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Precourse EOD > Precourse EOD > Flashcards

Precourse EOD Flashcards

1
Q

Define UXO

A

Explosive ordnance which has been primed, fuzed, armed or otherwise prepared for action, and which has been fired, dropped, launched, projected, or placed in such a manner as to constitute a hazard to operations installations, personnel or meterial and remains unexploded by malfunction, design, or from any other cause.

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2
Q

Define EOR

A

Involves the investigation, detection, location, marking, initial identification and reporting of suspected unexploded explosive ordnance, in order to determine further action.

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3
Q

Define EOD

A

The detection, identification, field evaluation, rendering safe, recovery, and final disposal of UXO.

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4
Q

Define IED

A

Devices placed or fabricated in an improvised manner that incorporate destructive, lethal, noxious, pyrotechnic, or incendiary chemicals designed to destroy, disfigure, incapacitate, harass, or distract.

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5
Q

What are the four options available to a tactical/operational commander in dealing with an UXO?

A

Accept the risk
Avoid
Detonate
Neutralise

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6
Q

In peacetime, who has the primary responsibility for the render safe, removal and disposal of military EO?

A

Dept of Defence

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7
Q

What are the five phases/procedures performed by EOD?

A 
Access
Diagnostic Procedures
Render Safe Procedures
Recovery
Disposal
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8
Q

What are the five EOD Forms?

A

EOD 1 - Initial EO Report
EOD 2 - Confirmed EO Report / Tasking Report
EOD 3 - EO Intelligence Report
9 Line Report - UXO Spot Report
GI017 - Disposal Action Taken on EOD Task

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9
Q

Define CAT A

A

The incident constitutes a grave and immediate threat. Given priority over all other incidents regardless of personal risk.

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10
Q

Define CAT B

A

Incident constitutes an indirect threat. Safe wait times may be observed to reduce hazard to EOD personnel.

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11
Q

Define CAT C

A

Incident constitutes little threat. Dealt with after CAT A & B incidents.

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12
Q

Define CAT D

A

Incident constitutes no threat at present time. Generally can be marked and left for disposal when time and resources permit.

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13
Q

What are the three categories of explosion?

A

Mechanical
Chemical
Atomic

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14
Q

Define VoD

A

The speed at which the initiating shockwave passes through an explosive substance.

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15
Q

What are three causes of partial detonation?

A

Poor contact with explosive train

Deterioration of explosive material

Inadequate shock in either detonation or velocity applied by the initiating charge

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16
Q

Define Extrusion

A

The result of thermal expansion of the HE filling which forces the sealing composition out through the threads of the filling plugs.

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17
Q

What are the two categories of HE?

A

Primary HE

Secondary HE

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18
Q

What is an explosive train intended to bring about the detonation of a HE charge called?

A

Disruptive Train

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19
Q

What six factors have an influence on the sensitivity and detonating velocity of an explosive?

A 
Size of explosive crystals
Explosive density
Presence or extant of coating
Moisture absorbed by explosive
Confinement of explosive container
Environmental conditions
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20
Q

What is a monopropellant?

A

Fuel and oxidant in the same liquid

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21
Q

What is a bipropellant?

A

Fuel and oxidant in separate liquids

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22
Q

In relation to NATO colour codes and markings, what does a Yellow Band indicate?

A

High Explosive

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23
Q

In relation to NATO colour codes and markings, what does a Brown Band indicate?

A

Low Explosive

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24
Q

In relation to NATO colour codes and markings, what does a White Body indicate?

A

Illumination

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25
Q

In relation to NATO colour codes and markings, what does a Silver or Aluminium Body indicate?

A

Countermeasures

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26
Q

In relation to NATO colour codes and markings, what does a Black Body indicate?

A

Armour Piercing or Armour Defeating

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27
Q

What are the five categories of bombs?

A 
HE
Incendiary
Chemical Agent
FAE
Practice
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28
Q

What are the four main categories of submunitions?

A

Anti Pers
Anti Tank
Area Denial
Runway Cratering

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29
Q

What are the four main types of long delay fuzing?

A

Chemical
Material Creep
Clockwork
Electrical

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30
Q

What is the generic wait time for unknown fuzing?

A

1 hour

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31
Q

What is the generic wait time for unknown missiles?

A

3 hours

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32
Q

What is the generic wait time for PTTF/hand grenade?

A

30 min

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33
Q

What additional hazards generally accompany the piezo hazard?

A

Static/EMR

Movement

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34
Q

What three positions can a bomb be fuzed?

A

Nose
Tail
Transverse

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35
Q

What contents can be used in a carrier projectile?

A 
Smoke screening
Marking
Signalling
Illuminating
Decoy
Radar
Chaff
Incendiary
Anti Pers
Propaganda
Chemical Agents
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36
Q

Proximity fuzes may have a graduated setting sleeve. True or False?

A

True

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37
Q

What are the three purposes of pyrotechnics?

A

Visual
Area
Tracking

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38
Q

The warhead of a rocket contains what two components?

A

Payload

Fuzing System

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39
Q

The booby trap hazard not apply to projectiles and mortars in previously held enemy territory. True or False?

A

False

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40
Q

What is the purpose of the Safety and Arming Device (SAD) on missiles?

A

Provides safety breaks prior to weapon launch

Arms the weapon after launch

Links the fuze/fuzes to the warhead

41
Q

What are the mitigations for observing the piezo hazard?

A

Do not knock, drop, strike, jar or move the UXO
If requires movement, move by remote means only
Don’t conduct any activity IVO EO/UXO that will cause rapid or significant temp change in the fuze
Fuze may initiate if moved

42
Q

What hazards should be considered if a chemically coloured gold aluminium plug is fitted to the charging well of an 80 series bomb?

A

Magnetic

Accoustic/Seismic

43
Q

What are the 25 hazards?

A 
HE/Frag
Movement
Cocked Striker
Wait Time
Long Delay
Clockwork
Booby Trap
Static/EMR
Piezo
Proximity
Jet
Ejection
Fuel
Fire
CG&L
Phosphorous
Chemical
Radiation
Magnetic
Acoustic/Seismic
Pressure
Galvanic
Flooder Sinker
PSE/AR
General Contact
44
Q

What are the characteristics of MT and MTSQ fuzes?

A

Multi piece construction
May have a time setting/calibration scale
Setting Lugs or Slots - SQ
Delay setting if an impact element is integral (MTSQ)

45
Q

What are the four main components of a missile?

A

Warhead
Guidance
Control
Propulsion

46
Q

What are the five methods of anti-withdrawal used on long delay pistol/fuzes?

A 
Clawed Foot
Offset Grove and Ball
Knife Edges
Anti Removal Sleeve
Electrical Contact
47
Q

If the SQ function has been selected on a MTSQ projectile fuze, the clockwork mechanism is disabled and a simple impact or inertia machanism causes initiation. True or False?

A

True

48
Q

What are six methods of protective works?

A 
Trenching
Buttressing
Venting
Walls
Surrounds
Mounding
49
Q

Trenching must be dug to at least 300mm below the installation to be protected. True or False?

A

False

50
Q

What are the two types of landmines?

A

Anti Tank

Anti Pers

51
Q

What two conditions must be satisfied before trenching can be used as a means of protection against earth-shock damage?

A
  • Trench to be located outside the probable crater area to be expected should the UXO explode
  • Trench to be located within the radius for earth-shock damage from the explosion of the UXO
52
Q

Define Blast Overpressure Distance Range (BODR)

A

The overpressure above the ambient pressure in a blast wave at a given distance from the Potential Explosion SIte (PES).

53
Q

Define Hazardous Fragmentation Distance (HFD)

A

Minimum 100m. The minimum withdrawal distance for protection from hazardous primary and secondary fragments from PES and the unprotected population and/or traffic density within the ES

54
Q

Define Maximum Fragmentation Distance - Horizontal (MFD-H)

A

The range to which hazardous primary and secondary fragments from the PES are not expected to travel beyond the ES posing a threat to the personnel exposed in the open.

55
Q

What are the four main methods of operation to time devices with respect to booby traps?

A

Pyrotechnic
Mechanical
Electrical
Chemical

56
Q

Anti-handling devices are not fitted to anti-personnel mines due to their small size. True or False?

A

False

57
Q

When calculating the BODR using NEQ, always use the combined NEQ of all items as the total NEQ, excluding donor charges. True or False?

A

False

58
Q

In the event of an intentional detonation, the minimum distance non-essential personnel exposed in the open can evacuate to is 390m. True or False?

A

False

59
Q

What are the two types of CW agents?

A

Toxic

Non Toxic

60
Q

What are the four methods of entry for CW agents?

A

Inhalation
Absorbsion
Ingestion
Injection

61
Q

HD, L and CX are all types of Blood Agents. True or False?

A

False

62
Q

Miosis is a symptom of exposure to a Nerve Agent. True or False?

A

True

63
Q 
What are the following abbreviations?
GA
GB
GD
CG
DM
AC
CK
HD
L
CX
A 
GA - Tabun
GB - Sarin
GD - Soman
CG - Phosgene
DM - Adamsite
AC - Hydrogen Cyanide
CK - Cyanogen Chloride
HD - Distilled Mustard
L - Lewisite
CX - Phosgene Oxime
64
Q

What are the three immediate steps to be taken upon exposure to a Nerve Agent?

A

Conduct Masking Drill
Inject one auto injector
Conduct personal decontamination

65
Q

Agent that interferes with the nervous system and thus disrupt essential body functions, such as breathing, muscular coordination and vision.

A

Nerve

66
Q

Agent that prevents body tissues from using the oxygen in the blood.

A

Blood

67
Q

Agent that causes inflammation, blistering of the skin and superficial destruction of contaminated internal tissues such as the lining of breathing passages.

A

Blister

68
Q

Agent that attacks the breathing passages and lungs.

A

Choking

69
Q

What is the difference between endotoxins and exotoxins?

A

Endotoxins - Toxin is retained in the cells that produce them

Exotoxins - Toxin is secreted by the cells that produce them

70
Q

An S10 respirator provides good protection for carbon monoxide gases. True or False?

A

False

71
Q

What are the meteorological factors affecting biological agents?

A 
Wind speed and direction
Inversion conditions - Humidity
PH levels in the water
Sunlight effects including UV radiation and temperature
Other factors (pollution)
72
Q

What are the effects of humidity on CW agents?

A
  • Causes precipitation and enlargement of skin pores allowing deeper penetration of liquids
  • Degrades the protective capabilities of the protective suit
  • Increases susceptibility of skin to both vapour and aerosols
  • Hydrolysis turns some agents into harmless substances
73
Q

It is a clear night. Temperature is 32 degrees C at 2m and 28 degrees C at 0.3m. Is the weather better suited for liquid or vapour attack?

A

Vapour attack. Temperature gradient is greater than +2 degrees, therefore an inversion)

74
Q

What is worn/carried when adopting MOPP2?

A

Worn - CBRN suit and boots

Carried - Respirator and gloves

75
Q

What are the four principles of contamination control?

A

Avoidance of contamination
Limit the spread
Weathering
Decontamination

76
Q

What are the operational lifes of the following?
MK4 NBC suit in non-contaminated environment
MK4 NBC suit in mustard contaminated environment
MK4 suit in other agent contaminated environment
Overboots in a gross liquid contaminated environment
Gloves in gross liquid contaminated environment
Gloves if decontaminated within 15 min

A

MK4 NBC suit in non-contaminated environment - 30 days
MK4 NBC suit in mustard contaminated environment - 6 hrs
MK4 suit in other agent contaminated environment - 24 hrs
Overboots in a gross liquid contaminated environment - 3 hrs
Gloves in gross liquid contaminated environment - 3 hrs
Gloves if decontaminated within 15 min - 10 hrs

77
Q

When mixing HTH, the chemical is poured into a suitable container and water is then added. True or False?

A

False

78
Q

What is a hazard to beware of when mixing STB with liquid blister agent?

A

Fire

79
Q

What are the four levels of decontamination?

A

Immediate, Operational, Thorough, Final

80
Q

What are the five methods of decontamination?

A

Weathering
Flush/removal
Burning
Covering & Neutralisation

81
Q

Define Inversion

A

Occurs when the air nearer to the ground is cooler or the 2m level temperature is greater by more than 2 degrees Celsius than that at 0.3m level.

82
Q

Define Neutral

A

This condition involves a nearly constant temperature with increase in altitude

83
Q

Define Lapse

A

Occurs when the temperature at the 0.3m level is higher by 2 degrees Celsius or more than the 2m level or the air nearer the ground is warmer.

84
Q

What is the four step decon process?

A

Decontamination
Wait
Rinse
Check

85
Q

What is one agent that M8 paper can be used to detect?

A

G & V Nerve Agents

86
Q

If a piece of M8 paper turned yellow, what CW agent would that indicate?

A

G Nerve Agent

87
Q

What is the IEDD Philosophy in order of priority?

A

Save life
Preserve property
Return to normality
Preserve/collect forensic evidence

88
Q

Command initiated IED systems are broken down into two main groups, what are they?

A

Linked

Separated

89
Q

List the types of VOIEDs

A 
Pull/Trip
Pressure
Pressure Release
Movement Sensitive
Light Sensitive
PIR
AIR
Other Electronic
90
Q

What are the four types of Timed Initiated IEDs?

A

Igniferous
Chemical
Mechanical
Electronic

91
Q

A hoax IED incident is reported in good faith to be a suspect IED that upon full investigation proves to be totally innocuous. True or False?

A

False

92
Q

What three factors/considerations does the Threat Triad consist of?

A

Aim
Type
Location

93
Q

What is the intent of the ADF IEDD Doctrine?

A

To maintain a very low rate of IEDD casualties despite the ever growing threat.

94
Q

An IEDDO can, whenever he sees fit, choose not to wear the bomb suit without requesting approval from EODCC. True or False?

A

False

95
Q

Define Hoax

A

The discovery of a simulated IED or object deliberately placed to cause disruption.

96
Q

Define False Report

A

An object reported in good faith to be suspected IED that upon investigation proves to be innocuous.

97
Q

Define Find

A

The discovery of explosives, weapons, ammo, tools, inert components or radio transmission equipment attributed to IED facilitators.

98
Q

During IED operations, when does a NOTAM need to be implemented?

A

Whenever a positive action is carried out.

99
Q

Targeting of EOD technicians and a high incidence of RCIED requiring ECM employment are 2 reasons that determine a High Threat theatre. What are four others?

A

VBIEDs
VOIEDs
Secondary Devices
Come Ons show capability, intent and opportunity

Precourse EOD (1 decks)

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