Practice Test Flashcards by Joseph Fernandez

What is the definition of a Resource Team?
(Formerly known as a Strike Team)

A. Officers assigned to these teams can perform officer- or citizen-down rescue techniques per MACTAC protocols (may consider Tactical Emergency Casualty Care if/when appropriate)

B. Compliant with the National Incident Management System (NIMS), a resource team is composed of four to five officers brought together as a tactical response team. The team is given a call sign based on a mission objective.

C. This team aims to isolate, contain, or neutralize the threat and create a warm zone.

D. A pre-designated patrol squad at each area command that can respond to a major violent incident. These squads are pre-identified and scheduled 24 hours per day, seven days per week.

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What is the definition of a Transition Area?

A. An Area designated as a delineation between the clean (unaffected) and dirty (affected) areas of an event. This area should have officers present to sweep everyone for weapons. The injured will be swept and moved to the formal triage, treatment and transport area(s), while uninjured/witness will be swept and moved to a refuge area.

B. An area where law enforcement has passed through and swept for immediate hostile threats and where a threat is not expected but cannot be ruled out completely.

C. A geographic area with a known threat. Only law enforcement or armed personnel attempted to isolate, contain, or neutralize hostile threat(s) are allowed in this area.

D. Any area with dedicated law enforcement protecting a defined geographic area(s) that has been cleared and secured. To establish a cold zone, arriving officers and personnel clear and secure all perimeters. The command post, triage, treatment and transport area(s) and staging area are examples of areas inside of the cold zone.

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What is the definition of a hot zone?

A. Any area with dedicated law enforcement protecting a defined geographic area(s) that has been cleared and secured. To establish a cold zone, arriving officers and personnel clear and secure all perimeters. The command post, triage, treatment and transport area(s) and staging area are examples of areas inside of the cold zone.

B. An area where law enforcement has passed through and swept for immediate hostile threats and where a threat is not expected but cannot be ruled out completely.

C. A geographic area with a known threat. Only law enforcement or armed personnel attempted to isolate, contain, or neutralize hostile threat(s) are allowed in this area.

D. An Area designated as a delineation between the clean (unaffected) and dirty (affected) areas of an event. This area should have officers present to sweep everyone for weapons. The injured will be swept and moved to the formal triage, treatment and transport area(s), while uninjured/witness will be swept and moved to a refuge area.

C. A geographic area with a known threat. Only law enforcement or armed personnel attempted to isolate, contain, or neutralize hostile threat(s) are allowed in this area.

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What are the key differences between MACTAC Activation and STAR Protocol?

A. STAR de- escalation protocol requires immediate response regardless of single officer tactics. MACTAC requires a slow and methodical response.

B. STAR de-escalation protocol emphasizes slowed momentum to gather resources. MACTAC highlights the need for immediate intervention.

C. STAR de-escalation protocol highlights the needs for immediate intervention versus MACTAC emphasizes slowed momentum to gather resources.

D. Leroy Jenkins both.

B. STAR de-escalation protocol emphasizes slowed momentum to gather resources. MACTAC highlights the need for immediate intervention.

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Life safety is the absolute priority of MACTAC?

A. True

B. False

A. True

It is a policy of this department to provide a standardized, regional response to an active assailant, hostage siege, and/or terrorist attack in LVMPD jurisdiction, that prioritizes life safety.

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What is the definition of Unity of Command?

A. Unity of Command deals with the fact that all individuals have multiple designated supervisors they report to.

B. Unity of Command deals with the fact that all individuals have the most senior officer they report to.

C. Unity of Command deals with the fact that all individuals have a single designated supervisor they report to.

D. Unity of Command deals with the fact that some individuals have no designated supervisor they report to.

C. Unity of Command deals with the fact that all individuals have a single designated supervisor they report to.

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When referring to the ICS Supervisory Position Titles who is the Incident commanders support position?

A. Assistant
B. Manager
C. Deputy
D. Director

C. Deputy

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General Staff is the organization level for having functional responsibility for primary segments of incident management, what are its components?

A. Operations, Pre-planning, Equipment, Finance budgeting

B. Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration

C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Admin and logistics

D. Command and control, execution, Operations, administration

B. Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration

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Provide complete briefings that include clearly stated objectives and the following elements:

A. Task- What has to get done
Objective- Why isn’t it done
Solution- How does it look

B. Corrective action
Debriefing
Post-incident critique

C. Task- What is to be done
Purpose- Why it is to be done
End State- How is should look when done

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Span of control refers to the number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during an incident. Span of control is how many officers to 1 supervisor? PER ICS

A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10

A. 5

Per department policy Span of control states “Normally, no more than 12 members should be under the immediate control of an individual supervisor, unless variables of time, distance and function dictate otherwise.

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When responding to bomb threats the Field supervisor will do the following actions;

A. Contact the ARMOR supervisor through the officers line to brief of situation.

B. Respond to and assume command of the scene. The field supervisor or senior officer in charge will remain at the scene to brief the ARMOR supervisor or all relevant matters. Establish Incident Command system (ICS) in accordance with LVMPD and complete and ICS-AAR as required.

C. Contact the ARMOR supervisor through Communications supervisor.

D. A and C are correct

E. B and C are correct

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When at the scene of a bomb threat the field supervisor will assign an additional cadet to the primary location to assist in fundamentals scribe and communications.

A. True
B. False

B. False

Field supervisor will assign an additional officer to the primary location to assist with communications.

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What are the names of the two established command post at the scene of a bomb threat?

A. Foward Operating Post, Transitional Operations Center

B. Incident Command Center, Temporary Operations Center

C. Tactical Operations Center, Field Command Post

D. Command outpost, operating post

C. Tactical Operations Center, Field Command Post

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What can explosive detection dogs be used for?
A. Bomb Threats
B. Located or suspected explosive devices
C. Detonated explosive device
D. Dignity protection sweeps
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

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What best describes conducting 25-100 foot searches?

A. Conduct a visual search of 25 feet around their initial arrival location. After the initial 25 foot search, a 100 foot search should be conducted; if a new location is established, for a command post, the 25 and 100 foot searches will conducted again.

B. These searches should be conducted from a high-to-low in a 180 degree manner around the safe area.

C. Establish a cordon and mark unknown device with orange chem lights.

D. Utilize an EDD to conduct the 25-100 foot grid searches.

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When requesting ARMOR, advise a responsible person from the establishment of the potential for an explosion and initiate an evacuation of the premise. On a high rise building at least how many floors near the device should be evacuated?

A. If less then 10 floors the entire building
B. Every floor above the device
C. Every floor below the device
D. Have residents shelter in place
E. 2 floors below and 2 floors above device

E. 2 floors below and 2 floors above device

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What are some of the responsibilities of the ARMOR section supervisor?

A. Assess the situation, device, its potential and possible time limitations.
B. Coordinate with Counter Terrorism section (CTS) to assist with investigative responsibilities.
C. Provide information to the watch desk for coordination with CTS if terrorism nexus determined. To include all notifications to other sections and agencies required.
D. None of the above
E. Only A, B, and C

E. Only A, B, and C

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In reference to a STAR De-Escalation protocol how many officers will be dispatched at minimum?

A. 2 officers and a supervisor
B. 1 officer a cadet and Supervisor
C. 3 officers
D. 3 officers and a supervisor

D. 3 officers and a supervisor

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What is the criteria for a STAR De-escalation?

A. There is credible information the subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon (simulated or unseen) and is using it in a manner that can cause fear or intimidation. Subject is acting in a frightening manner with the weapon. This will not include open-carry subjects or pocketknives, when carrying the weapon(s) is the sole justification for the call.

B. There is credible information the subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon (not simulated or unseen) and is using it in a manner that can cause death or serious bodily injury. Subject is acting in a threatening manner with the weapon. This will not include open-carry subjects or pocketknives, when carrying the weapon(s) is the sole justification for the call.

C. There is credible information the subject is armed with a pillow or other dangerous weapon (not simulated or unseen) and is using it in a manner that can cause fear or intimidation. Subject is acting in a frightening manner with the weapon. This will not include open-carry subjects or flesh lights, when carrying the weapon(s) is the sole justification for the call.

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A supervisor will maintain a STAR De-escalation Protocol unless when?

A. Person Reporting calls back and says security handled the situation.

B. Unless the first -arriving cadet confirmed that the suspect has a weapon in his hands.

C. Unless the first arriving unit confirmed the incident no longer meets the criteria of a STAR De-escalation protocol.

D. All of the above

C. Unless the first arriving unit confirmed the incident no longer meets the criteria of a STAR De-escalation protocol response.

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The standard tool used for command, control, response coordination and overall management of complex incidents, planned events or emergencies. This system permits a clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease is the definition of Incident Command System (ICS)?

A. True
B. False

A. True

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Regardless of size or type of incident, the top 3 priorities for establishing incident objectives are?

A. Scene preservation, Rendering life safety measures, Property preservation

B. Scene stabilization, Life safety, Property collection

C. Life safety, Incident stabilization, Property Preservation

D. None of the above

C. Life safety, Incident stabilization, Property Preservation

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In establishing command a sergeant will determine if command needs to be transferred from the officer in the position of IC to the Sergeant. This will be based on what contributing factors of the incident.

A. Size
B. Type
C. Complexity of the incident
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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A subject who is believed to have been involved in a criminal act or is a significant threat to themselves or others; refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed; is in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment; or is contained in an open area, and the presence or approach of police officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the subject is the definition of what?

A. Suicidal subject/ incident
B. Domestic disturbance
C. STAR De-escalation protocol
D. Barricaded subject/ incident

D. Barricaded subject/ incident

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What are the elements of a barricaded subject? A. A subject who is believed to have been involved in a criminal act or is a significant threat to themselves or others. B. Refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed C. Is in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment; D. Or is contained in an open area, and the presence or approach of police officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the subject E. All of the above

E. All of the above

When responding to a barricade a patrol supervisor will? 1. Upon arrival, assess the situation and take command by prioritizing and communicating objectives. 2. Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter based on the nature of the incident. 3. Direct units to stop any inbound foot or vehicle traffic. 4. Assign officers as an immediate-action team (designating roles such as verbal communication, low lethality options, hands on, etc.) to control the subject should they exit the structure. 5. Gather intelligence, make a determination for the need of SWAT and negotiators to respond, and make the requests via Communications (when possible, the patrol supervisor should also communicate telephonically with the SWAT tactical commander). 6. Evacuate or shelter-in-place bystanders and injured persons from the vicinity around the suspect’s location. 7. Designate an officer with strong verbal skills to make contact with the subject to determine the subject’s intent. If contact is made with the subject, ensure officers remain in a tactically sound position, using effective cover and concealment. Efforts should be made to persuade the suspect to voluntarily surrender. 8. Request a dedicated radio channel with a dispatcher, if required. 9. Communicate with and direct subsequent arriving supervisors to perform other tasks that require handling. a. Any subsequent arriving supervisor will assess and determine where they are needed and establish communication with the first arriving supervisor to provide support. All supervisors on-scene have a responsibility in the command and control process. 10. Designate an officer to record names and addresses of persons and residences evacuated. A. All of the above B. None of the above

A. All of the above

When responding to a barricaded subject who will make the determination for the need of SWAT? A. Crisis Negotiators B. Senior Officer on scene C. Patrol Supervisor D. Incident Commander

C. Patrol Supervisor

Who will retain command of the incident command post during hostage plan? A. SWAT B. Patrol Supervisor C. Watch Commander D. CNT

B. Patrol Supervisor

The patrol supervisor will also retain command of the incident command post and what other responsibilities? A. TOC, Staging Area, PPA B. Staging Area, Immediate action team, ICP C. Staging Area, secondary perimeter and other police operations D. None of the above

C. Staging Area, secondary perimeter and other police operations

Who will notify the SWAT Tactical commander and other agencies, as applicable when a confirmed hostage incident and advise the field supervisor when the notifications have been made? A. Watch Commander B. Captain C. Lieutenant D. Communications

D. Communications

As the patrol supervisor after arriving on a hostage rescue incident and after assessing the situation and taking command by prioritizing and communicating objectives what is the secondary thing you will do? A. Make dynamic entry based on exigent circumstances. B. Begin negotiating with the suspect. C. Evacuate or shelter in place bystanders and injured persons from the vicinity around the suspects location. D. Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter based on the nature of the incident.

D. Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter based on the nature of the incident.

Projectile weapons may be used against persons who are holding a firearm if it can be utilized to de-escalate and intervene with a potential deadly force situation; however what conditions must be met? A. A minimum of two officers are on the way, and primary officer is acting as lethal coverage. Officers have considered the use of available cover and concealment B. A minimum of two officers are present, one officer acting as lethal coverage. Officers have considered the use of available cover and concealment. C. A minimum of 3 officers and a supervisor are present with one acting as lethal coverage. Officers have considered contingency plans. D. A minimum of 4 officers are present with 2 acting as lethal coverage. Officer have considered using cover versus concealment.

B. A minimum of two officers are present, one officer acting as lethal coverage. Officers have considered the use of available cover and concealment.

A blue team is required when using intermediate force against a dog via baton strike? A. True B. False

B. False

While in intermediate force utilizing a low lethal shotgun what is the distance you may use? A. 7 yards or greater B. 5 Yards or greater C. 10 Yards or greater D. 7 Yards or less

A. 7 yards or greater

While in intermediate force utilizing a 40mm specialty impact weapon what is the distance you may use? A. 7 yards or greater B. 5 Yards or greater C. 10 Yards or greater D. 7 Yards or less

B. 5 Yards or greater

In a protest or demonstration situation, OC spray may only be utilized when authorized by an ______________ in response to an __________ threat of harm. A. Watch Commander, immediate B. Patrol supervisor, imminent C. Captain, Exigent D. Incident Commander, Imminent

D. Incident Commander, Imminent

A civilian employee who also uses force (empty hand tactics, OC spray, or firearm is required to complete a use of force report. A. True B. False

A. True

What are the 3 levels of control per Use of Force? A. Low Level, Mid level, Deadly threat B. Minimal Risk Level, Obstructive, Deadly Force C. Low Level, intermediate level, Deadly Force D. Compliant, Obstructive, Assaultive, Life threatening

C. Low Level, intermediate level, Deadly Force

Spark Display, Touch Stun and Probe mode require a blue team? A. True B. False

A. True

BLUE team and photographs are required for any reportable force, visible signs of injury/ complaint of injury? A. True B. False

A. True

Handcuffs will not be used for verbally uncooperative person? A. True B. False

A. True Verbally uncooperative is not an approved use for handcuffs. **Articulable facts that the subject is physically uncooperative**

When responding to a security officer where a subject has been placed in handcuffs prior to the officer's arrival, the officer will not place LVMPD handcuffs on the subject until the officer has developed __________ or _________ based on their independent investigation. A. Articulable fact or Reasonable suspicion B. Facts or circumstances C. Reasonable suspicion or Probable Cause D. None of the above

C. Reasonable Suspicion or Probable Cause

Is blocking a reportable use of force tactic? A. Yes B. No

B. No Per use of force policy Blocking is the positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle where contact between the vehicles is anticipated to be minimal, and the potential for injuries is low. The intent of blocking is to prevent an avenue of escape by the safe placement of a police vehicle. Block is not a use of force.

As a supervisor you're responding to a volatile situation in reference to a suicidal subject where your immediate action team is set up on a suspect holding a knife. The suspect is currently standing in the driveway and has no access to a vehicle nor access to go inside of the home. Your low lethal officer is in possession of 40mm low lethality impact weapon and fires a total of 4 rounds towards the suspect. The suspect ultimately drops the knife and is taken into custody. While conducting a post use of force investigation you determined that the distance of the 40mm was approximately 7 yards away. What level of force was your low lethal officer in? What level of resistance was the suspect in? A. Low Level/ Compliant B. Intermediate Level/ Life Threatening C. Deadly Force/ Assaultive D. Intermediate Level/ Assaultive

D. Intermediate Level/ Assaultive Regardless of the number of times fired, Supervisor on scene will determine level of force based on distance of end of barrel to location of suspect.

When should officers report to a supervisor upon observing another officer use force that is clearly beyond what is justified or objectively reasonable? A. At the end of shift B. After the call C. Immediately D. Promptly E. None of the above

D. Promptly

What are the 3 important elements to a code 3 response that ensures officers are maximizing safety while minimizing risks? A. Initiative, Sound Decisions, Overwhelming action B. Communication, Coordination, Good judgement C. Decisiveness, Integrity, Courage D. Good Judgement, Communication over cellular device, Coordination

B. Communication, Coordination, Good judgement

When can LVMPD unit engage in a vehicle pursuit with an inner jurisdiction such as NLVPD or HPD? A. A field supervisor will not approve unless assistance is requested by the initiating agency, and they provide sufficient information. Such as crime the suspects are believed to be in. So that LVMPD field supervisor can determine if the pursuit is in compliance with the provision of LVMPD vehicle pursuit policy. B. If inter-jurisdictional units request assistance from LVMPD due to not enough manpower. On a suspect wanted for jay walking. C. A senior officer will not approve unless assistance is requested by the initiating agency, and they provide sufficient information. Such as crime the suspects are believed to be in. So that LVMPD field supervisor can determine if the pursuit is in compliance with the provision of LVMPD vehicle pursuit policy. D. None of the above.

A. A field supervisor will not approve unless assistance is requested by the initiating agency, and they provide sufficient information. Such as crime the suspects are believed to be in. So that LVMPD field supervisor can determine if the pursuit is in compliance with the provision of LVMPD vehicle pursuit policy.

An officer involved in a motor vehicle collision during an emergency response, or a pursuit will immediately discontinue involvement and take proper action as required by NRS 484E and department directives unless. A. No unit is available to assume the pursuit or respond to the unit involved. B. Damage to the unit is minor, and it can still be operated without danger. C. There are no apparent injuries as a result of the collision. D. All of the above E. Only B & C are correct

D. All of the above

In reference to a foot pursuit, when should a supervisor respond? A. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect. Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if its occupied or not. Any reportable force, or Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight. B. Injury to only an officer. Any entry into a home, structure, tent regardless if its occupied or not. Any reportable use of force and or any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight. C. Injury to citizen or suspect, Any entry into a home, structure only if occupied. Any reportable force and or any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight.

A. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect. Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if its occupied or not. Any reportable force, or Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight.

When responding to a foot pursuit a field supervisor will make reasonable efforts to do the following; A. Ask for updates regarding foot pursuit, Direct responding units to where needed, take control of the pursuit. B. Request for resources, ascertain information, take command of incident C. Ascertain information, direct responding resources, take command of the foot pursuit. C. Ask for information, direct responding units, monitor over radio

C. Ascertain information, direct responding resources, take command of the foot pursuit.

On a CNRNE incident you are the first supervisor on scene, you will establish a command post (at a safe distance upwind from the scene). Assign second or third unit arriving at the command post to check the immediate area for possible secondary devices. The officer(s) conducting the check should not touch suspicious objects. The location that have been thoroughly checked should be marked so the explosive detector dogs or bomb squad can eliminate those not marked as threats. Review established security perimeter and ensure no personnel are deployed in a designated contaminated area without proper protective equipment. Determine the need for an outer perimeter depending on the circumstances of the incident. Request communications to make notifications. What other should a supervisor do? A. Establish an evacuation team and systematically evacuate homeowners or patrons from businesses with the ARMOR section. In accordance with the table of isolation and evacuation distances found in the handbook. Department members will make every effort to conduct rescues if need be. B. Coordinate the evacuation of the area upwind of the spillage or suspected spillage, with the ARMOR section or Immediate action team, in accordance with the Table of Isolation and Evacuation Distances found in the ERG. Department members will conduct rescues without utilizing the proper protective equipment and being trained in its use. C. Coordinate the evacuation of the area downwind of the spillage or suspect spillage, with the ARMOR section or fire department, in accordance with the Table of Isolation and Evacuation Distances found in the ERG. Department members will not conduct rescues without utilizing the proper protective equipment and being trained in its use. D. None of the above

C. Coordinate the evacuation of the area downwind of the spillage or suspect spillage, with the ARMOR section or fire department, in accordance with the Table of Isolation and Evacuation Distances found in the ERG. Department members will not conduct rescues without utilizing the proper protective equipment and being trained in its use.

A safety zone maintained by officers which creates distance and space between opposing groups is the definition of? A. Crowd management B. Transition Zone C. Hot Zone D. Buffer Zone

D. Buffer Zone

During a protest where demonstrators have intentionally utilized a device that physically or mechanically connects a person or animal to a stationary object, officer will initially use de-escalation efforts, such as verbal persuasion warnings, and dispersal orders, as alternatives to extrication or reasonable uses of force. When a subject refuses to release themselves from theses protester devices, each individual protester will be advised they are under arrest and given an __________ to comply before force is used to remove the devices. A. hour B. Additional chance C. ultimatum D. None of the above

B. Additional chance

When confronting a dangerous crowd or a situation where public safety has been compromised, the department will declare it an unlawful assembly and attempt to provide orders to disperse at least how many times? A. None B. 1 C. 3 D. 2

C. 3

A. None

B. 1

Deployment of aerosol irritants will only be used at the direction of the _______ and only after clear warning has been given and when avenues of egress are available to the crowd. A. Field supervisor B. SWAT Commander C. Deputy Chief D. Incident Commander

D. Incident Commander

When contacted by an arresting officer regarding releasing an arrestee to medical personnel, ensure that the arrestee is not released from custody if the following charges are applicable; Crimes against an officer Domestic Violence or driver on a DWI revoked license or any other charge when is mandated by statute any violent crime against person with significant injury What 3 other crimes? A. Petit Larceny, Burglary, any violent crime involving the use of deadly force B. Battery against sibling, Sexual assault, Robbery C. Any violent crime involving the use of deadly force, Sexual assault, kidnapping D. Sexual assault, any violent crime involving the use of intermediate force, Kidnapping

C. Any violent crime involving the use of deadly force, Sexual assault, kidnapping

When making a warrant less arrest, the arresting officer will use only a reasonable amount of force to make the arrest, Restrain the arrestee by handcuffing their hands behind their back, unless handicapped, obese or other physical reasons exist for not doing so. Search the arrestee for weapons and instruments or fruits of the crime that are upon their person and/ or within their immediate control If interrogation is to follow, give the arrestee the Miranda warning before hand Protect and safeguard the arrestee and personal property Transport the arrestee to the appropriate detention facility Complete arrest procedures in accordance with LVMPD And what else should the arresting officer do? A. Request relief to transport the arrestee to the proper facility. B. Inform the suspect that they are under arrest C. Inform the suspect that they are under arrest and name the criminal offense or cause for arrest. D. None of the above

C. Inform the suspect that they are under arrest and name the criminal offense or cause for arrest.

NRS states that officer has discretion to arrest, cite, or give an advisement when there is probable cause to believe that a battery was committed within the preceding 7 days upon? A. A person with whom suspect is residing B. A sibling by blood or marriage (If the person is not the custodian or guardian of sibling) C. A Cousin (If the person is not the custodian or guardian of sibling) D. All of the above E. Only A and C

D. All of the above

When releasing property of an arrestee to a third party when will the supervisor will sign the property report? A. End of shift B. After arrestee is taken to correct facility C. After completion of arrest paperwork D. Before arrestee is transported to appropriate detention facility

D. Before arrestee is transported to appropriate detention facility

When releasing anything of monetary value to a third party, when will a supervisor presence be needed? A. Currency over $120.00 and non currency items valued over $220.00 B. Currency over $150.00 and non currency items valued over $250.00 C. Currency over $100.00 and non currency items valued over $250.00 D. Currency over $100.00 and non currency items valued over $300.00

C. Currency over $100.00 and non-currency items valued over $250.00

While conducting domestic violence investigations when should a supervisor be contacted? Felony Domestic Violence has occurred, A Law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim, parties involved are believed to be a pimp and prostitute, a suspect under arrest has a previous conviction for domestic violence and is in possession of a firearm and or ammunition. A. Suspect is an ex-felon for Murder B. Victim is gone on arrival C. Mutual arrest D. Battery between co-workers

C. Mutual arrest

When investigating a domestic dispute, in cases when a law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim of domestic violence who should be notified? A. Agency supervisor, watch commander, criminal investigation B. Watch commander, Criminal investigation section if WC not available, area sergeant C. Watch commander, Criminal investigation section if WC not available, area lieutenant D. Area lieutenant, Area Captain, Criminal investigation section

C. Watch commander, Criminal investigation section if WC not available, area lieutenant

When transporting a prisoner in a vehicle with a partition cage and 2 officers, what are the responsibilities of the passenger officers? A. Periodically monitor arrestees B. Have arrestee sit up front next to driving officer C. Maintain communication with arrestee D. Complete any and all necessary paperwork

A. Periodically monitor arrestees

Officers will not be diverted to any other law enforcement agency activities while transporting unless the risk to third parties is both clear, and grave and the risk to the arrestee is _______ and supervisory approval is given. A. Levitated B. Sudden C. Preventable D. Minimal

D. Minimal

Investigations involving department vehicle collisions a supervisor will send a check ride, post accident to who? A. Vehicle Collision Board, AOST, RBT B. Accident Review Board, AOST C. Health and Safety, AOST D. Vehicle Collision Board and AOST

D. Vehicle collision board and AOST

Who investigates a department vehicle incident report LVMPD 42? A. Patrol Supervisor B. Traffic supervisor C. Traffic supervisor or Traffic Officer D. Any available unit

C. Traffic supervisor or Traffic Officer

What is the criteria of an LVMPD 42 Department Vehicle Incident Report LVMPD 42? Visible damage is apparently minor (Small dents/scratches, under carriage damage No injuries or claimed injuries Involves citizen vehicle or non motorist involved Training collisions with serious injury or death of major property damage A. Any use of PIT, Blocking with contact, Pinching or ramming B. Ramming in intermediate force C. Use of PIT during vehicle stop D. B and C

A. Any use of PIT, Blocking with contact, Pinching or ramming

A separate category from a collision, is an occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole or building not resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of less than $750.00? Describes what term? A. Collision B. Excusable C. Incident D. Non-preventable

D. Incident

An occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of $750.00 or more. Describes what term? A. Collision B. Excusable C. Incident D. Non-preventable

A. Collision

In accordance with the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1900 and the federally mandated __________ entry into NCIC will be made under certain circumstances. A. Adam Walsh Act B. Kelsey Smith Act C. Amber Alert D. Suzanne's Law

D. Suzanne's Law

In accordance with the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1900 and the federally mandated Suzanne's Law entry into NCIC will be made under what circumstances. A. All Juveniles 17 years and younger, will be entered into NCIC immediately upon receiving the required minimum data elements, not to exceed 2 hours. B. Missing person 18-20 years old will also be entered into NCIC in accordance with the federally mandated Suzanne's law immediately upon receiving the required minimum data elements, not to exceed 2 hours. C. Only A D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

An officer notifies you of a female adult who is at UMC trauma who has sustained a life threatening head injury as a result of falling off a ladder while putting up her Christmas lights. No foul play is detected but the Dr says that she will likely not make it. What type of report should be taken? A. Incident crime report for suspicious Death B. Incident crime report for sick or injured person C. Notify Patrol detectives D. Incident crime report for Sick or injured person along with photographs to document event

D. Incident crime report for Sick or injured person along with photographs to document event

Only the firearm used in an incident (IE. Suicide, accidental shooting etc) will be impounded as evidence by who_______? Patrol officers may impound other firearms for safekeeping only when ____________or safety exist- notating the jurisdiction when doing so and when public administrator is not available. A. Cadet/ threat to others B. Primary officer/ threats to life C. Crime Scene Analyst/ threats to life D. Crime Scene Analyst/ threats to society

C. Crime Scene Analyst/ threats to life

When will the coroner investigator collect any firearms? A. Homicides B. Suicides C. When no officer is present D. Never

D. Never

Officers should coordinate with the appropriate ______ Officers to analyze problems and determine responses? A. Safe Village Initiative Officers B. FLEX Team C. COP D. PD

C. COP

Field strip searches of prisoners will be conducted only in the rarest of circumstances where the life of the officers or other may be placed at risk and only with the explicit approval of a __________and only in the presence of a supervisor? A. Patrol Sergeant B. Incident Commander C. Lieutenant D. Senior officer

C. Lieutenant

Pursuant to a lawful stop, vehicles may be searched under the following circumstances; PC evidence is contained in vehicle; A. Search Pursuant to a search warrant B. Vehicle is readily mobile C. Consent search D. All of the Above E. Only B and C

D. All of the above

Pursuant to a lawful stop, vehicles may be searched under the following circumstances; No PC evidence is contained in vehicle A. Protective frisk for officer safety B. Inventory C. Consent search D. Vin Inspection E. All of the above

E. All of the above

What are the way that consent may be documented? A. Verbal either electronically recorded B. Written is preferred C. Document in CAD D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The show up witness form will be completed on all show ups involving what types of crimes? Regardless of identity outcome. A. Misdemeanor B. Gross Misdemeanor C. Felony D. All of the above

C. Felony

In the event that multiple suspects are detained at the same time, a show up will only be conducted with 1 suspect at a time. The show up should be done within a relative timeframe of ______-______ hours following the incident. A. Immediately- Sooner B. 2-4 hours C. 1-3 hours D. 60 minutes

C. 1-3 hours

A show up should be conducted at the location where the suspect is detained within ________ of detainment, if not under arrest. A. 2 hours B. 60 minutes C. 1-3 hours D. As soon as possible

B. 60 minutes

What crimes should Patrol Detectives be notified? A. Grand Larceny over 25k B. Domestic Battery C. PPPFA, Possession of a stolen FA D. Residential Burglary over 25K

C. PPPFA, Possession of a stolen FA

As a supervisor when will homicide be notified? A. Homicides B. Fire Deaths C. Suspicious deaths after CSA have responded to and assessed the scene. D. All of the above E. Only A and C

D. All of the above

As a field supervisor, you are notified by one of your officers that his victim has succumbed to injuries while at the hospital. The details of the incident were that two brothers were in a fight at their home which the victim struck the suspect in the head due to being chased with a bread knife. Officers tell you that no one is in custody. Who do you need to notify? A. Patrol Detectives B. Watch Commander C. Homicide Section D. Admin lieutenant

C. Homicide Section

Red crime scene tape will be placed around the crime scene where an OIS, In custody death or the use of deadly force incident has occurred? A. True B. False

A. True

When responding to a critical incident what are the procedures for the first officer on scene? A. Render first aid and summon medical assistance when responding to crimes against a person involving bodily injury. B. Place yellow crime scene tape around the perimeter of the crime scene. C. Remove all unauthorized persons, including officers, from the inner perimeter of the crime scene. D. Ensure unauthorized vehicles do not enter the inner perimeter of the crime scene. E. All of the above.

E. All of the above

When investigating officer involved shooting or deadly force situations who is responsible to collecting and securing the body worn camera from all involved and witness officers upon arrival at the scene? A. CIRT B. FIT C. Field Supervisor D. A and B

B. FIT

When may supervisors self dispatch feature under what following circumstances? A. To close out pending non-response required calls without using the radio. (a Sgt calls a PR and determines that a subject causing a disturbance is gone. The Sgt can self-dispatch to update and close the call. B. After contacting the PR and determining that the call can be cancelled, or if the sergeant resolves the call, they may utilize the self-dispatch feature. C. Both A and B D. Only A

C. Both A and B

Emergency calls will be dispatched to on-shifts units up to the _______ of the shift. A. 45 minutes B. Conclusion C. End of shift D. Pending

B. Conclusion

Communications will dispatch on-shift units to routine calls including report call up to _______before the conclusion of their shift. A. 45 minutes B. Conclusion C. End of shift D. Pending

A. 45 minutes

What are the 7 examples of when a Significant event reporting is needed? A. OIS (Involved or witness, Victim or witness to substantial violence against commissioned officer or civilian employee, involvement in a call for service in which children sustain substantial bodily harm or death. B. Responding to a mass casualty event or a multi-casualty traffic accident, personal involvement in divorce, loss of a family member or significant other, A citizen dying or suffering substantial bodily harm in the employees presence. C. Both A and B D. None of these

C. Both A and B

Department members are prohibited from disclosing information pertaining to any other members of the Department without permission of the affected member? A. True B. False

A. True

An employee may voluntarily self-identify as an abuser of prescription or over the counter drugs or alcohol before being identified through other means. Such self identification may occur through any supervisor in the employees chain of command or an association representative who then has an obligation to report it to the officer of Labor relations. Under these circumstances the employee will participate in a mandatory rehabilitation program paid for by the employee and or the appropriate health insurance carrier. The employee will also be subject to the conditions of a __________ which will include unannounced testing for a ______ period. A. Last Opportunity Agreement/ 1 year B. Last Chance Agreement/ 6 months C. Last Chance Agreement/ 2 year D. Last Opportunity Agreement/ 2 year

C. Last Chance Agreement/ 2 year

A concentration of alcohol that indicates a ______ percent or above, at the time of a BAC test, is per se impairment and may be grounds for discipline? A. .018 B. .022 C. .02 D. .03

C. .02

Upon becoming aware or developing reasonable suspicion of an employees impairment, a supervisor will contact ________ immediately. A. Watch commander B. Bureau commander C. Internal Affairs Bureau D. Criminal IA

C. Internal Affairs Bureau

Upon developing reasonable suspicion, a supervisor will conduct a preliminary investigation (which may include an FST). The supervisor should request a ____________________ to observe any indicators of impairment to confirm the reasonable suspicion. A. Bureau Commander B. IAB C. Secondary Supervisor D. Patrol detective

C. Secondary Supervisor

As a supervisor for reports of criminal or suspected criminal misconduct involving law enforcement employees of any other jurisdiction, who will be immediately notified? A. Bureau command/ Criminal Intelligence B. On duty Captain/ appropriate investigative unit C. On duty watch commander/ appropriate investigative unit D. Secondary supervisor/ IAB

C. On duty watch commander/ appropriate investigative unit

An employees bureau/ area commander will confer with the employees supervisor regarding the implementation of court-referred program and/or discipline regarding DUI/DV. The employees immediate supervisor will address the employees behavior through? A. Discipline B. Counseling C. Ensure any reduction in discipline, wholly or in part, due to successful completion of court referred treatment retains the designation of the initial discipline. D. Coordinate any voluntary follow up care for the employee through PEAP. E. All of the above

E. All of the above

All religious accommodation request will be reviewed and processed on a case-by-case basis by who? A. Bureau Commander B. IAB lieutenant C. Employment Diversity Section Director D. Patrol supervisor

C. Employment Diversity Section Director

Employee request religious accommodation to the supervisor, A supervisor will notify who?, of the request for a religious accommodation by a member in a _______manner to begin with the formal interactive process. A. EDS Director/ Speedy B. IAB supervisor/ timely C. Patrol supervisor/ quick D. EDS director/ timely

D. EDS director/ timely

A customer service dispute is not an allegation that involves what? A. Violation of law or department policy B. Criminal violations C. Allegations of misconduct D. Violation of policy and laws

A. Violation of law and department policy

Who investigates a customer service dispute? A. Incident Commander B. Supervisor C. Watch Commander D. Bureau Commander

B. Supervisor

All internal investigation should be completed within how many days? A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90

D. 90 Days

Are not considered interrogation questions. This is because they are not intended to elicit incriminating information pursuant to an investigation. Rather they are questions asked so that law enforcement officials known how to reach a situation. Is the definition of what? A. Non-Incriminating questions B. Threshold questions C. Public Safety Statement D. None of these

B. Threshold Questions

Officers will treat shot spotter incidents as what and respond in a safe and strategic manner? A. STAR de-escalation protocol B. Crime in progress C. Priority 1 D. All of the above

B. Crime in progress

A patrol supervisor will ensure that what two documents are completed following a shotspotter event? A. ICR and Teams notification B. Central Intelligence Notification and ICR C. CIU and AAR D. Both A and C

B. Central Intelligence Notification and ICR