Practice Test #2 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Practice Test #2 Deck (67):
1

Maximum Dorsiflexion occurs at which phase of gait?

Terminal Stance

2

A singe gait cycle is defined as the activity that occurs from:

Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side

3

During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active?

Loading Response

4

Which muscle most closely duplicates the function of the Tib Ant?

Extensor Hallicus Longus

5

Which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth?

Erb's Palsy

6

Which of the following is an inflammation of the outer covering of the brain and spinal cord?

Meningitis

7

A patient presents to your office with bossing of the right posterior cranium and flattening of the left posterior cranium. How would you classify this?

Left Post Brachycephalic

8

What is the primary target organ in rheumatiod arthritis?

Cartilage

9

What is the lubricant filled sac which, if removed, results in increased friction?

Bursa

10

What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars on a Taylor TLSO?

Spine of the scapula

11

Which pathology is most likely to be fit with free knee joints?

Genu Varum Deformity

12

Which type of scoliosis is most likely the result of a leg length discrepancy?

Nonstructural Scoliosis

13

Which would you most expect to see in a patient with a pf contracture?

Genu Recurvatun at midstance

14

True Df and PF occur in which plane?

Sagittal

15

What orthosis would best restore upper extremty function for a patient with a spinal cord injury above the C6 nerve root?

Wrist driven WHO

16

What is most appropriate for a median nerve injury at the wrist?

WHO with thumb post

17

The primary function of the brachioradialis is :

Elbow Flexion

18

In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the :

Teres minor

19

The axis of location of the hip is located?

Anterior and Superior

20

Aponeurisus is:

A flat broad tendon

21

Spondylolisthesis is a condition best described as:

Anterior displacement of the L5 vertebrae in relation to the sacrum

22

A hand orthosis controls:

Palmar arch and thumb position

23

Flaccid payalysis is most often seen in:

Lower motor neuron injuries

24

A patient present with excessive tibial torsion. How should this be incorporated into a conventional double upright AFO?

Deflect the side bars

25

You deliver a device in the hospital to a patient who is not able to communicate. You should:

Provide the nurse instructions and leave written instructions

26

Which muscle inserts on the navicular and medial cuneiform?

Posterior Tibialis

27

The space between an axon and a dendrite is called the :

Synapse

28

The gelatinous center of a spinal disc is the :

Nucleus Pulposus

29

Which muscle serves to abduct the phalanges away from the 3rd digit?

Dorsal Interossei

30

Poliomyelitis is what type of pathology?

Lower Motor Neuron

31

A patient with a complete C6 SCI powers a wrist-driven flexor hinge tenodesis orthosis by using the

Extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris

32

Which ligament prevents hyperextension of the hip joint?

Illiofemoral Ligament

33

The position of the thoracic facets most easily allows for which movements?

Rotation and lateral flexion

34

Which is not part of the scapula?

Coronoid process

35

A yound child with a T12 myelimeningocele is seen in your office for a device that will help patient ambulate in the home and classroom and will allow hands free standing. What device do you evaluate him for?

Parapodium

36

Hydocephalus often accompanies which of the following?

Spina Bifida

37

The lumbricals function to :

Flex MCP joints and extend the PIP joints

38

The muscle length tension relationship describes:

THe concept that strength of a muscle changes depending on the affected joints position through its arc of motion

39

What actions are carried out by the sartorius?

Hip flexion and external rotation; knee flexion

40

Which scenario is best to test the differential between a grade 3 and a grade 4 psoas major strength?

Patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip flexion

41

Which of the following statements about the gluteus maximus is incorrect?

It functions as an internal rotator of the hip

42

A positivr Trendelenburg sign is assigned when:

The affected side of the pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the sound side

43

Which of the following is purely a sensory nerve?

Saphenous

44

Maximum PF occurs at what phase of gait?

Pre Swing

45

Swan neck deformity refers to which position?

Flexion of the DIP joint, hyperextension of the PIP joint

46

To promote healing in a case of Legg Calve Perthes disease, the hip should be positioned in:

Abduction and internal rotation

47

An orthotsis for a patient post ACL reconstruction should primarily control:

Anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur

48

A patient comes into your office for an orthosis to prevent GH subluxation. What positions should the shoulder be placed in?

Abduction and internal rotation

49

What muscle is not affected by a proximal lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve

Brachioradialis

50

Which of the following is not a part of the humerus?

Pactineal line

51

Which column of the spine do you expect to see damaged in a burst FX?

Middle and Anterior

52

At what vertebral does the caudi equine begin?

L2

53

Damage to what structre leads to sensation deficits?

Dorsal branch of the nerve root

54

When the limb moves from midstance to terminal stance what muscle group contracts and in what manner?

PF, eccentric

55

Torque is calculated by:

Multiplying lever arm length by force applied

56

Pressure is determined by which of the following?

Force divided by area

57

A patient with Charcot foot is most likely to present with:

A collapsed and inflamed arch

58

The muscles that pass posterior to the lateral malleolus act to:

PF and evert the foot

59

Which muscle inserts on the lesser trochanter?

Iliopsoas

60

What are the two origins of the biceps brachii?

Supraglenoid tubercle and coracoid process

61

Oppositiion of the thumb occurs at which joint?

Carpometcarpal joint

62

What is the normal ROM for pronation and supination?

Pro 80, Sup 80

63

The ML of an anatomical ankle joint is 8.3 cm. What should the inside measurement for your mechanical ankle joint be?

9.2cm

64

Which nerve divides into the common peroneal nerve and the tibial nerve?

Sciatic Nerve

65

A patient with quadriplegia resulting form a lesion at C7 neruosegmental level is most likely to benefit form which of the following?

Static HO

66

Which is a benefit of a SOMI?

It can be fit with the patient in a supine position

67

What motion of the calf band will occur if the mechanical ankle joint of an AFO is located too proximal in relation to the anatomical?

Calf band igrates distally with PF and distally with DF