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Precourse EOD Flashcards

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1
Q

Define UXO

A

Explosive ordnance which has been primed, fuzed, armed or otherwise prepared for action, and which has been fired, dropped, launched, projected, or placed in such a manner as to constitute a hazard to operations installations, personnel or meterial and remains unexploded by malfunction, design, or from any other cause.

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2
Q

Define EOR

A

Involves the investigation, detection, location, marking, initial identification and reporting of suspected unexploded explosive ordnance, in order to determine further action.

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3
Q

Define EOD

A

The detection, identification, field evaluation, rendering safe, recovery, and final disposal of UXO.

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4
Q

Define IED

A

Devices placed or fabricated in an improvised manner that incorporate destructive, lethal, noxious, pyrotechnic, or incendiary chemicals designed to destroy, disfigure, incapacitate, harass, or distract.

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5
Q

What are the four options available to a tactical/operational commander in dealing with an UXO?

A

Accept the risk
Avoid
Detonate
Neutralise

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6
Q

In peacetime, who has the primary responsibility for the render safe, removal and disposal of military EO?

A

Dept of Defence

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7
Q

What are the five phases/procedures performed by EOD?

A 
Access
Diagnostic Procedures
Render Safe Procedures
Recovery
Disposal
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8
Q

What are the five EOD Forms?

A

EOD 1 - Initial EO Report
EOD 2 - Confirmed EO Report / Tasking Report
EOD 3 - EO Intelligence Report
9 Line Report - UXO Spot Report
GI017 - Disposal Action Taken on EOD Task

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9
Q

Define CAT A

A

The incident constitutes a grave and immediate threat. Given priority over all other incidents regardless of personal risk.

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10
Q

Define CAT B

A

Incident constitutes an indirect threat. Safe wait times may be observed to reduce hazard to EOD personnel.

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11
Q

Define CAT C

A

Incident constitutes little threat. Dealt with after CAT A & B incidents.

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12
Q

Define CAT D

A

Incident constitutes no threat at present time. Generally can be marked and left for disposal when time and resources permit.

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13
Q

What are the three categories of explosion?

A

Mechanical
Chemical
Atomic

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14
Q

Define VoD

A

The speed at which the initiating shockwave passes through an explosive substance.

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15
Q

What are three causes of partial detonation?

A

Poor contact with explosive train

Deterioration of explosive material

Inadequate shock in either detonation or velocity applied by the initiating charge

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16
Q

Define Extrusion

A

The result of thermal expansion of the HE filling which forces the sealing composition out through the threads of the filling plugs.

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17
Q

What are the two categories of HE?

A

Primary HE

Secondary HE

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18
Q

What is an explosive train intended to bring about the detonation of a HE charge called?

A

Disruptive Train

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19
Q

What six factors have an influence on the sensitivity and detonating velocity of an explosive?

A 
Size of explosive crystals
Explosive density
Presence or extant of coating
Moisture absorbed by explosive
Confinement of explosive container
Environmental conditions
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20
Q

What is a monopropellant?

A

Fuel and oxidant in the same liquid

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21
Q

What is a bipropellant?

A

Fuel and oxidant in separate liquids

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22
Q

In relation to NATO colour codes and markings, what does a Yellow Band indicate?

A

High Explosive

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23
Q

In relation to NATO colour codes and markings, what does a Brown Band indicate?

A

Low Explosive

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24
Q

In relation to NATO colour codes and markings, what does a White Body indicate?

A

Illumination

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25
In relation to NATO colour codes and markings, what does a Silver or Aluminium Body indicate?
Countermeasures
26
In relation to NATO colour codes and markings, what does a Black Body indicate?
Armour Piercing or Armour Defeating
27
What are the five categories of bombs?
``` HE Incendiary Chemical Agent FAE Practice ```
28
What are the four main categories of submunitions?
Anti Pers Anti Tank Area Denial Runway Cratering
29
What are the four main types of long delay fuzing?
Chemical Material Creep Clockwork Electrical
30
What is the generic wait time for unknown fuzing?
1 hour
31
What is the generic wait time for unknown missiles?
3 hours
32
What is the generic wait time for PTTF/hand grenade?
30 min
33
What additional hazards generally accompany the piezo hazard?
Static/EMR | Movement
34
What three positions can a bomb be fuzed?
Nose Tail Transverse
35
What contents can be used in a carrier projectile?
``` Smoke screening Marking Signalling Illuminating Decoy Radar Chaff Incendiary Anti Pers Propaganda Chemical Agents ```
36
Proximity fuzes may have a graduated setting sleeve. True or False?
True
37
What are the three purposes of pyrotechnics?
Visual Area Tracking
38
The warhead of a rocket contains what two components?
Payload | Fuzing System
39
The booby trap hazard not apply to projectiles and mortars in previously held enemy territory. True or False?
False
40
What is the purpose of the Safety and Arming Device (SAD) on missiles?
Provides safety breaks prior to weapon launch Arms the weapon after launch Links the fuze/fuzes to the warhead
41
What are the mitigations for observing the piezo hazard?
Do not knock, drop, strike, jar or move the UXO If requires movement, move by remote means only Don't conduct any activity IVO EO/UXO that will cause rapid or significant temp change in the fuze Fuze may initiate if moved
42
What hazards should be considered if a chemically coloured gold aluminium plug is fitted to the charging well of an 80 series bomb?
Magnetic | Accoustic/Seismic
43
What are the 25 hazards?
``` HE/Frag Movement Cocked Striker Wait Time Long Delay Clockwork Booby Trap Static/EMR Piezo Proximity Jet Ejection Fuel Fire CG&L Phosphorous Chemical Radiation Magnetic Acoustic/Seismic Pressure Galvanic Flooder Sinker PSE/AR General Contact ```
44
What are the characteristics of MT and MTSQ fuzes?
Multi piece construction May have a time setting/calibration scale Setting Lugs or Slots - SQ Delay setting if an impact element is integral (MTSQ)
45
What are the four main components of a missile?
Warhead Guidance Control Propulsion
46
What are the five methods of anti-withdrawal used on long delay pistol/fuzes?
``` Clawed Foot Offset Grove and Ball Knife Edges Anti Removal Sleeve Electrical Contact ```
47
If the SQ function has been selected on a MTSQ projectile fuze, the clockwork mechanism is disabled and a simple impact or inertia machanism causes initiation. True or False?
True
48
What are six methods of protective works?
``` Trenching Buttressing Venting Walls Surrounds Mounding ```
49
Trenching must be dug to at least 300mm below the installation to be protected. True or False?
False
50
What are the two types of landmines?
Anti Tank | Anti Pers
51
What two conditions must be satisfied before trenching can be used as a means of protection against earth-shock damage?
* Trench to be located outside the probable crater area to be expected should the UXO explode * Trench to be located within the radius for earth-shock damage from the explosion of the UXO
52
Define Blast Overpressure Distance Range (BODR)
The overpressure above the ambient pressure in a blast wave at a given distance from the Potential Explosion SIte (PES).
53
Define Hazardous Fragmentation Distance (HFD)
Minimum 100m. The minimum withdrawal distance for protection from hazardous primary and secondary fragments from PES and the unprotected population and/or traffic density within the ES
54
Define Maximum Fragmentation Distance - Horizontal (MFD-H)
The range to which hazardous primary and secondary fragments from the PES are not expected to travel beyond the ES posing a threat to the personnel exposed in the open.
55
What are the four main methods of operation to time devices with respect to booby traps?
Pyrotechnic Mechanical Electrical Chemical
56
Anti-handling devices are not fitted to anti-personnel mines due to their small size. True or False?
False
57
When calculating the BODR using NEQ, always use the combined NEQ of all items as the total NEQ, excluding donor charges. True or False?
False
58
In the event of an intentional detonation, the minimum distance non-essential personnel exposed in the open can evacuate to is 390m. True or False?
False
59
What are the two types of CW agents?
Toxic | Non Toxic
60
What are the four methods of entry for CW agents?
Inhalation Absorbsion Ingestion Injection
61
HD, L and CX are all types of Blood Agents. True or False?
False
62
Miosis is a symptom of exposure to a Nerve Agent. True or False?
True
63
``` What are the following abbreviations? GA GB GD CG DM AC CK HD L CX ```
``` GA - Tabun GB - Sarin GD - Soman CG - Phosgene DM - Adamsite AC - Hydrogen Cyanide CK - Cyanogen Chloride HD - Distilled Mustard L - Lewisite CX - Phosgene Oxime ```
64
What are the three immediate steps to be taken upon exposure to a Nerve Agent?
Conduct Masking Drill Inject one auto injector Conduct personal decontamination
65
Agent that interferes with the nervous system and thus disrupt essential body functions, such as breathing, muscular coordination and vision.
Nerve
66
Agent that prevents body tissues from using the oxygen in the blood.
Blood
67
Agent that causes inflammation, blistering of the skin and superficial destruction of contaminated internal tissues such as the lining of breathing passages.
Blister
68
Agent that attacks the breathing passages and lungs.
Choking
69
What is the difference between endotoxins and exotoxins?
Endotoxins - Toxin is retained in the cells that produce them Exotoxins - Toxin is secreted by the cells that produce them
70
An S10 respirator provides good protection for carbon monoxide gases. True or False?
False
71
What are the meteorological factors affecting biological agents?
``` Wind speed and direction Inversion conditions - Humidity PH levels in the water Sunlight effects including UV radiation and temperature Other factors (pollution) ```
72
What are the effects of humidity on CW agents?
* Causes precipitation and enlargement of skin pores allowing deeper penetration of liquids * Degrades the protective capabilities of the protective suit * Increases susceptibility of skin to both vapour and aerosols * Hydrolysis turns some agents into harmless substances
73
It is a clear night. Temperature is 32 degrees C at 2m and 28 degrees C at 0.3m. Is the weather better suited for liquid or vapour attack?
Vapour attack. Temperature gradient is greater than +2 degrees, therefore an inversion)
74
What is worn/carried when adopting MOPP2?
Worn - CBRN suit and boots | Carried - Respirator and gloves
75
What are the four principles of contamination control?
Avoidance of contamination Limit the spread Weathering Decontamination
76
What are the operational lifes of the following? MK4 NBC suit in non-contaminated environment MK4 NBC suit in mustard contaminated environment MK4 suit in other agent contaminated environment Overboots in a gross liquid contaminated environment Gloves in gross liquid contaminated environment Gloves if decontaminated within 15 min
MK4 NBC suit in non-contaminated environment - 30 days MK4 NBC suit in mustard contaminated environment - 6 hrs MK4 suit in other agent contaminated environment - 24 hrs Overboots in a gross liquid contaminated environment - 3 hrs Gloves in gross liquid contaminated environment - 3 hrs Gloves if decontaminated within 15 min - 10 hrs
77
When mixing HTH, the chemical is poured into a suitable container and water is then added. True or False?
False
78
What is a hazard to beware of when mixing STB with liquid blister agent?
Fire
79
What are the four levels of decontamination?
Immediate, Operational, Thorough, Final
80
What are the five methods of decontamination?
Weathering Flush/removal Burning Covering & Neutralisation
81
Define Inversion
Occurs when the air nearer to the ground is cooler or the 2m level temperature is greater by more than 2 degrees Celsius than that at 0.3m level.
82
Define Neutral
This condition involves a nearly constant temperature with increase in altitude
83
Define Lapse
Occurs when the temperature at the 0.3m level is higher by 2 degrees Celsius or more than the 2m level or the air nearer the ground is warmer.
84
What is the four step decon process?
Decontamination Wait Rinse Check
85
What is one agent that M8 paper can be used to detect?
G & V Nerve Agents
86
If a piece of M8 paper turned yellow, what CW agent would that indicate?
G Nerve Agent
87
What is the IEDD Philosophy in order of priority?
Save life Preserve property Return to normality Preserve/collect forensic evidence
88
Command initiated IED systems are broken down into two main groups, what are they?
Linked | Separated
89
List the types of VOIEDs
``` Pull/Trip Pressure Pressure Release Movement Sensitive Light Sensitive PIR AIR Other Electronic ```
90
What are the four types of Timed Initiated IEDs?
Igniferous Chemical Mechanical Electronic
91
A hoax IED incident is reported in good faith to be a suspect IED that upon full investigation proves to be totally innocuous. True or False?
False
92
What three factors/considerations does the Threat Triad consist of?
Aim Type Location
93
What is the intent of the ADF IEDD Doctrine?
To maintain a very low rate of IEDD casualties despite the ever growing threat.
94
An IEDDO can, whenever he sees fit, choose not to wear the bomb suit without requesting approval from EODCC. True or False?
False
95
Define Hoax
The discovery of a simulated IED or object deliberately placed to cause disruption.
96
Define False Report
An object reported in good faith to be suspected IED that upon investigation proves to be innocuous.
97
Define Find
The discovery of explosives, weapons, ammo, tools, inert components or radio transmission equipment attributed to IED facilitators.
98
During IED operations, when does a NOTAM need to be implemented?
Whenever a positive action is carried out.
99
Targeting of EOD technicians and a high incidence of RCIED requiring ECM employment are 2 reasons that determine a High Threat theatre. What are four others?
VBIEDs VOIEDs Secondary Devices Come Ons show capability, intent and opportunity

Precourse EOD (1 decks)

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