Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Year 3 > PPT Nausea And IBS > Flashcards

PPT Nausea And IBS Flashcards

(57 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is the pathophysiology of IBS?

A

Visceral hypersensitivity with exaggerated response to cholecystokinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What types of laxatives are used for IBS treatment?

A
  • Osmotic laxative
  • Chloride channel activator
  • Guanylate cyclase agonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the antidiarrhoeals used for IBS?

A
  • Loperamide
  • Bile acid sequestrants like cholestyramine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which antibiotic is used for IBS?

A

Rifaximin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the ideal treatment for abdominal pain in IBS?

A

Antispasmodics and tricyclic antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should be used when switching from IV hydrocortisone?

A

Oral prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the cytokine modulators for ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Anti-TNFalpha antibodies like infliximab
  • Adalimumab (used last line)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which antibiotics are used in ulcerative colitis?

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How often should U&E be checked when on mesalazine?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What lab tests should be checked every 3 months when on sulphasalazine?

A
  • FBC
  • LFT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is proctitis associated with?

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the treatment for proctitis in ulcerative colitis?

A

Suppository mesalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the maximum oral dose of mesalazine for pancolitis in ulcerative colitis?

A

Maximum oral dose of mesalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should be considered if the patient is still symptomatic after maximum mesalazine dose?

A

Topical therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is azathioprine converted into?

A

6-mercaptopurine by glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which drugs interact with azathioprine?

A
  • Allopurinol
  • Febuxostat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is infliximab?

A

A monoclonal antibody with high specificity to TNF-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does adalimumab do?

A

Binds to TNF alpha and interferes with binding to TNF-alpha receptor sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the initial treatment for c. diff?

A

Vancomycin 4 times a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the second line treatment for c. diff?

A

Fidaxomicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the significant side effects of opioids?

A
  • Constipation
  • Dry mouth
  • Hypotension
  • Sedation
  • Nausea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are less common side effects of opioids?

A
  • Muscle rigidity
  • Pruritis
  • Urticaria
  • Respiratory depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is naloxone?

Study These Flashcards
A

A competitive mu opioid antagonist

24
Q

What is the half-life of naloxone?

25
Where is the chemoreceptor trigger zone located?
Outside the blood-brain barrier
26
What receptors stimulate the chemoreceptors trigger zone?
* D2 receptors * NK * 5-HT3 receptors
27
Where is the vomiting center located?
In the brain stem of the nucleus tractus solitaris
28
What receptors stimulate the vomiting center?
* H1 receptor * M1 * NK1 * 5HT3 receptor
29
What is ondansetron?
A 5HT3 antagonist
30
What is a side effect of ondansetron?
Long QT
31
What drugs are given for pre-operative nausea and vomiting?
* Ondansetron * Dexamethasone * Scopolamine * Aprepitant
32
What is metoclopramide used for?
Nausea and emergency treatment of acute drug-induced dystonia
33
What is isotonic fluid?
* 0.9% sodium chloride * Sodium lactate solution (Hartmann’s fluid) * 5% glucose
34
What is hypertonic fluid?
10% glucose or above
35
What is the daily maintenance requirement for IV fluid?
25-30 ml/kg/day
36
What should IV fluids contain?
* 1 mmol/kg of sodium * Potassium * Chloride * 50-100g of glucose
37
What is tumor lysis syndrome?
Rapid breakdown of malignancy cells causing hyperuricaemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcaemia, and renal damage
38
What is capecitabine?
An anti-metabolite metabolized into 5-fluorouracil
39
What does capecitabine inhibit?
Thymidylate synthase
40
What is the administration schedule for capecitabine?
Oral tablet twice daily for 2 weeks
41
What is oxaliplatin?
A platinum-based compound that binds to guanine
42
What are other platinum-based compounds?
* Cisplatin * Carboplatin
43
What are the key side effects of oxaliplatin?
* Infusion-related pain * Risk of extravasation causing skin discoloration and tissue ulceration
44
What can prevent the side effects of oxaliplatin?
Using central venous access devices or skin tunnelled central catheters
45
What side effects can anastrozole cause?
* Vaginal bleeding * Dryness * Rash * Osteoporosis
46
What is Stephen Johnson syndrome?
A severe skin reaction involving mucous membrane with blisters, fever, and flu-like symptoms
47
What is tamoxifen?
A non-steroidal triphenylene derivative that binds to the oestrogen receptor
48
What is contraindicated with tamoxifen?
History of unprovoked VT or genetic predisposition to VTE
49
What can increase tamoxifen activity?
* SSRIs like fluoxetine * Paroxetine
50
What does tamoxifen inhibit?
CYP3A4, increasing risk of warfarin bleeding
51
What is the induction treatment for HAEM chemotherapy?
Intrahepatic treatment with hyper-CVAD combination
52
What is cyclophosphamide?
An alkylating agent that causes DNA cross-links
53
What is a key risk associated with cyclophosphamide?
Increasing risk of AML and bladder cancer
54
What can vincristine cause?
Sensory and motor neuropathy
55
What is doxorubicin?
An anthracycline that prevents DNA double helix from being revealed
56
What is methotrexate?
A folic acid antagonist and antimetabolite
57
What is a risk of methotrexate?
Hepatotoxicity, with risk of pneumonitis and photosensitivity

Year 3 (385 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions