PMK EE 1 Flashcards
(448 cards)
1
Q
36. Up to what amount of the required TIR for Sailors in paygrades E5 and E6 who received an Early Promote promotion recommendation on their most recent observed periodic evaluation in their current paygrade can be waived by COs/OICS? (Page 2-20)
A
1 year
2
Q
- For up to how many consecutive examination cycles covered by the most recent observed periodic evaluation report can CO’s authorize Early TIR waivers? (Page 2-20)
A
Two
3
Q
- How long must personnel have served as an E6 prior to participation in the E7 examination for LDO purposes? (Page 2-21)
A
1 year
4
Q
- Who is responsible for worksheet preparation for each candidate participating in the Navy-wide advancement cycle (E4 through E7) including LDO Program candidates? (Page 3-1)
A
Educational Service Office (ESO)
5
Q
- At least how long prior to the scheduled examination should ESO’s prepare worksheets for eligible candidates? (Page 3-1)
A
1 month
6
Q
- Approximately how many days prior to the scheduled examination date should the ESO review each advancement exam candidates worksheet? (Page 3-1)
A
10
7
Q
- What is the maximum number of award points authorized for E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
12
8
Q
- How many award points is a Medal of Honor worth when calculating the FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
10
9
Q
- How many award points is a Navy Cross worth when calculating the FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
5
10
Q
- How many award points is a Distinguished Service Medal or Cross worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3 6)
A
4
11
Q
- How many award points is a Silver Star Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
4
12
Q
- How many award points is a Legion of Merit worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
4
13
Q
- How many award points is a Distinguished Flying Cross worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
4
14
Q
- How many award points isa Navy and Marine Corps Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
3
15
Q
- How many award points is a Bronze Star Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
3
16
Q
- How many award points is a Purple Heart worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
3
17
Q
- How many award points is a Defense Meritorious Service Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3 6)
A
3
18
Q
- How many award points is a Meritorious Service Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
3
19
Q
- How many award points is an Air Medal (Strike/Flight) worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
3
20
Q
- How many award points is a Joint Service Commendation Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
3
21
Q
- How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Commendation Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
3
22
Q
- How many award points is an Executive Letter of Commendation worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3 6)
A
2
23
Q
- How many award points is a Joint Service Achievement Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
2
24
Q
- How many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Achievement Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
A
2
25
22. How many award points is a Combat Action Ribbon worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
26
23. How many award points is a Gold Life Saving Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
27
24. How many award points is a Good Conduct Medal (Navy or Marine Corps) worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
28
25. How many award points is a Navy Reserve Meritorious Service Medal worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
2
29
26. How many award points is a Letter of Commendation (Flag/Senior Executive Service) worth when calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates? (Page 3-6)
1
30
27. What is the maximum number of points for letters of commendation signed by a flag, general or Senior Executive Service (SES) officer that will be credited towards the awards factor for E4, ES, and E6 candidates? (Page 3-7)
Two
31
28. Which awards are considered Letters of Commendation that are signed by flag officers? (Page 3-7)
Gold and Silver Wreath
32
29. PMA is required for each advancement candidate except for E8/9 and E7 PEP candidates who have already achieved an advancement examination standard score of what or greater and have been identified as Selection Board Eligible? (Page 3-8)
50
33
30. What is an Early Promote evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
4.0
34
31. What is an Must Promote evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.8
35
32. What is a Promotable evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.6
36
33. What is a Progressing evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
3.4
37
34. What is a Significant Problems evaluation recommendation worth? (Page 3-8)
2.0
38
35. What should requests for correction or addition to awards factor after the advancement exam be submitted to? (Page 3-11)
NETPDTC
Naval Education and Training Professional Development Technology Center
39
1. The preferred method for ordering examinations is via verification of TIR eligibility listing on the internet at the which examination ordering web site? (Page 4-1)
Naval Education and Training Professional Development Technology Center
NETPDTC
40
2. Which examinations will be used for candidates who did not take the examination on the regularly scheduled day? (Page 4-2)
Substitute
41
1. The integrity of what is dependent on the security of the examinations and is of paramount importance to equitable advancement opportunity? (Page 5-1)
NEAS
Navy Enlisted Advancement System
42
2. Which type of mail may be used to transfer an examination to another activity? (Page 5-2)
U.S. Registered Mail
43
3. What should a detailed message or letter report be submitted to in the case of missing examinations, evidence of tampering, or any other discrepancies? (Page 5-3)
NAVPERSCOM
44
4. When examinations are received from activities other than which command then a receipt must be sent to the forwarding command as the examinations remain charged to the original receiving activity? (Page 5- 3)
NETPDTC (N321)
45
5. What must approval be obtained from prior to transferring examinations to non-Navy activities/other services? (Page 5-5)
NAVPERSCOM
46
6. Which border color on examination covers identifies exams that are confidential in nature? (Page 5-8)
Blue
47
7. What type of combination lock can be used to secure a space that will be used to stow examinations and completed answer sheets? (Page 5-8)
Three-tumbler
48
1. Who reviews all the directives pertinent to the advancement system with all other designated personnel prior to examination administration? (Page 6-1)
ESO
49
2. What type of pencil or electrographic black lead pencil must exam candidates use? (Page 6-2)
#2
50
3. Which ratings are not authorized to use preprogrammed construction, electrician, plumbing, or other calculators that are specifically designed for tradesman use? (Page 6-3)
Seabee
51
5. What are not authorized to be worn during the examination? (Page6-3)
Wristwatches
52
4. Which advancement exam candidates are authorized to use general scientific calculators that are not programmable? (Page 6-3)
Engineering Aid (EA)
53
6. What is the maximum number of days that an operational commander may delay the administration of advancement examinations for seagoing or aviation units operating in company or based outside continental United States (OCONUS) provided that candidates have no means of communicating with personnel who are taking the examination in the interim? (Page 6-4)
10
54
7. What is the maximum number days that ship CO's/OIC's that are proceeding independently can administer examinations past the regularly scheduled examination date? (Page 6-5)
10
55
8. What must specifically authorize the administration of advancement exams prior to the scheduled administration date? (Page 6-5)
NAVPERSCOM
56
9. Within how many working days of receipt, but not later than the date specified in the applicable NAVADMIN must all substitute examinations be administered and answer sheets forwarded to NETPDTC (N322)? (Page 6-5)
7
57
10. Advancement examination shall not be used if they are missing more than how many questions? (Page 6-6)
10
58
11. What is the required ratio of proctors to advancement exam candidates when administering advancement exams? (Page 6-6)
1:25
59
12. Give completed answer sheets the same handling and stowage as afforded to what type of documents? (Page 6-7)
FOUO
For Official Use Only
60
13. What must authority be requested from with justification from a medical officer for the oral administration of advancement examinations? (Page 6-7)
NAVPERSCOM
61
14. How should advancement exam candidates names be grouped when personnel from more than one activity have been examined? (Page 6-9)
Activity
62
15. What should examination returns for each paygrade be forwarded to by the close of business the day after administration of each advancement examination? (Page 6-9)
NETPDTC
63
16. Which contract stipulates that CONUS Installations and Ships Inport CONUS will send answer sheets via overnight delivery? (Page 6-9)
GSA
Global Support Assignment
64
17. Which USPS mail service will Overseas Shore Commands use to send in advancement exam answer sheets? (Page 6-9)
3-day express
65
18. Who is solely responsible for ensuring that all examination booklets and related testing materials are accurately accounted for and destroyed? (Page 6-10)
CO/OIC
66
19. Which manual contains the destruction procedures to be followed after administering the advancement examination for destroying all examination booklets, used and unused, and scratch paper? (Page 6-10)
SECNAV M-5510.36
67
20. How long must copies of reports be maintained locally at the command for the destruction and receipts for transfer of examinations? (Page 6-11)
2 years
68
21. Within how many days after the last drill weekend of the month that the advancement examination was administered must the unused inactive reserve examinations be destroyed? (Page 6-11)
5
69
22. At least how many consecutive days in one of the eligible areas are Sailors required to serve to be considered an eligible assignment? (Page 6 11)
30
70
23. Which day in January are Active Duty E7 Regular advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
3rd Thursday
71
24. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E6 Regular advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
1st Thursday
72
25. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E5 Regular advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
2nd Thursday
73
26. Which day in March and September are Active Duty E4 Regular advancement examinations administered? (Page 6-13)
3rd Thursday
74
27. If Sailors are within how many days of a pending deployment to Iraq, Afghanistan, or the Horn of Africa and they are eligible in all other respects for participation in the E4 to E7 advancement examinations than they are authorized to take early examinations? (Page 6-14)
60
75
28. No more than how many days prior to deployment date (to include the indoctrination and training pipeline but not including any personal leave) will commands submit early examination requests in the same format as a substitute examination request? (Page 6-15)
90
76
29. The EMF along with what else are used by NETPDTC to automatically validate all personnel who are TIR eligible for E8/9? (Page 6-19)
IMAPMIS
Inactive Manpower and Personnel Management Information System
EMF Enlisted Master File
77
30. Approximately how many months prior to the convening date of E8/9 selection boards will NETPDTC forward an Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR) listing all E7/8 TIR eligible personnel? (Page 6-19)
3
78
1. How many annual advancement cycles are there for E4 through E6 candidates? (Page 7-1)
Two
79
2. Who has online access to E4-E9 advancement results? (Page 7-1)
ESO
80
3. How many days after advancement exam results have been published will individual Sailors have the capability of downloading their individual Profile Sheets? (Page 7-1)
Five
81
4. What does NETPDTC post online in addition to profile sheets to issue examination results? Page 7-1)
Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR)
82
5. What are advancements and striker designation authorities issued on in addition to the Profile Sheet? (Page 7-1)
Rating Change Authorization (RCA)
83
6. What lists eligible candidates to be considered (SELBD ELIGIBLE) by a selection board that is convened by CHNAVPERS? (Page 7-2)
ESVR
Examination Status Verification Report
84
7. How will the official list of personnel selected for advancement be disseminated by CHNAVPERS upon conclusion of the selection board? (Page 7-2)
NAVADMIN
85
8. What will be forwarded by NETPDTC (N321) for all E4 through E7 candidates following each Navy-wide advancement examination? (Page 7-15)
Examination Profile Information Sheet
86
9. Which point factor is included in the FMS of E4 through E6 candidates who achieve a relatively high score on a Navy-wide advancement examination/have relatively high PMAS during an examination cycle in which the candidate competed for advancement but was not advanced because of quota limitations? (Page 7-15)
PNA
Pass Not Advanced
87
10. PNA points are comprised of written examination SS (Standard Score) and what else? (Page 7-15)
PMA (Performance Mark Average)
88
11. How many of the most recent exam cycles in that paygrade are PNA points creditable for? (Page 7-15)
Five
89
12. A maximum of how many PNA points for any one advancement cycle may be received by a candidate? (Page 7-15)
Three
90
13. What is the maximum cumulative PNA point total that may be credited to candidates? (Page 7-15)
15
91
14. What are PNA points multiplied by to obtain the PNA factor (maximum of 30 points) for FMS calculations? (Page 7-16)
2
92
15. How many PNA points towards future exams will advancement exam candidates be credited with when they score in the top 25 percentile but do not advance? (Page 7-16)
1.5
93
16. What is the only thing used by NETPDTC (N321) to track PNA point credit? (Page 7-16)
Social security number
94
17. What day of the month are E2/E3 advancements automatically posted on by NAVPERSCOM? (Page 7-16)
16th
95
18. Which MILPERSMAN article governs striker identification? (Page 7-18)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
96
19. If an administrative error precludes the advancement of a member to paygrade E2 or E3 on the earliest date on which the candidate is fully qualified, the advancement may be established "as of" the date the member would have been advanced had the error not occurred, provided the backdating does not under any circumstance exceed how long? (Page 7-18)
6 months
97
20. Under no circumstances is an advancement effected after the limiting date without approval of what? Page 7-19)
NAVPERSCOM
98
21. What form should be used to effect an advancement, change in rate, or striker identification? (Page 7-19)
NAVPERS 1070/604
99
22. Which MILPERSMAN article grants COs/OICS the authority to frock enlisted personnel? (Page 7-21)
MILPERSMAN 1420-060
100
23. How many years of active duty in grade unless such members are entitled by law to a higher retired grade upon retirement must non- disability (voluntary) retirement for members serving in grades E7, E8, and E9 require? (Page 7-21)
2
101
24. How many years of active service entitles members to retire at the higher paygrade without serving the minimum 2 year TIG? (Page 7-21)
30
102
25. Withholding advancements because of Physical Fitness Assessment (PFA) failure must be accomplished via compliance with which instruction? (Page 7-28)
OPNAVINST 6110.1H
103
26. What is the sole means of withdrawing a member's recommendation for advancement that must be completed prior to requesting invalidation of an authorized advancement? (Page 7-30)
EVAL/FITREP
104
27. Which U.S. Navy Regulations article provides authority for the request of CO's mast at which questions may be raised with the CO/OIC if a member believes that the withholding or withdrawal of their advancement is inaccurate, unjust, or wrongly submitted? (Page 7-32)
Article 1151
105
28. Advancing temporary officers to permanent enlisted rates requires a NAVPERS 1070/604 entry in the enlisted field service record and what entry mailed for inclusion in the official officer record citing this instruction as authority for advancement? (Page 7-34)
NAVPERS 1070/613
106
1. Which program was established to promote Sailors in pay grades El through ES in recognition of uncommon valor and extraordinary deeds demonstrated while engaged in, or in direct support of, combat operations? (Page &-1)
Combat Meritorious Advancement Program (CMAP)
107
2. Executive Order along with what else designate combat and direct support combat zones? (Page 8-1)
Congressional Action
108
3. A l-year TIR waiver is authorized for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancement to what paygrade? (Page &-2)
E6
109
4. What has the overall authority for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program? (Page &-2)
CHNAVPERS
110
5. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to E-2? (Page 8-2)
Unlimited
111
6. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program for advancing personnel to E-3? (Page 8-2)
6
112
7. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for advancing personnel to E-4 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program? (Page 8-2)
4
113
8. How many quotas per quarter is authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for advancing personnel to E-5 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program? (Page 8-2)
2
114
9. How many quotas per quarter are authorized for each approval authority (COMUSNAVCENT, COMNAVSPECWARCOM, and COMUSMARCENT) for advancing personnel to E-6 through the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program? (Page 8-2)
1
115
10. Within how many years of the meritorious action/performance in combat must nominations be submitted for the Combat Meritorious Advancement Program? (Page &-3)
1
116
11. Which instruction contains the guidelines for Combat Meritorious Advancement Program nominations that contain classified information? Page 8-3)
SECNAVM-5510.30
117
12. How many years should copies of CMAP documents be retained? (Page 8-4)
2
118
1, How will Sailors who die while in a selectee or Passed Not Advanced (PNA) status be advanced? (Page 9-1)
Posthumously
119
2. What form will the CNO (N135C) prepare upon receipt of a posthumous advancement authorization to indicate a posthumous advancement? (Page 9-2)
DD 1300
120
1. What is the highest paygrade that may be held by recruiters to be eligible for meritorious advancement under the recruiter meritorious advancement program? (Page 10-1)
E-6
121
2. What has final EROY or ERROY approval after selection boards have reviewed all nominations? (Page 10-1)
COMNAVCRUITCOM
122
3. What is the minimum TIR that must be met by the EROY and ERROY prior to effecting the meritorious advancement to the next paygrade? (Page 10-1)
1 year
123
4. What will COMNAVCRUITCOM forward their EROY and ERROY selections to for issuance of advancement authorization? (Page 10-2)
NAVPERSCOM
124
1. Which program allows CO0's to advance eligible personnel in paygrades E3 through ES to the next higher paygrade without reference to higher authority? Page l1-1)
Command Advancement Program (CAP)
125
2. What year was the Command Advancement Program (CAP) established? (Page 11-1)
1978
126
3. Which MILPERSMAN article took away the COs authority to designate strikers? (Page 11-2)
MILPERSMAN 1440-050
127
4. What is the maximum percentage of CAP quotas that CO's can use for CREO Group 3 ratings? (Page 11-2)
33%
128
5. CAPS may be effected only by Commanding Officers of commands that are designated as which type of sea duty? (Page 11-2)
2 or 4
129
6. Which individual manpower authorization form is used by Commanding Officers who are responsible for more than one UIC to base their CAP quotas on? (Page 11-3)
OPNAV 1000/2
130
7. What are CAP quotas based on for each individual UIC? (Page 11-3)
Billets Authorized (BA)
131
8. What is the latest date each year that each Type 2 or 4 command must submit an annual CAP Certification Report to NAVPERSCOM (PERS- 811/812) (copy to the Immediate Superior in Command (ISIC)? (Page 11-4)
January 15th
132
1. What rank is the enlisted selection board president? (Page 12-1)
0-6
133
2. Who establishes the maximum selection board quotas (Active and FTS) for each rating? (Page 12-1)
CNO (N13)
134
3. What drives advancement opportunity in the Navy? (Page 12-1)
Vacancies
135
4. What percent of the Navy's total end-strength may be E&s and E9s? Page 12-2)
3.5%
136
5. Which requirement has been established by the Department of Defense (DOD) that must be met prior toa member's advancement to a given paygrade? (Page 12-2)
Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS)
137
6. How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are required to be eligible for advancement to E-7? (Page 12-2)
11
138
7. How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are required to be eligible for advancement to E-8? (Page 12-2)
16
139
8. How many years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) are required to be eligible for advancement to E-9? (Page 12-2)
19
140
9. What is the maximum percentage of the total number of Sailors in the E7/8/9 paygrades that may have less than the prescribed TAFMS?
10%
141
10. What convenes the enlisted selection boards? (Page 12-3)
CHNAVPERS
142
11. Where are the permanent records for each rating maintained? (Page 12-3)
Electronic Military Personnel Records System (EMPRS)
143
12. What is the electronic snapshot of the official record referred to as? (Page 12-3)
PSR
144
13. Who is the only person that can submit unofficial correspondence to the President of the selection board? (Page 12-3)
Candidate
145
14. What is the single most important factor that influences selection during the enlisted selection board? (Page l12-4)
Sustained superior performance
146
15. How many different selection board panel members review each candidate's record? (Page 12-4)
Two
147
16. What is the process called when the enlisted selection board panel arranges all the candidates from top to bottom once the review of an entire rating is complete? (Page 124)
Slating
148
17. What is the final approval authority for all enlisted selection board recommendations? (Page 12-5)
CHNAVPERS
149
18. What is the official announcement made to individual Navy commands that must be in the command's possession prior to frocking of selectees? (Page 12-5)
NAVADMIN
150
1. Which command supplies application programs to support automated preparation and submission of FITREPS, CHIEFEVALS, and EVALS? (Page 1-11)
NAVPERSCOM (PERS-32)
151
2. Which performance report block contains the members name? (Page 1-1)
1
152
3. Which performance report block contains the members grade/rate? (Page 1-2)
2
153
4. Which performance report block contains the members designator? (Page 1-2)
3
154
5. How many enlisted warfare/qualification designators can be entered in block 3 when preparing a performance report? (Page 1-2)
2
155
6. Which performance report block contains the members social security number? (Page 1-2)
4
156
7. Which performance report block contains the members duty/competitive status? (Page 1-2)
5
157
8. Which performance report block contains the members UIC? (Page 1-2)
6
158
9. Block 6 of the performance report should match the primary UIC of the reporting senior in which block? (Page 1-3)
26
159
10. What should be entered for activities to which no UIC is assigned when preparing the performance report? (Page 1-3)
00000
160
11. Which performance report block contains the members ship/station? Page 1-3)
7
161
12. Which performance report block contains the members promotion status? (Page 1-4)
8
162
13. Which performance report block contains the date that the member reported? (Page 1-5)
9
163
14. Which performance report blocks contain the occasion for report? (Page 1-5)
10-13
164
15. Which performance report blocks contain the period of report? (Page 1-5)
14-15
165
16. Which performance report block contains the space used to put Not Observed Report if it is applicable? (Page 1-5)
16
166
17. Which performance report blocks contain the type of report? (Page 1-6)
17-19
167
18. Which performance report block contains the members physical readiness status? (Page 1-6)
20
168
19. Which performance report block contains the members billet subcategory, if any? (Page 1-8)
21
169
20. Which performance report block names the reporting senior? (Page 1-11)
22
170
21. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior's grade? (Page 1-11)
23
171
22. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior's four-digit officer designator? (Page 1-12)
24
172
23. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior's title? (Page 1-12)
25
173
24. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior's UIC? (Page 1-12)
26
174
25. Which performance report block contains the reporting senior's social security number? (Page 1-12)
27
175
26. Which performance report block contains command employment and command achievements? (Page 1-13)
28
176
27. Which performance report block contains the members Primary/Collateral/Watchstanding duties? (Page 1-13)
29
177
28. Which performance report block contains the date the member was counseled? (Page 1-14)
30
178
29. Which performance report block contains the name of the members counselor? (Page 1-14)
31
179
30. Which performance report block contains the signature of the individual counseled? (Page 1-15)
32
180
31. Which performance report blocks contain the members performance traits? (Page 1-15)
33-39
181
32. Which performance report block contains the individual trait average? (Page 1-16)
40
182
33. Which EVAL performance report block contains the career recommendations for the member being counseled? (Page 1-17)
41
183
34. Which performance report block contains the signature of the rater? (Page 1-17)
42
184
35. Which EVAL performance report block contains comments on performance? (Page 1-17)
43
185
36. Which performance report block contains the members qualifications/achievements? (Page 1-17)
44
186
37. Which EVAL performance report block contains the individuals promotion recommendation? (Page 1-18)
45
187
38. What is the highest promotion recommendation a member can receive who receives one or two 2.0 trait grades? (Page 1-18)
Promotable
188
39. What must Command or Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity (FITREPEVAL), and Character (CHIEFEVAL) be evaluated as at a minimum to maintain eligibility for advancement and receive a recommendation of Promotable? (Page 1-18)
3.0
189
40. Enlisted members who receive any performance trait grade of what lose eligibility for the Navy Good Conduct Medal and must reestablish a new 3-year period following the end date of the report? (Page 1-18)
1.0
190
41. What is the maximum promotion recommendation that Ensign and lieutenant junior grade can receive on their FITREPS for designators other than LDO (6XXK)? (Page 1-19)
Promotable
191
42. What does Significant Problems equal on the scale for enlisted performance reports? (Page 1-19)
2.0
192
43. What is the upper limit on Early Promote recommendations for all pay grades except non-Limited Duty Officer O1/02 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
20%
193
44. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for El-B4 for each summary group? Page (1-20)
No limit
194
45. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for ES-E6 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
60%
195
46. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for E7-E9 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
50%
196
47. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for LDO O1-02 for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
No limit
197
48. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for W3-W5s for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
50%
198
49. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for O-3s for each summary group? (Page 1- 20)
60%
199
50. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for O-4s for each summary group? (Page 1- 20)
50%
200
51. What is the upper limit on Early Promote and Must Promote recommendations combined for O-5 and 0-6s for each summary group? (Page 1-20)
40%
201
52. Which EVAL performance report block contains the summary? (Page 1-22)
46
202
53. Which performance report block contains the retention recommendation? (Page 1-24)
47
203
54. Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting seniors address? (Page 1-25)
48
204
55. Which performance report block contains the signature of the senior rater? (Page 1-25)
49
205
56. Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting senior signature? (Page 1-25)
50
206
57. Which EVAL performance report block contains the signature of the individual being evaluated? (Page 1-25)
51
207
58. The reporting senior shall hand write in the signature block of the member certified, copy provided" if the report is not adverse and if the member is not expected to return to or visit the command within 15 days (active duty) or how many days (inactive duty)? (Page 1-26)
30
208
59. Which EVAL performance report block contains the regular reporting senior signature on concurrent reports? (Page 1-26)
52
209
60. Which manual should be used for instructions on mailing classified material? (Page 1-29)
SECNAV M-5510.36
210
1. Which type of reports are normally considered to be regular reports for both officers and enlisted? (Page 3-1)
Special
211
2. What is the only type of report that provides continuity? (Page 3-1)
Regular
212
3. No more than how many months may be covered by regular reports, including letter-extensions, without NAVPERSCOM (PERS-311) approval? (Page 3-1)
15
213
4. Periodic reports may be omitted if the member received an Observed Regular report ending no more than how many months prior to the Periodic report date? (Page 3-2)
3
214
5. Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are not required from an interim reporting senior who has been on board for how many months or less if the reporting senior's permanent relief agrees to cover the period in the next Regular report? (Page 3-4)
3
215
6. Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are optional for personnel in which paygrades? (Page 3-4)
E1-E9
216
7. Periodic reports may be omitted and added to the next period if Detachment of Reporting Senior reports were submitted for a particular paygrade, and, if the next report is the periodic report but is less than how many days from the previous Detachment of Reporting Senior report? (Page 3-5)
90
217
8. A Promotion/Frocking EVAL must always be submitted upon promotion or frocking to which paygrade? (Page 3-5)
E-7
218
9. Promotion/frocking reports for officers or enlisted members who have been promoted should not be submitted unless the change in Periodic report dates will result in more than how many months between Regular reports? (Page 3-5)
15
219
10. A new reporting senior who has not written an "Observed" report on a member may submit a Special report on an officer or CPO who is eligible before a promotion selection board if the individual has performed significant duties under that reporting senior for at least how many months? (Page 3-7)
3
220
11. An E-6 may receive a Special report for a promotion selection board who has performed duty at a new command for at least how many months who has not yet received an Observed report? (Page 3-7)
3
221
12. A Special report may not be submitted for the sole purpose of raising what? (Page 3-8)
Performance Mark Average (PMA)
222
13. Which type of reports are Detachment of Reporting Senior reports that are optional for E1-E6 submitted as? (Page 3-9)
Special
223
14. Special FITREPS for superior performance or recommendations are specifically prohibited for which personnel? (Page 3-9)
Officers
224
15. For up to how many months can a Special report be extended for unless it was submitted for the reduction-in-rate of an enlisted member? (Page 3-9)
3 months
225
1. How many recommendations for advancement are there?
3
226
2. What is a recommendation against advancement that withdraws any previous advancement recommendation in the current grade? (Page l6- 1)
Significant Problems
227
3. What is the Performance grade for Early Promote (EP) promotion recommendations? (Page 16-2)
4.0
228
4. What is the Performance grade for Must Promote (MP) promotion recommendations? (Page 16-2)
3.8
229
5. What is the Performance grade for Promotable (P) promotion recommendations? (Page 16-2)
3.6
230
6. What is the Performance grade for Progressing promotion recommendations? (Page 16-2)
3.4
231
7. What is the Performance grade for Significant Problems (SP)? (Page 16-2)
2.0
232
8. What would the Performance Mark Average (PMA) be for three EVALS received within the minimum time-in-rate period with performance marks of 3.8, 3.8, and 4.0? (Page l6-2)
3.87
233
1. Which type of plan contains general goals and broad guidelines? (Page 1-1)
Policy
234
2. What is a plan or system under which action may be taken towards a goal? (Page 1-1)
Program
235
3. What is the altering of the natural environment in an adverse way called? (Page 1-1)
Environmental pollution
236
4. Which type of pollutants include insecticides, herbicides, pesticides, natural and chemical fertilizers, drainage from animal feedlots, salts from field irrigation, and silts from uncontrolled soil erosion? (Page 1-1)
Agricultural
237
5. Which type of pollutants include acids from mines and factories, thermal discharges from power plants, and radioactive wastes from mining and processing certain ores? (Page 1-1)
Industrial
238
6. Which type of pollutants include refuse, storm-water overflows, and salts used on streets in wintertime? (Page 1-1)
Municipal
239
7. Which type of pollutants include emissions from aircraft, trains, waterborne vessels, and cars and trucks? (Page 1-1)
Transportation
240
8. What are the unburned fuel vapors called that motor vehicles release into the air? (Page l-1)
Hydrocarbons
241
9. Vessels may not discharge pulped trash within how many nautical miles of the U.S. coastline? (Page 1-3)
12
242
10. How many fathoms under the sea must submarines be before compacted trash can be discharged? (Page 1-3)
1000
243
11. How many nautical miles away from any foreign coastline must vessels be before discharging any trash? (Page 1-3)
25
244
12. Which program directs federal facilities, including naval shore stations, to comply with all substantive or procedural requirements applying to environmental noise reduction? (Page 1-3)
Noise Prevention
245
13. What type of fuel do most of the Navy's ships and all of its aircraft use? (Page 1-4)
Petroleum
246
14. Who set up the Navy Sponsor Program to case the relocation of naval personnel and their families when transferred on permanent change of station (PCS) orders? (Page 1-5)
CNO
247
15. Which form can personnel use to request a sponsor? (Page 1-5)
NAVPERS 1330/2
248
16. What program provides information and support to help personnel who are guests in foreign lands? (Page 1-5)
Overseas Duty Support Program (ODSP)
249
17. What gives up-to-date information of the country personnel will be visiting? (Page 1-7)
SITES
250
18. Which program was designed to find new ideas to effectively increase performance within the Department of the Navy? (Page 1-7)
Military Cash Awards Program (MILCAP)
251
19. What is the maximum MILCAP award? (Page l-7)
$25,000
252
20. Servicewoman may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas after the beginning of what week of pregnancy? (Page 1-9)
28th
253
21. How many months after the expected delivery date may pregnant servicewomen be transferred to a deploying unit? (Page 1-9)
4
254
22. Pregnant servicewomen must be able to be medically evacuated to a treatment facility within how many hours if they are to remain aboard the ship? Page 1-9)
6
255
23. How many days of convalescent leave do Commanding Officers normally grant after the servicewoman has delivered the baby? (Page 1-9)
42
256
24. Service members in a single or dual military status with children or dependents under what age are required to have a formalized family care plan? (Page 1-10)
19
257
25. Which program carries out the Department of the Navy's policy to detect, deter, and eliminate fraud, waste, abuse, and mismanagement? (Page 1-11)
Integrity and Efficiency (I & E)
258
26. What is intentional misleading or deceitful conduct called that deprives the government of its resources or rights? (Page 1-11)
Fraud
259
27. What is extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources defined as? (Page 1-11)
Waste
260
28. What is the intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources referred to as? (Page 1-11)
Abuse
261
29. What naval office inquires into and reports on any matter that affects the discipline or military efficiency of the DoN? (Page 1-12)
Inspector General (1G)
262
30. What protects the rights of personal privacy of people about whom records are maintained by agencies of the federal government? (Page 1- 13)
Privacy Act
263
31. Which Navy Regulations Article defines Equal Opportunity? (Page 1-14)
Article 1164
264
32. What program allows Commanding Officers (COs) to create and maintain a positive Equal Opportunity (EO) environment? (Page 1-14)
CMEO
265
33. What is behavior called that is prejudicial to another person because of that person's race, religion, creed, color, sex, or national origin? (Page 1-15)
Insensitive practice
266
34. What provides information about government housing and the type, cost, and availability of private housing? (Page 1-16)
HRO
267
35. Which Amendment of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and assembly? (Page 1-16)
First Amendment
268
36. What is defined as any conduct whereby a military member or members, regardless of service or rank, without proper authority causes another military member or members, regardless of service or rank, to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or harmful? (Page 1-17)
Hazing
269
37. What is unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature called? (Page 1- 19)
Sexual harassment
270
38. Sexual in nature, occurs in or impacts the work environment, along with what else are the three criteria for a person's behavior to be considered sexual harassment? (Page 1-19)
Unwelcome
271
39. Which type of sexual harassment are personnel being subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior? (Page 1-20)
Quid pro quo
272
40. Which type of behaviors are always considered to be sexual harassment? (Page 1-21)
Red zone
273
41. What type of behaviors would many people find unacceptable that could be considered to be sexual harassment? (Page 1-21)
Yellow zone
274
42. Which U.S. Navy Regulations Article states No person in the Navy is to enter a personal relationship that is unduly familiar, does not respect differences in rank, and is prejudicial to good order and discipline."? (Page 1-22)
Article 1165
275
43. What volunteer liaises between command and families? (Page 1-23)
Command ombudsman
276
44. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are recommended for preferred reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
RE-R1
277
45. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
RE-1
278
46. Which reenlistment code indicates personnel are eligible for probationary reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
RE-R3
279
47. Which reenlistment code means that personnel are not eligible for reenlistment? (Page 1-24)
RE-4
280
48. Who directs and supervises the Navy's voting program? (Page 1-24)
Chief of Naval Personnel
281
1. In what year did President Dwight D. Eisenhower prescribe a Code of Conduct for members of the armed forces? (Page 2-2)
1955
282
2. How many articles does the Code of Conduct contain? (Page 2-2)
Six
283
3. Which Code of Conduct article states that "When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give my Name, rank, service number and date of birth"? (Page 2-2)
V
284
4. What are Naval personnel called when they are assigned military police duties? (Page 2-3)
Shore Patrol (SP)
285
5. Who is in charge of the master-at-arms force headed by the CMAA? (Page 2-4)
Executive Officer
286
6. What type of training is designed to develop self-control, character, and efficiency? (Page 2-4)
Discipline
287
7. Which punishment theory teaches the wrongdoer and others that offenses must not be repeated? (Page 2-5)
Deterrent
288
8. The UCMJ, Navy Regulations, along with what else are the three official sources that set forth the basic disciplinary laws for the Navy? (Page 2-6)
SORN
289
9. What describes Navy members rights and responsibilities? (Page 2-6)
U.S. Navy Regulations
290
10. Who ensures U.S. Navy Regulations conform to the current needs of the Department of the Navy? (Page 2-6)
Chief of Naval Operations
291
11. Who issues U.S. Navy Regulation changes after they are approved by the President? (Page 2-6)
Secretary of the Navy
292
12. Which UCMJ article subjects offenders to charges for failing to obey Navy regulations? (Page 2-7)
Article 92
293
13. Which Navy Regulations article discusses officer precedence? (Page 2-7)
Article 1002
294
14. Which Navy Regulations article describes the proper manner of addressing officers orally and in writing? (Page 2-8)
Article 1010
295
15. Which Navy Regulations article gives officers the authority necessary to perform their duties? (Page 2-8)
Article 1021
296
16. Tyrannical/Capricious conduct along with what other method are persons in authority forbidden from using to injure their subordinates? (Page 2-8)
Abusive language
297
17. Which Navy Regulations article provides the senior line officer eligible for command at sea the authority over all persons embarked in a boat? (Page 2-8)
Article 1033
298
18. Which Navy Regulations article grants sentry authority ? (Page 2-8)
Article 1038
299
19. Personnel may not be ordered to active service without permission of whom? (Page 2-8)
Chief of Naval Personnel
300
20. What is the minimum interval that personnel in confinement have to be visited to have their condition checked on and needs cared for? (Page 2-9)
4
301
21. What is the maximum interest rate that naval personnel can impose on loans to other armed service members? (Page 2-9)
18
302
22. Which Navy Regulations article governs duty exchanges? (Page 2- 10)
Article 1134
303
23. Which Navy Regulations article governs Leave and Liberty? (Page 2-12)
Article 1157
304
24. Which instruction provides regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all Navy members? (Page 2-12)
OPNAVINST 3120.32
305
25. Until what year did the various branches of the armed forces operate under different military codes? (Page 2-15)
1951
306
26. What year did the UCMJ become effective? (Page 2-15)
1951
307
27. Which UCMJ article states that certain UCMJ articles must be carefully explained at certain intervals to every enlisted person? (Page 2- 15)
Article 137
308
28. What is the restraint of a person by an order not imposed as a punishment for an offense which directs them to remain within certain specified limits? (Page 2-17)
Arrest
309
29. What is the physical restraint of a person called? (Page 2-17)
Confinement
310
30. Which UCMJ Article explains commanding officers' non-judicial punishment? (Page 2-18)
Article 15
311
31. In a special court-martial, the accused must be afforded the opportunity to be represented by counsel qualified under what article of the UCMJ unless such counsel cannot be obtained because of the geographical location or pressing military requirements? (Page 2-19)
Article 27
312
32. Which UCMJ Article explains servicemembers rights to not provide evidence against themselves (self-incrimination)? (Page 2-19)
Article 31
313
33. Which UCMJ Article was designed to ensure that every court, its members, and its officers are completely free to fulfill their functions without fear of reprisal? (Page 2-19)
Article 37
314
34. Which UCMJ Article prohibits any cruel or unusual punishment? (Page 2-20)
Article 55
315
35. What are the UCMJ punitive articles? (Page 2-20)
77-134
316
36. What is defined as an agreement between two or more persons to commit a crime? (Page 2-21)
Conspiracy
317
37. What are members of the armed forces who, without permission, leave their place of duty or organization with the intent to remain away permanently guilty of? (Page 2-22)
Desertion
318
38. How many days of absence, or sooner if the intent to desert is apparent, does the status of an absentee change to that of a deserter? (Page 2 22)
30
319
39. Which UCMJ article covers missing ships movement? (Page 2-23)
Article 87
320
40. What word designated by the principal headquarters of a command aids guards and sentinels in their scrutiny of persons who apply to pass the lines? (Page 2-26)
Countersign
321
41. What word is used as a countersign check which is imparted only to those who are entitled to inspect guards and to commanders of guards? (Page 2-26)
Parole
322
42. What is a detachment, guard, or detail posted by a commander which protects persons, places, or property of the enemy or of a neutral affected by the relationship of the opposing forces in their prosecution of war or during a state of conflict? (Page 2-26)
Safeguard
323
43. What term means inattention to duty or failure to take action that, under the circumstances, should have been taken to prevent the loss, destruction, or damage of any military property? (Page 2-28)
Neglect
324
44, Which UCMJ article covers personnel drunk on duty? (Page 2-28)
Article 112
325
45. What is the maximum punishment that may be imposed on a sentinel on post who is found asleep or drunk in time of war? (Page 2-29)
Death
326
46. What type of offense is defined as any act to avoid duty by feigning (pretending) to be ill or physically/mentally disabled? (Page 2-29)
Malingering
327
47. How many or more persons must be engaged against anyone who may oppose them to be classified as a riot? (Page 2-30)
Three
328
48. What is the unlawful killing of another called? (Page 2-30)
Manslaughter
329
49. What is the unlawful killing of another committed without intent to kill or inflict great bodily harm? Page 2-30)
Involuntary manslaughter
330
50. What is any person guilty of who engages in unnatural carnal copulation with another person of the same or opposite sex or with an animal? (Page 2-32)
Sodomy
331
51. Which UCMJ article allows for punishable acts or omissions not specifically mentioned in other articles? (Page 2-34)
Article 134
332
52. What is Commanding officer’s NJP often referred to as? (Page 2-36)
Captain's mast
333
53. What requires personnel to remain within certain specified limits (ship, station, etc.)? (Page 2-36)
Restriction
334
54. What is the physical restraint (confinement) of a person during duty or nonduty hours, or both called? (Page 2-36)
Correctional custody
335
55. Confinement on bread and water or diminished rations may be imposed only on enlisted persons in what pay-grade and below aboard ship? (Page 2-36)
E-3
336
56. What is the maximum amount of time per day that extra duty can be assigned? (Page 2-36)
2 hours
337
57. How many days do personnel who consider their article 15 punishment to be unjust or disproportionate to the offense have to appeal the decision to the next superior in the chain of command? (Page 2-37)
5
338
58. Which UCMJ article prohibits compulsory self-incrimination? (Page 2-37)
Article 31
339
59. Which Navy Regulations article grants the right for any person to communicate with the commanding officer? (Page 2-37)
Article 1107
340
60. Summary, Special, along with what else are court martial types based on article 16 of the UCMJ? (Page 2-37)
General
341
61. What is the minimum amount of members that special court-martials can be made up of? (Page 2-37)
Three
342
62. A general court-martial consists of a military judge and not less than how many members? (Page 2-37)
Five
343
1. What is probably the most important log that personnel maintain onboard ships? (Page 3-1)
Deck log
344
2. Who keeps the ship's deck log while at sea? (Page 3-1)
Quartermaster Of the Watch (Q00W)
345
3. Which bill contains lists of stations that must be manned during battle and at other specified times? (Page 3-2)
Battle
346
4. Which bill displays in one place personnel duties for each emergency and watch condition? Page 3-2)
WQS
347
5. Which condition sets general quarters? (Page 3-3)
Condition I
348
6. What special watch is used by gunfire support ships for situations such as extended periods of shore bombardment? (Page 3-3)
Condition II
349
7. What is the normal wartime cruising watch? (Page 3-3)
Condition II
350
8. What provides the capability for reacting to emergency security situations aboard ship and at pierside to protect the ship, its sensitive equipment, and its personnel? (Page 3-3)
Self-defense force
351
9. How many hours in duration are most Navy watches? (Page 3-3)
4
352
10. How many minutes prior to the start of watches should personnel arrive on station to receive any pertinent information from the person you are relieving? (Page 3-3)
15
353
11. What is the 0000 to 0400 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Midwatch
354
12. What is the 0400 to 0800 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Morning watch
355
13. What is the 0800 to 1200 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Forenoon watch
356
14. What is the 1200 to 1600 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Afternoon watch
357
15. What is the 1600 to 1800 watch named? (Page 3-4)
First dog watch
358
16. What is the 1800 to 2000 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Second dog watch
359
17. What is the 2000 to 2400 watch named? (Page 3-4)
Evening watch
360
18. How long past reveille are late sleepers normally permitted to sleep? (Page 3-4)
1 hour
361
19. Which type of watches are stood to prevent sabotage, protect property from damage or theft, prevent access to restricted areas by unauthorized persons, or protect personnel? (Page 3-4)
Security
362
20. Who is eligible for command at sea and is designated and empowered by the captain to advise, supervise, and direct the officer of the deck (00D) in matters concerning the general operation and safety of the ship or station? (Page 3-4)
CDO
363
21. Who is responsible to the commanding officer (CO) for the safe and proper operation of the ship or station? (Page 3-5)
Officer Of the Deck (OOD)
364
22. Who maintains the ship's deck log and assists the 00D in navigational matters while underway? (Page 3-5)
QMOW
365
23. Who ensures all deck watch stations are manned with qualified personnel and all watch standers in previous watch sections are relieved? (Page 3-5)
BMOW
366
24. At least how often should lookouts be rotated? (Page 3-5)
Hourly
367
25. Who steers the courses prescribed by the conning officer? (Page 3-6)
Helmsman
368
26. Who stands watch at the engine order telegraph on the bridge ringing up the conning officer's orders to the engine room ensuring all bells are correctly answered? (Page 3-6)
Lee helmsman
369
27. What are the two types of orders that govern sentries? (Page 3-7)
General and special
370
28. How many general orders are there that sentries must follow? (Page 3-8)
11
371
29. How many methods are used for relieving armed sentries? (Page 3- 10)
Two
372
30. Deadly force may only be authorized by whom? (Page 3-11)
CO
373
31. How many degrees above the horizon is monitored by low sky lookouts? (Page 3-11)
5
374
32. What is the direction of an object relative to the ship referred to as? (Page 3-13)
Bearing
375
33. How many types of bearings are there? (Page 3-13)
Three
376
34. Which bearing type uses the ship's bow as a reference point? (Page 3-13)
Relative
377
35. What is the relative bearing of your ship from another ship referred to as? (Page 3-14)
Target angle
378
36. What metric are ranges always reported in? (Page 3-15)
Yards
379
37. How many minutes does it take personnel to reach their best night vision called dark adaptation? (Page 3-17)
30
380
38. How many miles away in good weather can lookouts easily spot planes with the naked eye? (Page 3-17)
15
381
39. What step-by-step eye search technique do lookouts use? (Page 3- 17)
Scanning
382
1. What are the two basic categories of communications? (Page 4-1)
Interior and exterior
383
2. What was adopted by NATO nations armed forces to overcome language barriers? (Page 4-1)
Phonetic alphabet
384
3. Which type of phones require no batteries or external electrical power source as they operate on the power of your voice? (Page 4-2)
Sound powered
385
4. How far should the sound-powered phone transmitter be held from the mouth when speaking into it? (Page 4-3)
.5" to 1"
386
5. Primary, Auxiliary, along with what else are the three sound powered telephone circuit categories aboard ships? (Page 4-5)
Supplementary
387
6. What word is used to identify your station and acknowledge messages? (Page 4-6)
Aye
388
7. How are sound-powered phone system communications phrased? (Page 4-7)
Declarative (statement)
389
8. What combines into one system the features of sound-powered telephones, dial telephones, and intercommunications units? (Page 4-11)
IVCS
390
9. What are the two types of terminal devices used with the IVCS? (Page 4-11)
Network and dial
391
10. What is the heart of the IVCS? (Page 4-12)
ICSC
392
11. What is defined as the protective measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from telecommunications of the United States government that are related to national security and to ensure the authenticity of each telecommunication? (Page 4-13)
Communications security
393
12. What general announcing system can pass word to every space on the ship? (Page 4-14)
IMC
394
13. Who is in charge of the IMC? (Page 4-14)
OOD
395
14. What is the primary means of DCC within the repair locker area? Page 4-16)
DC WIFCOM
396
15. Which international flag means “I have a diver(s) down; keep well clear at slow speed."? (Page 4-20)
ALFA
397
16. Which international flag means I am taking in, discharging, or carrying dangerous materials."? (Page 4-20)
BRAVO
398
17. Which international flag means Personnel working aloft."? (Page 4- 20)
KILO
399
18. Which international flag means Man Overboard."? (Page 4-20)
OSCAR
400
19. Which international flag means Preparing to come alongside in-port or at anchor."? (Page 4-20)
INDIA
401
20. Which international flag means "I have a semaphore message to transmit."? (Page 4-20)
JULIETT
402
21. Which international flag means "General recall; all personnel return to the ship."? (Page 4-20)
PAPA
403
22. Which international flag means “Boat recall; all boats return to the ship."? (Page 4-20)
QUEBEC
404
23. What time is colors held in the morning while not underway? (Page 4-21)
0800
405
24. What is the Ensign normally flown from while underway? (Page 4- 21)
Gaff
406
25. What is the national ensign along with the union jack referred to as? (Page 4-21)
Colors
407
26. How is the ensign flown for the internationally recognized symbol of mourning? (Page 4-22)
Half mast
408
27. What is the rectangular blue part of the United States flag containing the stars called? (Page 4-22)
Union jack
409
28. What year did the President, on the recommendation of the Secretary of the Navy, establish an official flag for the United States Navy? (Page 4-23)
1959
410
29. Which flag is regarded as an international guarantee of amnesty from attack? (Page 4-23)
Red Cross
411
30. Substitute pennants are flown when certain officers are absent while in port for a period of up to how many hours? Page 4-24)
72
412
31. Which flag is hoisted whenever the ship is taking aboard, transferring, or handling dangerous commodities, such as ammunition and fuel? (Page 4-25)
Bravo
413
32. What special device will boat flagstaff’s be marked with for any civilian official or flag officer whose official salute is 19 or more guns? (Page 4-26)
Spread eagle
414
33. What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for a flag or general officer whose official salute is less than l9 guns or for a civil official whose salute is 11 or more guns but less than 19? (Page 4-26)
Halbert
415
34. What special device will boat flagstaffs be marked with for an officer of the grade, or relative grade, of Captain in the Navy, or for certain diplomatic officials? (Page 4-26)
Ball
416
35. What special device will boat flagstaff be marked with for an officer of the grade, or relative grade, of Commander? (Page 4-26)
Star
417
36. What are informal courtesy visits that require no special ceremonies known as? (Page 4-28)
Call
418
1. What date did the Second Continental Congress create the United States Navy by authorizing the purchase of two vessels? (Page 5-1)
October 13, 1775
419
2. Ships-of-the-line, Frigates, along with what else were the three major classes of vessels during the Revolutionary war and into the 19 century? (Page 5-2)
Sloops-of-War
420
3. Which ships were the largest of all the sailing warships carrying 64 to over 100 guns of various sizes during the revolutionary war and into the 19th century? (Page 5-2)
Ships-of-the-line
421
4. How many guns were generally carried by Frigates during the revolutionary war and into the 19th century? (Page 5-2)
28 to 44
422
5. Which type of vessel was characterized as a small, fast, flexible, flush-deck ship that carried smooth-bore cannons? Page 5-2)
Schooner
423
6. What was the name of the first warfare submarine? (Page 5-2)
Turtle
424
7. What was the first U.S. Navy flagship that is said to be the first U.S. naval vessel where the Flag of Freedom" was hoisted by John Paul Jones? (Page 5-2)
USS Alfred
425
8. What year was the first Continental Navy squadron put to sea by Esek Hopkins? (Page 5-3)
1776
426
9. Who is the father of our highest naval traditions? (Page 5-3)
John Paul Jones
427
10. What became one of the first foreign powers to recognize the struggling government of the American Colonies? (Page 5-4)
France
428
11. At the end of the Revolutionary War, a new federal government was established. In 1783, the Navy was down to five ships. The Navy was disbanded, and the last frigate, the USS Alliance, was sold in what year? (Page 5-5)
1785
429
12. What year was the Department of the Navy established by John Adams? (Page 5-5)
1798
430
13. What war was the origin of the famous expression "Millions for defense, but not one cent for tribute"? (Page 5-6)
Quasi War
431
14. What nickname was earned by the USS Constitution when Captain Isaac Hull defeated the British frigate Guerriere with it on August 19, 1812? (Page 5-6)
Old Ironsides
432
15. Who defeated a British squadron on Lake Erie on September 10, 1813, and wrote his dispatch "We have met the enemy and they are ours."? (Page 5-6)
Captain Oliver Hazard Perry
433
16. Who was the first to successfully power a commercial steamboat with steam? (Page 5-7)
Robert Fulton
434
17. What was the first Navy warship to use steam? (Page 5-7)
USS Demologos
435
18. What year did the Navy launch the USS Pennsylvania which was the largest of ship-of-the-line vessel? (Page 5-7)
1837
436
19, What year did the Navy launch the USS Missouri and the USS Mississippi which were our first ocean-going, steam-driven capital ships? (Page 5-7)
1841
437
20. What year did the Navy launch the USS Michigan which was the first iron-hulled warship? (Page 5-7)
1843
438
21. Who is referred to as the "Father of the Steam Navy"? (Page 5-7)
Commander Matthew Calbraith Perry
439
22. What year was the USS Princeton which was the Navy's first successful steamship launched? (Page 5-7)
1843
440
23. What year was USS New Ironsides, that had armor allowing it to survive S0 hits in one battle, launched by the Union? (Page 5-8)
1862
441
24. Which war saw the most changes and advances made in ship design than during any period since the Navy originated in 1775? (Page 5-8)
Civil War
442
25, Which submarine was a jinx to the Confederate Navy? (Page S-8)
CSS Hunley
443
26. What gave the famous order "Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead!" on August 5, 1864? (Page S-9)
David Farragut
444
27. Who defined sea power, showed the importance of understanding naval needs, and advocated a large, powerful Navy capable of assembling an overwhelming force to defeat the enemy's Navy? (Page 5-10)
Alfred T. Mahan
445
28. How many Navy ships were in active service a year and a half after the Civil War? (Page 5-10)
56
446
29. Which vessel has been labeled as the first modern cruiser in the U.S. Fleet? (Page 5-10)
USS Newark
447
30. What year did the USS Cushing which was one of the Navy's first torpedo boats join the fleet? (Page 5-10)
1890
448
31. What year did the periscope start being replaced as the submarine's basic visual aid? (Page 5-11)
1958
