Questions I got WRONG (1) Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Questions I got WRONG (1) Deck (327):
1

Decreased hematocrit and Elevated Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)

Megaloblastic anemia

2

Elevation of BOTH methylmalonic acid AND homocysteine is most likely a _______ deficiency.

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)

3

Elevation of ONLY homocysteine and NOT methylmalonic acid is most likely a ______ deficiency.

Folate deficiency

4

Which two deficient molecules can cause a macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils?

1. Cobalamin (Vitamin B12)

2. Folate

5

Which interval will Diltiazem affect?

PR Interval by inhibiting voltage-dependent Ca2+ channels and PROLONGING the rate of recovery

6

Which receptors will Pilocarpine stimulate?

M1, M2, M3

7

What is the function of M3 cells on Salivary and Lacrimal glands?

INCREASE secretion (useful in Sjorgen's Syndrome)

8

M3 receptors will activate ________ which will cause an increase in ________.

Phospholipase C

Intracellular Ca2+

9

Relationship betwen Dissociation Constant (K) and Affinity

INVERSE (when you increase Affinity, you will decrease K)

10

"Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA), thrombocytopenia, neurologic and renal abnormalities and fever"

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

11

Cause of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)

Deficiency in METALLOPROTEASE

12

In ACQUIRED TTP, autoantibodies are targeted against _____ .

ADAMTS13 (metalloprotease)

13

Rickettsia species that spreads the rash OUTWARD

Rickettsia Typhi

14

Rickettsia species that spreads the rash INWARD

Rickettsia Rickettsia

15

"Dyspnea on exertion, fatigue, low-volume carotid pulses, and a crescendo-decresendo systolic heart murmur"

Aortic Stenosis

16

Most common cause of Aortic Stenosis in the Elderly Population

Calcification of the valve cusps from proliferative and inflammatory changes

17

Proximal muscle weakness, often manifesting as difficulty walking up stairs or rising from a chair, is an early sign of _______ .

Myotonic Dystrophy

18

Differentiate between onset of Type 1 and Type 2 Myotonic Dystrophy

Type 1 --> Childhood / young adulthood

Type 2 --> Develops later in life

19

Type-2 myotonic dystrophy is associated with ______ within the ______ gene.

Nucleotide repeat expansion (CTG)

CNBP Gene

20

Other presentations that are simultaneous with TYPE-2 myotonic dystrophy

1. Cataracts

2. Mild Glucose Intolerance

3. Normal Mental Function

21

Formation of intimal fibrous plaques that often have a central core rich in lipid

Atherosclerosis

22

Atherosclerosis likes to interfere with which arteries?

Coronary

23

Congenital infection that results in deafness, PDA, Pulmonary Artery Stenossi, Cataracts and microcephaly

Congenital Rubella (German Measles)

24

MOA of Vincristine and Vinblastine

Inhibit Microtubule FORMATION

25

MOA of Paclitaxel

Prevents Microtubule DISASSEMBLY

26

Mechanism of resistance against Paclitaxel

Mutations in B-tubulin

27

Mechanism of resistance against Doxorubicin

Mutations in p53 gene

28

Mechanism of resistance against Etoposide

Mutations in topoisomerase II

29

"nonsclerotic and sharply defined border" of a 30 yo female pt with severe knee pain and a tender effusion of the knee

Giant Cell Tumor

30

Soap bubble lesions at the epiphyses of long bones

Giant Cell Tumor

31

What happens to the diffusion capacity for carbon monoxide in Pts with COPD?

DECREASES

(Decreased ability of lungs to exchange gases from the alveolar sacs to the pulmonary capillaries)

32

Function of Golgi Apparatus

Adds oligosaccharides to Proteins AND LIPIDS

33

Rapid eye movements, posture, and balance (part of cerebellum)

Vestibulocerebellum

34

_______ degeneration presents with truncal ataxia (part of cerebellum)

Spincerebellar

35

Fine movements of the hands and face, motor planning, coordination of complex tasks (part of cerebellum)

Cerebrocerebellum

36

Flank pain that radiates to the inner thigh and scrotum, which is accompanied by dysuria, nausia and hematuria

Nephrolithiasis (Urinary Tract Stones)

37

How do FAT-soluble vitamins enter the blood stream?

Thoracic Duct!

KADE

Fat soluble vitamins first enter the lacteals in the intestinal epithelium and then travel to the thoracic duct where they enter the bloodstream

38

Which molecule can cross via simple diffusion?

Free Fatty Acids

39

Genetic Inheritance of Duchenne muscular dystrophy

X-linked recessive

40

Genetic Inheritance of Glucose-6-phosphate Dehydrogenase

X-linked recessive

41

Which amino acids are elevated in Maple Syrup Urine disease?

1. Leucine

2. Isoleucine

3. Valine

(BCAA)

42

Most common presenting symptom of Maple Syrup Urine disease?

Dystonia

43

Enzyme defect in Maple Syrup Urine disease?

a-ketoacid dehydrogenase

44

"Heinz Bodies"

Glucose 6 Phosphate Dehydrogenase deficiency

45

Increased "Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration" (MCHC)

Spherocytes

46

Mutation in the factor V gene (factor V leiden) can lead to _____ .

Pulmonary Embolisms

47

Which protein normally inactivates Factor 5?

Protein C

48

"ANCA"

Anti-NEUTRPHIL Cytoplasmic Ab

49

Type of bacteria that Vancomycin is EFFECTIVE at fighting

Gram + bacteria

50

Describe how resistance to Vancomycin is developed

Vancomycin normally binds to Terminal D-ala D-ala sequences and prevents cell wall synthesis

Resistance develops when you have a mutation that converts the Terminal sequence to "D-ala D-lac"

51

Positive Niklosky's Sign

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome

52

In Scalded Skin syndrome, exotoxins release a molecule that disrupts the function of which intercellular structure?

Desmosomes

Exotoxins release DESMOGLEIN-1

53

Calculation for Positive Predictive Value

PPV = True Positives / (TP + False Positives)

54

Positive Predictive Value depends on which variable?

PREVALENCE

55

Type of Epithelium that lines the Epididymis

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with STEREOCILIA

56

High levels of IgM + Predominance of plasma cells in the bone marrow biopsy specimen

Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

57

Which chromosome is BRCA 1 on?

17

58

Which chromosome is BRCA 2 on?

13

59

Which chromosome is APC gene on?

5

60

Which chromosome is NF-2 on?

22

61

Which chromosome is NF-1 on?

17

62

Which chromosome are DCC and DPC (pancreatic cancer) genes on?

18

63

Which chromosome is the VHL gene on?

3

64

Which chromosome is WT1 on?

11

65

"Egg on a String" appearance of the fetal heart is associated with ______ .

Failure of aorticopulmonary septum to spiral

66

Increased Lactate Dehydrogenase, Elevated Bilirubin, decreased Haptoglobin and POSITIVE COOMBS test

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)

67

"Hexagonal" shaped microscopic crystal

Cystinuria

68

Cause of Pts with "Hexagonal" shaped microscopic crystal on UA

Defect in Amino Acid REABSORPTION in the PCT

(Leads to wasting of lysine, arginine, CYSTINE and ornithine)

69

"Drowsiness, unsteady gait, enlarged liver, nystagmus" most likely symptom presentation

Intoxicated Alcoholic

70

"Vitamin B1"

Thiamine

71

Essential Cofactor for "pyruvate dehydrogenase"

Thiamine (B1)

72

Lab values in a Patient with Vitamin B1 deficiency due to Alcohol Intoxication (2)

1. Elevated LACTATE

2. Low pH (lactic acidosis)

73

Structure that lies near the lesser curvature of the stomach

Omental foramen

74

Which ligament is part of the Omental foramen near the lesser curvature of the stomach?

HEPATODUODENAL Ligament

75

Which three structures are within the Hepatoduodenal Ligament?

1. Common Bile Duct

2. Hepatic Artery Proper

3. Hepatic Portal Vein

76

What is the fusion gene (2) indicative of Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?

BCR-ABL

77

Which chromosomes do BCR and ABL come from?

BCR (9) - ABL (22)

78

DIC + Abundant Auer Rods

M3 variant of AML called "Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)"

79

Chromosome translocation that is associated with Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)

t(15;17)

80

Which cell is necessary to ABSORB Vitamin B12 in the ileum and what molecule does it make?!

Parietal Cells (Intrinsic Factor)

81

Which foods/drinks have "Tyramine" in them? (3)

1. Aged Cheese

2. Liver

3. Red Wine

82

If you are taking a Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI) and you are consuming Tyramine-containing products, what are you at risk for?

Hypertensive Crisis

83

Two cancers that can cause hemorrhage into intracranial metastasis

1. Renal Cell Carcinoma

2. Melanoma

84

"Leukocytosis (elevated) + Anemia + Thrombocytopenia" strongly suggest a Dx of ________ .

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

85

Effective Treatment for CML

Imatinib

86

Causes of hypoalbuminemia (5)

1. Chronic Liver Disease

2. Nephrotic Syndrome

3. Malnutrition

4. Malabsorption

5. Hemodilution

87

"Haloperidol" drug class

Dopamine antagonist

88

How and when are contraction bands formed after a MI?

Hypercontraction of the sarcomeres due to a massive calcium influx

Form with the FIRST 12 hours

89

Ursodeoxycholic Acid is used to treat ________ .

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

90

First-line treatment of Chronic Hepatitis B infection

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

91

Drug: "Inhibits viral DNA polymerase by acting as a dGTP analogue"

Ganciclovir

92

Adverse Side Effects of Gangciclovir (2)

1. Myelosuppression

2. Renal Toxicity

93

Which neoplasm is MOST associated with Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)?

Acute Leukemias

94

Newborn: "Jaundice + Lethargy + Elevated Unconjugated Bilirubin + fatal within 18 months of birth"

Crigler-Najjar sydrome Type 1

95

Which enzyme is defective in Crigler-Najjar sydrome Type 1?

Uridine diphosphate-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT1)

96

Drug that you can use to treat Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma that is cell cycle NON-SPECIFIC

Cyclophosphamide

97

MOA of Cyclophosphamide

Alkylating agent that covalently bonds to DNA at guanuine N-7

98

Explain the SIRS (Septic Inflammatory Response Syndrome) criteria

Two or more of the following criteria are met:

1. Temperature MORE than 38 C (100.4 F) or LESS than 36 C (96.8 F)

2. Heart rate MORE than 90/min

3. Respiratory rate of more than 20/min or arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) of LESS than 32 mmHg

4. Abnormal WBC count (MORE than 12,000/ML or LESS than 4,000 M/l or MORE than 10% immature [band] forms

99

Cell that is present with "microangiopathic hemolytic anemia"

Schistocytes

100

Manifestation of Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome

Diffuse alveolar damage that leads to increased alveolar capillary permeability

101

Classic Pentad for Thombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

1. CNS manifestations

2. Renal Insufficiency

3. Fever

4. Thrombocytopenia

5. Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemia (MAHA)

102

"von Willebrand factor protease"

ADAMTS13

103

Deficiency in _______ (enzyme), which is required to digest fructose, causes vomiting, lethargy, and jaundice after consumption of fructose and sucrose

Aldose B

104

Deficiency in _______ (enzyme) is a benign condition characterized by ASYMPTOMATIC fructosemia and fructosuria

Fructokinase

105

Enzyme defective in Maple Syrup Urine Disease (MSUD)

a-keto acid dehydrogenase

106

Which amino acids (3) should you restrict in a Pt that has Maple Syrup Urine Disease?

1. Leucine

2. Isoleucine

3. Valine

107

Autoantibody that is present in patients with Rheumatoid Arthritis

anti-CCP (Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide)

108

Medication to prevent Hemorrhagic Cystitis when taking Cyclophosphamide

Mensa

109

MOA of Mensa

Binds to cyclophosphamide metabolites in the urine and neutralizes them

110

Type of Lung cancer that is involved in SIADH

Small Cell Lung Cancer

111

The alpha subunit of B-hCG is most similar to which three hormones?

1. FSH

2. LH

3. TSH

112

Which malformation is associated with displacement of the Cerebellar Tonsils below the level of the foramen magnum

Chiari I Malformation

113

Chiari I Malformation is associated with which brain lesion?

Syringomyelia

114

How to calculate "Steady State Concentration"

Steady State Concentration = Infusion Rate / Clearance

115

First-line treatment for community-acquired pneumonia with extra risk factors that require hospitalization

1. Macrolide + 3rd generation cephalosporin

2. Respiratory Fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin or moxifloxacin)

116

MOA of Benzathine penicillin G

Interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis by attaching to penicillin-binding protens, or transpeptidases, and blocking cross-linking of the cell wall

117

Indication for Benzathin Penicillin G

Painless chancre from Syphilis

118

MOA of Risperidone

1. Dopamine (D1 and D2) antagonist

2. 5-HT2 antagonist

3. a-adrenergic antagonist (alpha-1)

119

"Subacute inflammatory myopathy that upon muscle biopsy shows infiltrates of CD8+ T-lymphocytes and macrophages"

Polymyositis

120

"Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain radiating to his upper back and left shoulder, Elevated Lipase and experiences mild RELIEF when LEANING forward"

Pancreatitis

121

Acute Pancreatitis often presents with what type of electrolyte imbalance?

HYPOCALCEMIA

122

Most common cause of Primary Glomerulonephritis

Bergers Disease (IgA Nephropathy)

123

Presentation of IgA Nephropathy

Mesangial Deposits of IgA

124

Time line for presentation of IgA Nephropathy

Hematuria at the SAME TIME as the URI

125

Time line for presentation of Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

Hematuria occurs 3-6 weeks after infection

126

Which bacteria presents with small lytic lesions in the distal metaphysis of the tibia with periosteal reaction? What is this reaction called?

Strep Pneumonia

Osteomylitis

127

Pt that presents with pneumonia that is unresponsive to Abs (Ceftriaxone) will most likely respond to which Ab? Why type of Pneumonia is that considered?

Macrolides

Atypical Pneumonia

128

Which system can involve a neoplasm that can cause Horner Syndrome?

Lung Cancers!

129

Explain how and the name lung cancers can cause Horner syndrome

PANCOAST tumors

They grow into the THORACIC inlet and they compress on the SYMPATHETIC CHAIN

130

Indications for 6-Mercaptopurine use

Patients who have undergone kidney transplant and for patients with autoimmune disorders such as glomerulonephritis and rheumatoid arthritis

131

"Azathioprine"

Prodrug form of 6-Mercaptopurine

132

"Relative Risk" equation

RR = Probability (exposed) / Probability (control)

133

Alcohol's effect during pregnancy to the baby

Inhibition of Cell migration

134

Accumulation of Peroxides and free radicals are evident in a deficiency of which enzyme?

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase

135

"Bevacizumab"

Anti-VEGF agent

1. Colon Cancer

2. Wet Age-related Macular Degeneration

136

Chronic Granulomatous Disease is characterized by an increase susceptibility to infections by ___________________ organisms.

Catalase-Positive

137

Enzyme that is deficient in Chronic Granulomatous Disease

Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate (NADP) Oxidase

138

Function of Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate Oxidase

O2 --> O2- (superoxide oxygen radical)

139

Which white blood cell depends on Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate Oxidase for killing?

Neutrophils

140

"Presence of greater than or equal to 6 cafe-au-lait spots of at least 5 mm in diameter in pre-pubertal children"

Neurofibromatosis Type 1

141

"Bilateral vestibular schwannomas"

Neurofibromatosis Type 2

142

"Brushfield Spots"

Down Syndrome

143

BILATERAL deficits in:

1. Pain and Temperature
2. Voluntary Motor Control
3. Autonomic Motor Control

Hypoperfusion of the Anterior Spinal Artery (anterior cord syndrome)

144

Kid has an EMERGENT situation and Child's parents refuse blood transfusions on the grounds that they are Jehovah's Witnesses, what do you do?

Take the child to surgery and provide blood transfusions as medically indicated

(Parents cannot with hold blood in emergent situations)

145

"Dermatomal vesicular eruption" (pathogen)

Varicella-zoster Virus (VZV)

146

ACE Inhibitors activate which "G-subunit" on vascular smooth muscle cells?

Gq

Decreases activity of Phospholipase C (vasodilation)

147

"anti-Hu and anti-Yo" antibodies

Small Cell Lung Cancer

148

MOA of Etoposide

Stabilization of topoisomerase II-DNA complex which results in the induction of double-stranded DNA breaks

149

High levels of ammonia will DEPLETE _______ and INCREASE levels of ________ .

Deplete a-KETOGLUTARATE

Increase GLUTAMINE

150

Adverse side effect of Aspirin can present with _______ .

Tinnitus

151

"Pappenheimer bodies"

Iron granules in SIDEROBLASTIC anemia

152

Cause of "Hypersegmented Neutrophils"

Folate or Vitamin B12 Deficiency

153

"Apple-Core Lesion" on barium CT of abdomen suggests

Tumor in the Colon

154

List the 3 paraneoplastic syndromes that are associated with Small Cell Lung Carcinoma

1. ACTH

2. ADH

3. Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

155

Explain Lambert Eaton-Syndrome

Production of Antibodies against presynaptic CALCIUM channels at the neuromuscular junction

Symptoms get better through out the DAY

156

Which type of fracture should increase your index of suspicion in children for child abuse?

Spiral Fractures

157

Which phase of meiosis is the Ovum in after it is released from the ovary?

Metaphase II

158

Which phase of meiosis is the Ovum in from birth to ovulation?

Prophase I

159

High or Low frequency of sound is heard by the PROXIMAL hair cells of the organ of Corti?

HIGH

160

"Nonpurposeful facial grimaces, including TONGUE protrusion"

Tardive Dyskinesia

161

Which class of drugs may lead to Tardive Dyskinesia?

Typical Antipsychotics (blockage of D2 dopamine receptors)

162

Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve comes from which Pharyngeal Arch?

6th

163

External Branch of the Superior Laryngeal Nerve comes from which Pharyngeal Arch?

4th

(Mild Horseness and trouble with HIGH pitches)

164

Bullous Pemphigoid is caused by an autoimmune attack against _______ which normally occurs in the elderly.

Hemidesmosomes

165

MOA of Tacrolimus

Calcineurin inhibitor that binds to FK-binding protein (FKBP) in the cytoplasm and it decreases the transcription of IL-2

166

Which tumor is the most common source of liver metastases?

Colon Cancers

167

Excessive vomiting will result in which acid/base disturbance?

Metabolic Alkalosis

168

Which disease presents with early onset Emphysema?

Alpha1-antitrypsin (ATT) Deficiency

169

Presence of schistocytes indicates _______ .

Mechanical Trauma to the RBCs

170

"Affect individuals are unable to undergo endochondral ossification"

Achondroplasia

171

Gene mutation and Genetic inheritance of Achondroplasia

FGFR3 gene

Autosomal Dominant

172

Describe how much HCO3- will rise when a patient is experiencing ACUTE respiratory acidosis

HCO3- will typically rise 1 mEq/L for each 10 mm Hg rise in PaCO2

173

"Mood Syndrome characterized by alternating periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms. Symptoms must be present for at least 2 years to diagnose this disorder, and the patient must never be symptom free for more than 2 months during those 2 years"

Cyclothymic Disorder

174

"Prednisolone"

Active form of PREDNISONE

(Converted by 11 B-Hydroxysteroid Dehydrogenase)

175

Bone disorder that is found in malnourished adults with vitamin D and calcium deficiencies

Osteomalacia

176

"Areas of increased unmineralized osteoid adjacent to normal trabeculae."

Histologic Appearance of Osteomalacia

177

"Severe, sudden-onset, diffuse abdominal pain, neuropathy, diaphoresis and tachycardia in the setting of poor dietary intake"

Acute Intermittent Porphyria (AIP)

(Think of wrestlers trying to make weight)

178

Enzyme mutation and Genetic inheritance of Acute Intermittent Porphyria (AIP)

Lack of Porphobilinogen Deaminase

Autosomal Dominant

179

Formula for determining the 1/2 of a drug

T1/2 = (0.7 * volume of distribution) / (Clearance)

180

How many 1/2 lives does a drug require to reach its steady state which it is being infused at a constant rate?

4 - 5 Half Lives

181

Tx for Acute Gastritis

NSAID (inhibiting both COX-1 and -2)

182

Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) - 1 have a recessive mutation in which enzyme?

Tyrosinase

183

First line-Tx for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

a1-antagonist

184

Second Line Tx for BPH

5a-reductase inhibitor (finasteride)

185

Most common side-effect for 5a-reductase inhibitors

Decreased LIBIDO

186

Function of "Neurophysin I"

Essential for the transport of Oxytocin from the Paraventricular Nucleus to the breast ducts.

187

Side effect of Cyclosporin

RENAL toxicity

(can exacerbate pre-existing renal problems)

188

"Negative Nitroblue Tetrazolium Dye reduction test"

Abnormal NADPH oxidase activity (indicating Chronic Granulomatous Disease)

189

"Female Pt presents with a 2-month history of cough, Non-smoker, a 15-lb unintentional weight loss, and a single 2-cm opacity located in the peripheral side of the CXR."

Adenocarcinoma of the Lung

190

"Tingling of the Lips" after a thyroidectomy

Hypocalcemia

191

"Antinuclear and Antihistone" abs are seen in which condition?

Drug-Induced Lupus

192

"Anti-dsDNA" abs are seen in which condition?

Systemic Lupus Erythmatous

193

"History of choking, cough, shortness of breath, and wheezing in a child that has no history of asthma" raises the suspicion for ______________________ .

Foreign Body Aspiration

194

Lab levels for Pagets Disease

Normal Ca2+, Normal Phosphate, ELEVATED Alkaline Phosphatase

195

"Indinavir"

Protease inhibitor used for HIV therapy

196

Adverse Side Effect of Indinavir

Thrombocytopenia

197

"Non-Caseating Granulomas"

Crohn Disease

198

Which (2) proteins are lacking/nonfunctional in Hereditary Spherocytosis?

1. Spectrin

2. Ankyrin

199

"Tumors found at the cerebellopontine angle, and stain positive for S100 protein"

Bilateral acoustic neuroma

200

"Bilateral Acoustic Neuromas"

Neurofibromatosis (NF)-2

201

Even if you have a HIGH sensitivity and a HIGH specificity, what might make you think that the Positive Predictive Value is actually going to be low?

Low Prevalence

202

Changes to Thyroid Metabolism levels in Pregnancy

1. Increased Thyroxine-Binding Globulin (TBG)

2. Increase in TOTAL T4

3. Normal Free T4

203

Pts with down syndrome have an accelerated course of which disease?

Alzheimer Disease

204

CD16

NK Cells

205

Hereditary Fructose Intolerance is caused by a deficiency in ________ .

Aldolase B

206

Metabolic changes that occur in Pts with Hereditary Fructose Intolerance after ingestion of fruit

1. Hypoglycemia

2. Hypophosphatemia

3. Lactic Acidosis

4. Hyperuricemia

5. Hypermagnesemia

207

Which drug class is Nortriptyline?

Tricyclic antidepressants

208

MOA of Tricyclic antidepressants

Inhibit the reuptake of Norepinephrine and Serotonin

209

Most common defense mechanism in Borderline Personality disorder

Splitting

210

What must the hormone-receptor complex do before binding to DNA in the nucleus?

Undergo a Conformational change

211

Which value will decrease in BOTH Obstructive and Restrictive Pulmonary Function Test?

Vital Capacity

212

MOA of Etanercept

Antagonizing TNF

213

Etanercept can exacerbate which disease?

Tuberculosis

214

"Multisystem noncaseating granulomas and hypercalciuria secondary to macrophage-mediated conversion of vitamin D to its active form"

Sarcoidosis

215

Race associated with Sarcoidosis

African American

216

"Lymphocytes with multiple long cytoplasmic projections"

Hairy Cell Leukemia

217

"NAACP"

Causes of Eosinophilia

Neoplasm
Asthma
Allergy
Collagen vascular disease
Parasites

218

Pentad in TTP

1. Fever

2. Thrombocytopenia

3. Microangiopathic Hemolysis

4. Neurologic Symptoms

5. Renal Insufficiency

219

Clozapine

Tx for Auditory Hallucinations in pts with schizophrenia

220

What does breathing through pursed lips do in pts with Emphysema?

Decreases the pressure gradient between the alveoli and the lungs, allowing for enough pressure in small airways to keep them open

221

Typical causes (2) of obstruction of the appendiceal lumen in Appendicitis

1. Lymhpoid Hyperplasia

2. Fecalith impaction leading to obstruction

222

What is located in the "left inferior frontal gyrus"?

Broca's Area

223

Which Glycogen Storage Disease is caused by a deficiency in a-1,4-glucosidase?

Pompe Disease (Type 2 GSD)

224

Typical cause of death in Pompe Disease

Cardiorespiratory Failure

225

Which anticoagulant is administered SUBCUTANEOUSLY and does not require laboratory monitoring?

Low-Molecular-Weight Heparin (LMWH)

226

Describe the 4 stages of Paget Disease

1. Initial Osteolytic lesion involving marked bone resorption

2. Mixed period of disorganized bone formation

3. Osteoblastic-induced sclerosis

4. Osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity is minimal

227

Describe the elevated leves in Paget Disease

1. Elevated Alkaline Phosphatase

2. NORMAL phosphate

228

Drug that reduces hepatic triglyceride and VLDL synthesis, while increasing HDL levels

Niacin

229

Which cell secretes mullerian-inhibiting factor during normal development?

Sertoli Cells

230

Cancers associated with Rb mutations (3)

1. Bilateral retinoblastoma

2. Osteosarcomas

3. Bladder Carcinoma

231

Which anti-bodies are detected in Syphilis?

Anticardiolipin

232

Where is Cardiolipin located in the cell?

Inner Mitochondrial Membrane

233

Cofactor required for Cystathionine synthase

Vitamin B6 (pyroxidine)

234

"Pts with ______ personality disorder are sensitive to rejection and are socially inhibited and timid."

Avoidant

235

Drug that inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, leading to an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and increased myocardial contractility

Digoxin

236

Which cells secrete Somatostatin where are they located?

D-Cells (pancreas)

237

Location and product of "I Cells"

Duodenum and Jejunum

Cholecystokinin

238

Function of Cholecystokinin (3)

1. Gallbladder contraction

2. Pancreatic enzyme secretion

3. Sphincter of Oddi relaxation

239

Location and product of "K Cells"

Duodenum and Jejunum

Gastric Inhibitory Peptide

240

Function of Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (2)

1. Decrease Gastric Acid Production

2. Increase Insulin release

241

Location and product of "S Cells"

Duodenum

Secretin

242

Function of Secretin (2)

1. Inhibits Gastric Acid secretion

2. Stimulates bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas

243

Stray Dogs

Rabies Virus

244

Which Branchial Arch: "M" muscles of Mastication (teMporalis, Massester, Medial and lateral pterygoids) and the Mylohyoid; as well as the tensor veli palatini and tensor tympani

1st Branchial Arch

245

Which Branchial Arch: "S" muscles: Stapedius, Stylohyoid, and facial expression muscles

Second Arch

246

Derivatives of which Pouch: Thymus (ventral wings) and inferior parathyroid glands

3rd Branchial Pouch

247

Derivatives of which pouch: Superior Parathyroids

4th Branchial Pouch

248

Enzyme deficiency in Tay-Sachs Disease

Hexosaminidase A

(Ganglioside M2 --> Ganglioside M3)

249

Enzyme deficiency in Fabry Disease

a-Galactosidase A

(Ceramide trihexoside --> Lactosyl cerebroside)

250

Enzyme deficiency in Krabbe disease

B-Galactocerbrosidase

(Galactocerebroside --> cerebroside)

251

Enzyme deficiency in Niemann-Pick Disease

Spingomyelinase

(Sphingomyelin --> Cerebroside)

252

Enzyme deficiency in Metachromatic Leukodystrophy

Arylsulfatase A

(Sulfatide --> Galactocerebroside)

253

Pancreatic cancer most commonly occurs in the ______, which arises from the ______ .

Pancreatic Head

Ventral Pancreatic Bud

254

"Phencyclidine"

PCP

("Vertical" Nystagmus is Pathogneumonic)

255

If you see "Restricted Joint Movement" and "Coarse Facial Features" in a little kiddo, what disease are you going to think of?

Inclusion-Cell Disease

256

"CXR that shows a large hilar mass with cavitation in a smoker"

Squamous Cell Carcinoma of of the Lungs

257

Squamous Cell Carcinoma of of the Lungs is associated with overproduction of __________ .

PTHrP

(Leading to Hypercalcemia)

258

"Salmeterol" and its adverse side effects (2)

Long-acting B2 agonist (used for asthma prophylaxis)

1. Tremor

2. Arrhythmia

259

Does "Griseofulvin" inhibit or activate CYP450?

ACTIVATE

260

"Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin and a leftward shift" is associated with ______ .

CO poisoning

261

"Almond Breath" odor

Cyanide Poisoning

262

"Sodim Thiosulfate and Amyl Nitrite" is used to treat _____ .

Cyanide Poisoning

263

Which enzyme in the electron transport chain does Cyanide bind to?

Cytochrome C Oxidase (Complex IV)

264

Which metabolic disturbance does Cyanide Poisoning lead to?

Metabolic Acidosis with Anion GAP

(Inhibiting Aerobic Metabolism will lead to Anaerobic Metabolism because there is no O2 available)

265

Most effective treatment for "Refractory (treatment-resistant) schizophrenia"

Clozapine

266

Which ribosomal subunit does Clindamycin bind to?

50s

267

Describe "Tumor Lysis Syndrome"

Lysis of tumor cells following chemotherapy results in the release of potassium, uric acid, and phosphorous

268

How do you treat Tumor Lysis Syndrome?

1. Aggressive Intravenous Hydration

2. Allopurinol

269

When would you use "Colchicine"?

Acute Gout Flares

270

Function of 2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (2,3)-BPG

Binds B-chains in the hemoglobin molecule and INCREASES hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen

271

Which way would the Hemoglobin-O2 curve go: Mutated 2,3-BPG

LEFT

272

Which way would the Hemoglobin-O2 curve go: Increase in Body Temperature

RIGHT

273

Which way would the Hemoglobin-O2 curve go: Increase in oxygen release in response to pulmonary stress

RIGHT

274

Which way would the Hemoglobin-O2 curve go: Decrease in pH caused by hypoventilation

RIGHT

275

Which enzyme is involved in the rate limiting step of glycolysis?

Phosphofructokinase (PFK)

276

Which molecule is involved in regulating the rate limiting step of glycolysis?

Citrate (from the Citric Acid Cycle)

It will INHIBIT PFK

277

Defect in SOD1 gene

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

278

Increased amyloid B-peptides

Alzheimer disease (AD)

279

Aggregated tau proteins

Pick Disease

280

a-Synuclein intracellular inclusion bodies

Parkinson Disease (PD)

281

Which lobes in the brain does Pick Disease affect?

Temporal Lobes

282

Most common cause of bronchiolitis for infants and young children <5 yo

Repsiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

283

Pathogenesis of RSV

Surface Protein F

(Causes nearby cells to merge and induce the characteristic syncytial appearance in pathology)

284

Which bug: "Release of oxygen radicals that causes epithelial necrosis within the lung"

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

285

Which type of lung disease is Goodpasture Syndrome?

Restrictive Lung Disease ( >80% FEV1:FVC ratio)

286

Young man that does not drink and has no history of gallstones presents with "Milky White" blood

Familial Hyperchylomicronemia (Type I dyslipidemia)

287

Enzyme defect associated with Familial Hyperchylomicronemia

Lipoprotein Lipase Deficiency

288

Which type of dyslipidemia is associated with apolipoprotein E mutations?

Type III

289

Which type of dyslipidemia is associated with LDL cholesterol receptor mutations?

Type II

290

Which type of dyslipidemia is associated with decreased Apolipoprotein CII levels?

Type I (very rare)

291

Hyperventilation and LOW bicarbonate level, combined with disorientation and legarthy, are characteristic of _________ poisoning.

Salicylate (too many NSAIDs)

292

Defective BRCA1 mutations (4)

1. Breast Cancer

2. Ovarian Cancer

3. Prostate Cancer

4. Colon Cancer

293

Defective BRCA2 mutations (2)

1. Breast Cancer

2. Pancreatic Cancer

294

Defective Nonhomologous end joining

Ataxia Telangiectasia

295

Defective DNA Mismatch Repair

Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

296

Defective p53

1. Soft Tissue Cancer

2. Breast Cancer

3. Brain Cancer

4. Adrenal Gland Cancer

297

Defective Nucleotide Excision Repair

Xeroderma Pigmentosum

298

Which vitamin can become deficient after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, especially cephalosporins?

Vitamin K

299

Which Bug: "Granulomas in the lungs with a negative PPD test and spherules with interior endospores"

Coccidioides

300

Which hormone is responsible for a slightly elevated body temperature (1 F) during the menstrual cycle?

Progesterone

301

Where and how is the majority of CO2 transported throughout the body?

Transported in the PLASMA

via Bicarbonate (HCO3-)

302

"Respiratory Alkalosis and Metabolic Acidosis with a HIGH anion gap"

Aspirin OVERDOSE

303

pH levels in the urine that are going to increase the risk of Aspirin overdose

ACIDIC (low pH)

304

Tx of Aspirin overdose

HCO3-

(make the urine more alkaline)

305

Massive hemolysis can cause ______ which will show up as _______ on ECG.

Hyperkalemia

Peaked T-Waves

306

Ventilator-associated Pneumonia is most commonly associated with _____ .

Pseudomonas

307

MOA Tacrolimus

Inhibits Calcineurin

(Leads to a downstream effect of inhibiting T-lymphocyte signaling)

*Metabolized by P-450 enzyme 3A*

308

Hypersensitivity Rxn associated with Poison Ivy.

Type IV

(Reaction occurs only if an individual has a prior exposure to the antigen)

309

"Omega Loop" Sign

Classic radiographic finding of sigmoid volvulus

310

"Air-fluid Levels"

Small Bowel Obstruction

311

Risk Factor for developing a Small Bowel Obstruction

Cholethiasis due to developing Gallstone ileus

312

The 3rd aortic arch gives rise to _______ (2)

1. Common Carotids

2. Proximal Part of the Internal Carotids

313

What happens to the fifth aortic arch?

It regresses

314

The 1st aortic arch gives rise to _______ .

Maxillary Artery

315

The 2nd aortic arch gives rise to _______ . (2)

1. Stapedial Artery

2. Hyoid Artery

316

The 4th aortic arch gives rise to ______ (2)

1. Ascending arch of aorta (On the left)

2. Proximal part of the RIGHT subclavian artery

317

The 6th aortic arch gives rise to _____ . (2)

1. Proximal parts of the Pulmonary Arteries

2. Ductus Arteriosus (On the Left)

318

Tx of Pneumonia from Klebsiella

Meropenem

(Responds well to gram negative rods)

319

Coarctation of the aorta can commonly lead to _____ .

Ascending Aorta Dissection

320

Granulomatous disease characterized by headaches and blindness secondary to inflammation of the posterior ciliary and ophthalmuc arteries (branches of the internal carotid).

Giant Cell (temporal) arteritis

321

Arterial stenosis of at least _____ %, can cause stable angina

70%

322

Which molecule is required for the development of the penis and scrotum during embryogenesis?

DHEA

323

What is the deficiency?: Pt is born phenotypically female which an Clitoromegaly. During puberty the pt starts to develop male genitalia.

5-a reductase Deficiency

(Normal levels of testosterone, estrogen, and LH)

324

Electroyte abnormality caused by Digoxin

Hypokalemia

325

Skin manifestation associated with Sarcoidosis

Erythema Nodosum

326

Which antibiotic is highly associated with Aplastic Anemia?

Chloramphenicol

327

Which amino acid is important for kids to have during times of growth?

Arginine