Flashcards in Questions I got WRONG (1) Deck (327):
Decreased hematocrit and Elevated Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)
Elevation of BOTH methylmalonic acid AND homocysteine is most likely a _______ deficiency.
Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)
Elevation of ONLY homocysteine and NOT methylmalonic acid is most likely a ______ deficiency.
Which two deficient molecules can cause a macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils?
1. Cobalamin (Vitamin B12)
Which interval will Diltiazem affect?
PR Interval by inhibiting voltage-dependent Ca2+ channels and PROLONGING the rate of recovery
Which receptors will Pilocarpine stimulate?
M1, M2, M3
What is the function of M3 cells on Salivary and Lacrimal glands?
INCREASE secretion (useful in Sjorgen's Syndrome)
M3 receptors will activate ________ which will cause an increase in ________.
Relationship betwen Dissociation Constant (K) and Affinity
INVERSE (when you increase Affinity, you will decrease K)
"Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA), thrombocytopenia, neurologic and renal abnormalities and fever"
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Cause of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)
Deficiency in METALLOPROTEASE
In ACQUIRED TTP, autoantibodies are targeted against _____ .
Rickettsia species that spreads the rash OUTWARD
Rickettsia species that spreads the rash INWARD
"Dyspnea on exertion, fatigue, low-volume carotid pulses, and a crescendo-decresendo systolic heart murmur"
Most common cause of Aortic Stenosis in the Elderly Population
Calcification of the valve cusps from proliferative and inflammatory changes
Proximal muscle weakness, often manifesting as difficulty walking up stairs or rising from a chair, is an early sign of _______ .
Differentiate between onset of Type 1 and Type 2 Myotonic Dystrophy
Type 1 --> Childhood / young adulthood
Type 2 --> Develops later in life
Type-2 myotonic dystrophy is associated with ______ within the ______ gene.
Nucleotide repeat expansion (CTG)
Other presentations that are simultaneous with TYPE-2 myotonic dystrophy
2. Mild Glucose Intolerance
3. Normal Mental Function
Formation of intimal fibrous plaques that often have a central core rich in lipid
Atherosclerosis likes to interfere with which arteries?
Congenital infection that results in deafness, PDA, Pulmonary Artery Stenossi, Cataracts and microcephaly
Congenital Rubella (German Measles)
MOA of Vincristine and Vinblastine
Inhibit Microtubule FORMATION
MOA of Paclitaxel
Prevents Microtubule DISASSEMBLY
Mechanism of resistance against Paclitaxel
Mutations in B-tubulin
Mechanism of resistance against Doxorubicin
Mutations in p53 gene
Mechanism of resistance against Etoposide
Mutations in topoisomerase II
"nonsclerotic and sharply defined border" of a 30 yo female pt with severe knee pain and a tender effusion of the knee
Giant Cell Tumor
Soap bubble lesions at the epiphyses of long bones
Giant Cell Tumor
What happens to the diffusion capacity for carbon monoxide in Pts with COPD?
(Decreased ability of lungs to exchange gases from the alveolar sacs to the pulmonary capillaries)
Function of Golgi Apparatus
Adds oligosaccharides to Proteins AND LIPIDS
Rapid eye movements, posture, and balance (part of cerebellum)
_______ degeneration presents with truncal ataxia (part of cerebellum)
Fine movements of the hands and face, motor planning, coordination of complex tasks (part of cerebellum)
Flank pain that radiates to the inner thigh and scrotum, which is accompanied by dysuria, nausia and hematuria
Nephrolithiasis (Urinary Tract Stones)
How do FAT-soluble vitamins enter the blood stream?
Fat soluble vitamins first enter the lacteals in the intestinal epithelium and then travel to the thoracic duct where they enter the bloodstream
Which molecule can cross via simple diffusion?
Free Fatty Acids
Genetic Inheritance of Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Genetic Inheritance of Glucose-6-phosphate Dehydrogenase
Which amino acids are elevated in Maple Syrup Urine disease?
Most common presenting symptom of Maple Syrup Urine disease?
Enzyme defect in Maple Syrup Urine disease?
Glucose 6 Phosphate Dehydrogenase deficiency
Increased "Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration" (MCHC)
Mutation in the factor V gene (factor V leiden) can lead to _____ .
Which protein normally inactivates Factor 5?
Anti-NEUTRPHIL Cytoplasmic Ab
Type of bacteria that Vancomycin is EFFECTIVE at fighting
Gram + bacteria
Describe how resistance to Vancomycin is developed
Vancomycin normally binds to Terminal D-ala D-ala sequences and prevents cell wall synthesis
Resistance develops when you have a mutation that converts the Terminal sequence to "D-ala D-lac"
Positive Niklosky's Sign
Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome
In Scalded Skin syndrome, exotoxins release a molecule that disrupts the function of which intercellular structure?
Exotoxins release DESMOGLEIN-1
Calculation for Positive Predictive Value
PPV = True Positives / (TP + False Positives)
Positive Predictive Value depends on which variable?
Type of Epithelium that lines the Epididymis
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with STEREOCILIA
High levels of IgM + Predominance of plasma cells in the bone marrow biopsy specimen
Which chromosome is BRCA 1 on?
Which chromosome is BRCA 2 on?
Which chromosome is APC gene on?
Which chromosome is NF-2 on?
Which chromosome is NF-1 on?
Which chromosome are DCC and DPC (pancreatic cancer) genes on?
Which chromosome is the VHL gene on?
Which chromosome is WT1 on?
"Egg on a String" appearance of the fetal heart is associated with ______ .
Failure of aorticopulmonary septum to spiral
Increased Lactate Dehydrogenase, Elevated Bilirubin, decreased Haptoglobin and POSITIVE COOMBS test
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)
"Hexagonal" shaped microscopic crystal
Cause of Pts with "Hexagonal" shaped microscopic crystal on UA
Defect in Amino Acid REABSORPTION in the PCT
(Leads to wasting of lysine, arginine, CYSTINE and ornithine)
"Drowsiness, unsteady gait, enlarged liver, nystagmus" most likely symptom presentation
Essential Cofactor for "pyruvate dehydrogenase"
Lab values in a Patient with Vitamin B1 deficiency due to Alcohol Intoxication (2)
1. Elevated LACTATE
2. Low pH (lactic acidosis)
Structure that lies near the lesser curvature of the stomach
Which ligament is part of the Omental foramen near the lesser curvature of the stomach?
Which three structures are within the Hepatoduodenal Ligament?
1. Common Bile Duct
2. Hepatic Artery Proper
3. Hepatic Portal Vein
What is the fusion gene (2) indicative of Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?
Which chromosomes do BCR and ABL come from?
BCR (9) - ABL (22)
DIC + Abundant Auer Rods
M3 variant of AML called "Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)"
Chromosome translocation that is associated with Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)
Which cell is necessary to ABSORB Vitamin B12 in the ileum and what molecule does it make?!
Parietal Cells (Intrinsic Factor)
Which foods/drinks have "Tyramine" in them? (3)
1. Aged Cheese
3. Red Wine
If you are taking a Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI) and you are consuming Tyramine-containing products, what are you at risk for?
Two cancers that can cause hemorrhage into intracranial metastasis
1. Renal Cell Carcinoma
"Leukocytosis (elevated) + Anemia + Thrombocytopenia" strongly suggest a Dx of ________ .
Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)
Effective Treatment for CML
Causes of hypoalbuminemia (5)
1. Chronic Liver Disease
2. Nephrotic Syndrome
"Haloperidol" drug class
How and when are contraction bands formed after a MI?
Hypercontraction of the sarcomeres due to a massive calcium influx
Form with the FIRST 12 hours
Ursodeoxycholic Acid is used to treat ________ .
Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
First-line treatment of Chronic Hepatitis B infection
Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate
Drug: "Inhibits viral DNA polymerase by acting as a dGTP analogue"
Adverse Side Effects of Gangciclovir (2)
2. Renal Toxicity
Which neoplasm is MOST associated with Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)?
Newborn: "Jaundice + Lethargy + Elevated Unconjugated Bilirubin + fatal within 18 months of birth"
Crigler-Najjar sydrome Type 1
Which enzyme is defective in Crigler-Najjar sydrome Type 1?
Uridine diphosphate-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT1)
Drug that you can use to treat Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma that is cell cycle NON-SPECIFIC
MOA of Cyclophosphamide
Alkylating agent that covalently bonds to DNA at guanuine N-7
Explain the SIRS (Septic Inflammatory Response Syndrome) criteria
Two or more of the following criteria are met:
1. Temperature MORE than 38 C (100.4 F) or LESS than 36 C (96.8 F)
2. Heart rate MORE than 90/min
3. Respiratory rate of more than 20/min or arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) of LESS than 32 mmHg
4. Abnormal WBC count (MORE than 12,000/ML or LESS than 4,000 M/l or MORE than 10% immature [band] forms
Cell that is present with "microangiopathic hemolytic anemia"
Manifestation of Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Diffuse alveolar damage that leads to increased alveolar capillary permeability
Classic Pentad for Thombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
1. CNS manifestations
2. Renal Insufficiency
5. Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia (MAHA)
"von Willebrand factor protease"
Deficiency in _______ (enzyme), which is required to digest fructose, causes vomiting, lethargy, and jaundice after consumption of fructose and sucrose
Deficiency in _______ (enzyme) is a benign condition characterized by ASYMPTOMATIC fructosemia and fructosuria
Enzyme defective in Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)
a-keto acid dehydrogenase
Which amino acids (3) should you restrict in a Pt that has Maple Syrup Urine Disease?
Autoantibody that is present in patients with Rheumatoid Arthritis
anti-CCP (Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide)
Medication to prevent Hemorrhagic Cystitis when taking Cyclophosphamide
MOA of Mensa
Binds to cyclophosphamide metabolites in the urine and neutralizes them
Type of Lung cancer that is involved in SIADH
Small Cell Lung Cancer
The alpha subunit of B-hCG is most similar to which three hormones?
Which malformation is associated with displacement of the Cerebellar Tonsils below the level of the foramen magnum
Chiari I Malformation
Chiari I Malformation is associated with which brain lesion?
How to calculate "Steady State Concentration"
Steady State Concentration = Infusion Rate / Clearance
First-line treatment for community-acquired pneumonia with extra risk factors that require hospitalization
1. Macrolide + 3rd generation cephalosporin
2. Respiratory Fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin or moxifloxacin)
MOA of Benzathine penicillin G
Interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis by attaching to penicillin-binding protens, or transpeptidases, and blocking cross-linking of the cell wall
Indication for Benzathin Penicillin G
Painless chancre from Syphilis
MOA of Risperidone
1. Dopamine (D1 and D2) antagonist
2. 5-HT2 antagonist
3. a-adrenergic antagonist (alpha-1)
"Subacute inflammatory myopathy that upon muscle biopsy shows infiltrates of CD8+ T-lymphocytes and macrophages"
"Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain radiating to his upper back and left shoulder, Elevated Lipase and experiences mild RELIEF when LEANING forward"
Acute Pancreatitis often presents with what type of electrolyte imbalance?
Most common cause of Primary Glomerulonephritis
Bergers Disease (IgA Nephropathy)
Presentation of IgA Nephropathy
Mesangial Deposits of IgA
Time line for presentation of IgA Nephropathy
Hematuria at the SAME TIME as the URI
Time line for presentation of Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
Hematuria occurs 3-6 weeks after infection
Which bacteria presents with small lytic lesions in the distal metaphysis of the tibia with periosteal reaction? What is this reaction called?
Pt that presents with pneumonia that is unresponsive to Abs (Ceftriaxone) will most likely respond to which Ab? Why type of Pneumonia is that considered?
Which system can involve a neoplasm that can cause Horner Syndrome?
Explain how and the name lung cancers can cause Horner syndrome
They grow into the THORACIC inlet and they compress on the SYMPATHETIC CHAIN
Indications for 6-Mercaptopurine use
Patients who have undergone kidney transplant and for patients with autoimmune disorders such as glomerulonephritis and rheumatoid arthritis
Prodrug form of 6-Mercaptopurine
"Relative Risk" equation
RR = Probability (exposed) / Probability (control)
Alcohol's effect during pregnancy to the baby
Inhibition of Cell migration
Accumulation of Peroxides and free radicals are evident in a deficiency of which enzyme?
1. Colon Cancer
2. Wet Age-related Macular Degeneration
Chronic Granulomatous Disease is characterized by an increase susceptibility to infections by ___________________ organisms.
Enzyme that is deficient in Chronic Granulomatous Disease
Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate (NADP) Oxidase
Function of Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate Oxidase
O2 --> O2- (superoxide oxygen radical)
Which white blood cell depends on Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate Oxidase for killing?
"Presence of greater than or equal to 6 cafe-au-lait spots of at least 5 mm in diameter in pre-pubertal children"
Neurofibromatosis Type 1
"Bilateral vestibular schwannomas"
Neurofibromatosis Type 2
BILATERAL deficits in:
1. Pain and Temperature
2. Voluntary Motor Control
3. Autonomic Motor Control
Hypoperfusion of the Anterior Spinal Artery (anterior cord syndrome)
Kid has an EMERGENT situation and Child's parents refuse blood transfusions on the grounds that they are Jehovah's Witnesses, what do you do?
Take the child to surgery and provide blood transfusions as medically indicated
(Parents cannot with hold blood in emergent situations)
"Dermatomal vesicular eruption" (pathogen)
Varicella-zoster Virus (VZV)
ACE Inhibitors activate which "G-subunit" on vascular smooth muscle cells?
Decreases activity of Phospholipase C (vasodilation)
"anti-Hu and anti-Yo" antibodies
Small Cell Lung Cancer
MOA of Etoposide
Stabilization of topoisomerase II-DNA complex which results in the induction of double-stranded DNA breaks
High levels of ammonia will DEPLETE _______ and INCREASE levels of ________ .
Adverse side effect of Aspirin can present with _______ .
Iron granules in SIDEROBLASTIC anemia
Cause of "Hypersegmented Neutrophils"
Folate or Vitamin B12 Deficiency
"Apple-Core Lesion" on barium CT of abdomen suggests
Tumor in the Colon
List the 3 paraneoplastic syndromes that are associated with Small Cell Lung Carcinoma
3. Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
Explain Lambert Eaton-Syndrome
Production of Antibodies against presynaptic CALCIUM channels at the neuromuscular junction
Symptoms get better through out the DAY
Which type of fracture should increase your index of suspicion in children for child abuse?
Which phase of meiosis is the Ovum in after it is released from the ovary?
Which phase of meiosis is the Ovum in from birth to ovulation?
High or Low frequency of sound is heard by the PROXIMAL hair cells of the organ of Corti?
"Nonpurposeful facial grimaces, including TONGUE protrusion"
Which class of drugs may lead to Tardive Dyskinesia?
Typical Antipsychotics (blockage of D2 dopamine receptors)
Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve comes from which Pharyngeal Arch?
External Branch of the Superior Laryngeal Nerve comes from which Pharyngeal Arch?
(Mild Horseness and trouble with HIGH pitches)
Bullous Pemphigoid is caused by an autoimmune attack against _______ which normally occurs in the elderly.
MOA of Tacrolimus
Calcineurin inhibitor that binds to FK-binding protein (FKBP) in the cytoplasm and it decreases the transcription of IL-2
Which tumor is the most common source of liver metastases?
Excessive vomiting will result in which acid/base disturbance?
Which disease presents with early onset Emphysema?
Alpha1-antitrypsin (ATT) Deficiency
Presence of schistocytes indicates _______ .
Mechanical Trauma to the RBCs
"Affect individuals are unable to undergo endochondral ossification"
Gene mutation and Genetic inheritance of Achondroplasia
Describe how much HCO3- will rise when a patient is experiencing ACUTE respiratory acidosis
HCO3- will typically rise 1 mEq/L for each 10 mm Hg rise in PaCO2
"Mood Syndrome characterized by alternating periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms. Symptoms must be present for at least 2 years to diagnose this disorder, and the patient must never be symptom free for more than 2 months during those 2 years"
Active form of PREDNISONE
(Converted by 11 B-Hydroxysteroid Dehydrogenase)
Bone disorder that is found in malnourished adults with vitamin D and calcium deficiencies
"Areas of increased unmineralized osteoid adjacent to normal trabeculae."
Histologic Appearance of Osteomalacia
"Severe, sudden-onset, diffuse abdominal pain, neuropathy, diaphoresis and tachycardia in the setting of poor dietary intake"
Acute Intermittent Porphyria (AIP)
(Think of wrestlers trying to make weight)
Enzyme mutation and Genetic inheritance of Acute Intermittent Porphyria (AIP)
Lack of Porphobilinogen Deaminase
Formula for determining the 1/2 of a drug
T1/2 = (0.7 * volume of distribution) / (Clearance)
How many 1/2 lives does a drug require to reach its steady state which it is being infused at a constant rate?
4 - 5 Half Lives
Tx for Acute Gastritis
NSAID (inhibiting both COX-1 and -2)
Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) - 1 have a recessive mutation in which enzyme?
First line-Tx for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy
Second Line Tx for BPH
5a-reductase inhibitor (finasteride)
Most common side-effect for 5a-reductase inhibitors
Function of "Neurophysin I"
Essential for the transport of Oxytocin from the Paraventricular Nucleus to the breast ducts.
Side effect of Cyclosporin
(can exacerbate pre-existing renal problems)
"Negative Nitroblue Tetrazolium Dye reduction test"
Abnormal NADPH oxidase activity (indicating Chronic Granulomatous Disease)
"Female Pt presents with a 2-month history of cough, Non-smoker, a 15-lb unintentional weight loss, and a single 2-cm opacity located in the peripheral side of the CXR."
Adenocarcinoma of the Lung
"Tingling of the Lips" after a thyroidectomy
"Antinuclear and Antihistone" abs are seen in which condition?
"Anti-dsDNA" abs are seen in which condition?
Systemic Lupus Erythmatous
"History of choking, cough, shortness of breath, and wheezing in a child that has no history of asthma" raises the suspicion for ______________________ .
Foreign Body Aspiration
Lab levels for Pagets Disease
Normal Ca2+, Normal Phosphate, ELEVATED Alkaline Phosphatase
Protease inhibitor used for HIV therapy
Adverse Side Effect of Indinavir
Which (2) proteins are lacking/nonfunctional in Hereditary Spherocytosis?
"Tumors found at the cerebellopontine angle, and stain positive for S100 protein"
Bilateral acoustic neuroma
"Bilateral Acoustic Neuromas"
Even if you have a HIGH sensitivity and a HIGH specificity, what might make you think that the Positive Predictive Value is actually going to be low?
Changes to Thyroid Metabolism levels in Pregnancy
1. Increased Thyroxine-Binding Globulin (TBG)
2. Increase in TOTAL T4
3. Normal Free T4
Pts with down syndrome have an accelerated course of which disease?
Hereditary Fructose Intolerance is caused by a deficiency in ________ .
Metabolic changes that occur in Pts with Hereditary Fructose Intolerance after ingestion of fruit
3. Lactic Acidosis
Which drug class is Nortriptyline?
MOA of Tricyclic antidepressants
Inhibit the reuptake of Norepinephrine and Serotonin
Most common defense mechanism in Borderline Personality disorder
What must the hormone-receptor complex do before binding to DNA in the nucleus?
Undergo a Conformational change
Which value will decrease in BOTH Obstructive and Restrictive Pulmonary Function Test?
MOA of Etanercept
Etanercept can exacerbate which disease?
"Multisystem noncaseating granulomas and hypercalciuria secondary to macrophage-mediated conversion of vitamin D to its active form"
Race associated with Sarcoidosis
"Lymphocytes with multiple long cytoplasmic projections"
Hairy Cell Leukemia
Causes of Eosinophilia
Collagen vascular disease
Pentad in TTP
3. Microangiopathic Hemolysis
4. Neurologic Symptoms
5. Renal Insufficiency
Tx for Auditory Hallucinations in pts with schizophrenia
What does breathing through pursed lips do in pts with Emphysema?
Decreases the pressure gradient between the alveoli and the lungs, allowing for enough pressure in small airways to keep them open
Typical causes (2) of obstruction of the appendiceal lumen in Appendicitis
1. Lymhpoid Hyperplasia
2. Fecalith impaction leading to obstruction
What is located in the "left inferior frontal gyrus"?
Which Glycogen Storage Disease is caused by a deficiency in a-1,4-glucosidase?
Pompe Disease (Type 2 GSD)
Typical cause of death in Pompe Disease
Which anticoagulant is administered SUBCUTANEOUSLY and does not require laboratory monitoring?
Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin (LMWH)
Describe the 4 stages of Paget Disease
1. Initial Osteolytic lesion involving marked bone resorption
2. Mixed period of disorganized bone formation
3. Osteoblastic-induced sclerosis
4. Osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity is minimal
Describe the elevated leves in Paget Disease
1. Elevated Alkaline Phosphatase
2. NORMAL phosphate
Drug that reduces hepatic triglyceride and VLDL synthesis, while increasing HDL levels
Which cell secretes mullerian-inhibiting factor during normal development?
Cancers associated with Rb mutations (3)
1. Bilateral retinoblastoma
3. Bladder Carcinoma
Which anti-bodies are detected in Syphilis?
Where is Cardiolipin located in the cell?
Inner Mitochondrial Membrane
Cofactor required for Cystathionine synthase
Vitamin B6 (pyroxidine)
"Pts with ______ personality disorder are sensitive to rejection and are socially inhibited and timid."
Drug that inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, leading to an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and increased myocardial contractility
Which cells secrete Somatostatin where are they located?
Location and product of "I Cells"
Duodenum and Jejunum
Function of Cholecystokinin (3)
1. Gallbladder contraction
2. Pancreatic enzyme secretion
3. Sphincter of Oddi relaxation
Location and product of "K Cells"
Duodenum and Jejunum
Gastric Inhibitory Peptide
Function of Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (2)
1. Decrease Gastric Acid Production
2. Increase Insulin release
Location and product of "S Cells"
Function of Secretin (2)
1. Inhibits Gastric Acid secretion
2. Stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas
Which Branchial Arch: "M" muscles of Mastication (teMporalis, Massester, Medial and lateral pterygoids) and the Mylohyoid; as well as the tensor veli palatini and tensor tympani
1st Branchial Arch
Which Branchial Arch: "S" muscles: Stapedius, Stylohyoid, and facial expression muscles
Derivatives of which Pouch: Thymus (ventral wings) and inferior parathyroid glands
3rd Branchial Pouch
Derivatives of which pouch: Superior Parathyroids
4th Branchial Pouch
Enzyme deficiency in Tay-Sachs Disease
(Ganglioside M2 --> Ganglioside M3)
Enzyme deficiency in Fabry Disease
(Ceramide trihexoside --> Lactosyl cerebroside)
Enzyme deficiency in Krabbe disease
(Galactocerebroside --> cerebroside)
Enzyme deficiency in Niemann-Pick Disease
(Sphingomyelin --> Cerebroside)
Enzyme deficiency in Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
(Sulfatide --> Galactocerebroside)
Pancreatic cancer most commonly occurs in the ______, which arises from the ______ .
Ventral Pancreatic Bud
("Vertical" Nystagmus is Pathogneumonic)
If you see "Restricted Joint Movement" and "Coarse Facial Features" in a little kiddo, what disease are you going to think of?
"CXR that shows a large hilar mass with cavitation in a smoker"
Squamous Cell Carcinoma of of the Lungs
Squamous Cell Carcinoma of of the Lungs is associated with overproduction of __________ .
(Leading to Hypercalcemia)
"Salmeterol" and its adverse side effects (2)
Long-acting B2 agonist (used for asthma prophylaxis)
Does "Griseofulvin" inhibit or activate CYP450?
"Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin and a leftward shift" is associated with ______ .
"Almond Breath" odor
"Sodim Thiosulfate and Amyl Nitrite" is used to treat _____ .
Which enzyme in the electron transport chain does Cyanide bind to?
Cytochrome C Oxidase (Complex IV)
Which metabolic disturbance does Cyanide Poisoning lead to?
Metabolic Acidosis with Anion GAP
(Inhibiting Aerobic Metabolism will lead to Anaerobic Metabolism because there is no O2 available)
Most effective treatment for "Refractory (treatment-resistant) schizophrenia"
Which ribosomal subunit does Clindamycin bind to?
Describe "Tumor Lysis Syndrome"
Lysis of tumor cells following chemotherapy results in the release of potassium, uric acid, and phosphorous
How do you treat Tumor Lysis Syndrome?
1. Aggressive Intravenous Hydration
When would you use "Colchicine"?
Acute Gout Flares
Function of 2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (2,3)-BPG
Binds B-chains in the hemoglobin molecule and INCREASES hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen
Which way would the Hemoglobin-O2 curve go: Mutated 2,3-BPG
Which way would the Hemoglobin-O2 curve go: Increase in Body Temperature
Which way would the Hemoglobin-O2 curve go: Increase in oxygen release in response to pulmonary stress
Which way would the Hemoglobin-O2 curve go: Decrease in pH caused by hypoventilation
Which enzyme is involved in the rate limiting step of glycolysis?
Which molecule is involved in regulating the rate limiting step of glycolysis?
Citrate (from the Citric Acid Cycle)
It will INHIBIT PFK
Defect in SOD1 gene
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
Increased amyloid B-peptides
Alzheimer disease (AD)
Aggregated tau proteins
a-Synuclein intracellular inclusion bodies
Parkinson Disease (PD)
Which lobes in the brain does Pick Disease affect?
Most common cause of bronchiolitis for infants and young children <5 yo
Repsiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
Pathogenesis of RSV
Surface Protein F
(Causes nearby cells to merge and induce the characteristic syncytial appearance in pathology)
Which bug: "Release of oxygen radicals that causes epithelial necrosis within the lung"
Which type of lung disease is Goodpasture Syndrome?
Restrictive Lung Disease ( >80% FEV1:FVC ratio)
Young man that does not drink and has no history of gallstones presents with "Milky White" blood
Familial Hyperchylomicronemia (Type I dyslipidemia)
Enzyme defect associated with Familial Hyperchylomicronemia
Lipoprotein Lipase Deficiency
Which type of dyslipidemia is associated with apolipoprotein E mutations?
Which type of dyslipidemia is associated with LDL cholesterol receptor mutations?
Which type of dyslipidemia is associated with decreased Apolipoprotein CII levels?
Type I (very rare)
Hyperventilation and LOW bicarbonate level, combined with disorientation and legarthy, are characteristic of _________ poisoning.
Salicylate (too many NSAIDs)
Defective BRCA1 mutations (4)
1. Breast Cancer
2. Ovarian Cancer
3. Prostate Cancer
4. Colon Cancer
Defective BRCA2 mutations (2)
1. Breast Cancer
2. Pancreatic Cancer
Defective Nonhomologous end joining
Defective DNA Mismatch Repair
Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer
1. Soft Tissue Cancer
2. Breast Cancer
3. Brain Cancer
4. Adrenal Gland Cancer
Defective Nucleotide Excision Repair
Which vitamin can become deficient after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, especially cephalosporins?
Which Bug: "Granulomas in the lungs with a negative PPD test and spherules with interior endospores"
Which hormone is responsible for a slightly elevated body temperature (1 F) during the menstrual cycle?
Where and how is the majority of CO2 transported throughout the body?
Transported in the PLASMA
via Bicarbonate (HCO3-)
"Respiratory Alkalosis and Metabolic Acidosis with a HIGH anion gap"
pH levels in the urine that are going to increase the risk of Aspirin overdose
ACIDIC (low pH)
Tx of Aspirin overdose
(make the urine more alkaline)
Massive hemolysis can cause ______ which will show up as _______ on ECG.
Ventilator-associated Pneumonia is most commonly associated with _____ .
(Leads to a downstream effect of inhibiting T-lymphocyte signaling)
*Metabolized by P-450 enzyme 3A*
Hypersensitivity Rxn associated with Poison Ivy.
(Reaction occurs only if an individual has a prior exposure to the antigen)
"Omega Loop" Sign
Classic radiographic finding of sigmoid volvulus
Small Bowel Obstruction
Risk Factor for developing a Small Bowel Obstruction
Cholethiasis due to developing Gallstone ileus
The 3rd aortic arch gives rise to _______ (2)
1. Common Carotids
2. Proximal Part of the Internal Carotids
What happens to the fifth aortic arch?
The 1st aortic arch gives rise to _______ .
The 2nd aortic arch gives rise to _______ . (2)
1. Stapedial Artery
2. Hyoid Artery
The 4th aortic arch gives rise to ______ (2)
1. Ascending arch of aorta (On the left)
2. Proximal part of the RIGHT subclavian artery
The 6th aortic arch gives rise to _____ . (2)
1. Proximal parts of the Pulmonary Arteries
2. Ductus Arteriosus (On the Left)
Tx of Pneumonia from Klebsiella
(Responds well to gram negative rods)
Coarctation of the aorta can commonly lead to _____ .
Ascending Aorta Dissection
Granulomatous disease characterized by headaches and blindness secondary to inflammation of the posterior ciliary and ophthalmuc arteries (branches of the internal carotid).
Giant Cell (temporal) arteritis
Arterial stenosis of at least _____ %, can cause stable angina
Which molecule is required for the development of the penis and scrotum during embryogenesis?
What is the deficiency?: Pt is born phenotypically female which an Clitoromegaly. During puberty the pt starts to develop male genitalia.
5-a reductase Deficiency
(Normal levels of testosterone, estrogen, and LH)
Electroyte abnormality caused by Digoxin
Skin manifestation associated with Sarcoidosis
Which antibiotic is highly associated with Aplastic Anemia?