate, for the first point of intended landing if the worst weather is forecast to be less than ________.
Ceiling 400 ft. above the lowest compatible approach minimums, vis 2
Which of the following is an authorized method of departing IFR?
Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP)
Standard Instrument Departure (SIDs) Procedures
Visual Climb Over the Airport (VCOA)
Helicopters may fly in fixed-wing rectangular pattern if they maintain a compatible airspeed with the fixed-wing traffic.
On a diverse departure, track runway centerline to _____________________ before turning on course.
400 feet above the departure end of the runway
Simulated hoist and gun emergencies may be performed at night with ___________.
concurrence of the aircraft commander
Boost/SAS-Off maneuvers can be initiated ________.
on the ground, in straight and level flight with a minimum of 300 feet AGL and 80 KIAS
When performing hover operations with light and variable winds at high gross weight and/or in a high density altitude environment, _________ the power required computations.
add a margin to