Flashcards in Questions I got WRONG (2) Deck (303):
Which odd metabolic functions can the Kidneys participate in? (2)
1. Gluconeogenesis (85% of the time)
2. Glycogenolysis (15% of the time)
Which enzyme is involved in the rate determining step in Renal Gluconeogenesis?
Which enzyme is involved in the rate determining step in Glycolysis?
Exposure to aflatoxin can cause which neoplasm?
Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)
CKD + Anemia = ______
Mechanism of Resistance for aminoglycosides
Covalent Modification via:
MOA of Mifepristone
(acts as a competitive antagonist of progesterone)
From exclusively which parents DNA do you get a molar pregnancy?
Tx for Diabetic Gastroparesis
Metoclopramide (D2-receptor antagonist)
(Increases Gastric motility)
What happens to the intestines with Metoclopramide? (4)
1. Contraction of Lower Esophageal Sphincter
2. Relaxation of the Pylorus
3. Increase in Gastric Contractions
4. Increase in Peristalsis in the duodenum and jejunum
Main adverse side effect of Metoclopramide
Extrapyramidal Adverse Effects
(Due to inhibition of Dopamine)
First line treatment in Diabetic Pts with Hypertension
(TH17 cells fail to produce IL-17)
"Failure to synthesize MHCII antigens"
SCID (Severe Combined Immunodeficiency)
"Microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion"
"Partial Albinism, recurrent respiratory and skin infections, and peripheral neuropathy"
Gene mutation responsible for the findings in "Job Syndrome"
Tx for long-term management of Atrial Fibrillation
Hereditary spastic paraplegia is characterized by progressive lower limb weakness and spasticity due to degeneration of the _______ .
Lateral Corticospinal Tract
Function of lateral spinothalamic tract
Pain and Temperature
Function of Anterior Corticospinal Tract
Controlling Proximal Muscles (i.e. Trunk)
Function of Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
Nerves that respond to crude touch and pressure
"onion skinning" of the periosteum
Type of Mutation in Duchene's Muscular Dystrophy
"Provider projects his or her own thoughts, feeling, past experiences, or issues onto a patient"
Classification of the "Lactobacilli" in the vagina
Gram-Positive Facultative Anaerobes
Biochemistry: "Coarse facial features, clouded corneas, and restricted range of motion in joints. Elevated serum hydrolase levels"
Tx for Bruton agammaglobulinema
Brain tumor that presents with headache and focal neurologic defects
Meningiomas arise from which layer of the Brain?
Pts with Neurofibromatosis 2 are at a heightened risk for developing: (3)
3. Benign Eye Tumors
How old is this baby:
1. Sitting unassisted
2. Grasping items
3. Rolling over
Infants typically retain a positive Babinski sign until _______ .
12-14 months of age
Best Tx for Pts that have Rheumatoid Arthritis and are at low risk for cardiovascular disease but at a High Risk for GI disturbances.
Selective COX-2 inhibitors
Which diuretic may worsen Osteoporosis?
"Autosomal Dominant disease results in a disturbance of both endochondral and membranous bone formation due to a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor-3 (FGF-3 gene)"
Venous drainage of external hemorrhoidal tissue is via the ______ vein to the ________ .
Inferior Rectal Vein
Inferior Vena Cava
Bioabailability of an IV drug (value)
Maintenance Dose calculation
MD = [(Target plasma concentration * Drug Clearance * Dosage Interval)] / Bioavailability
*** Note that if a drug is given INTRAVENOUSLY, the bioavailability is 1 ***
Which (2) embryologic structures form the Median Umbilical Ligament?
Remnant of the fetal umbilical arteries
Medial Umbilical Ligament
Initial treatment for SIADH
Function of Secretin
Acts on pancreatic duct cells to stimulate BICARBONATE secretion
Secretin is released in response to which process?
Increased acid and fatty acids in the lumen of the duodenum
During a fasting state, which two GI hormones will be increased?
1. Motilin (From the small intestine)
2. Ghrelin (from the Stomach)
Stomach distention and vagal stimulation will increase the release of ______ .
(from the ANTRUM of the stomach and duodenum)
Fatty acids, amino acids, and oral glucose reaching the duodenum and jejunum will increase the release of _____ .
Glucose-Dependent Insulinotropic Peptide (GIP)
(From Duodenal and Jejunal K CELLS)
Which muscle in the mouth is responsible for opening the jaw? What is its innervation?
Lateral Pterygoids (Lateral Lowers the jaw)
Mandibular Branch of Trigeminal Nerve (V3)
Lack of germinal centers and the clinical scenario of disease following vaccination with live pathogen suggests a _______ .
How would you treat a B-Lymphocyte Immunodeficiency after administration of a Live Pathogen (vaccine)?
Regular IM gamma-globulin injections
"Fatigue, drowsiness, and depression" are common side effects of which anti-hypertensive agent?
What does SLE and CKD cause to decrease in the Kidneys?
Treatment for Anemia of Chronic Disease?
#1 cause of Death in people 15-24 years old
Aspirin will not decrease the production of ______ .
In which organelle are antigen-derived peptides loaded onto MHC class I Molecules?
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
Which enzyme converts (alanine and a-ketoglutarate) INTO (pyruvate and glutamate)?!
Enzyme involved in the Rate-Limiting step of the Urea Cycle
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
Enzyme deficient in Phenylketouria (PKU)
Function of Phenylalanine Hydroxylase
Phenylalanine --> Tyrosine
"Musty body odor, fair skin, eczema and strict diet"
Enzyme in step after carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I in the urea cycle
Enzyme in the urea cycle that forms (NH4+ and a-ketoglutarate) FROM (glutamate)
Which ratio of products in INCREASED in Pts with Alcoholism?
An increased NADH:NAD+ ration in the liver leads to inhibition of ______ and subsequent _________ .
Pyruvate is diverted to _____ with an increased NADH:NAD+ ratio
Clinical presentation of Niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency (4)
"3 D's + Beefy Glossitis"
4. Beefy Glossitis
1. Angular Stomatitis
3. Corneal Vascularization
Riboflavin (vitamin B2)
1. Hemolytic Anemia
2. Muscle weakness
3. Posterior Column and Spinocerebellar tract Demyelination
Thiamine (vitamin B1)
Excess of which vitamin can be teratogenic to Pregnant women?
1. Night Blindness
2. Squamous metaplasia of the corneal epithelium
Most common variant of Esophageal Atresia and Tracheoesophageal Fistula
Esophageal Atresia with DISTAL tranesophageal fistula
"Inflammatory arthritis that manifests as asymmetric dactyltitis and inflammation of other joints "
Which organism is cultured via a "Calcium alginate swab" and grown on either a potato (Bordey-Gengou) agar or Regan-Lowe medium?
Tx for Depression and has a relatively safe cardiac profile
Antimalarial drug that can cause Torsades de pointes
Stain to detect Adenocarcinomas (i.e. Barrett's Esophagus)
Which Neurotransmitter decreases with age and is responsible for Pts not being able to stay in REM sleep?
FAP is associated with which 2 syndromes?
1. Turcot Syndrome
2. Gardner Syndrome
FAP + Medulloblastoma
FAP + Thyroid/Liver/Kidney Cancers
Which drug is involved in treating Tinea Corporis but might present with Darkening Skin patches after the course of treatment?
(Inhibits Desmolase and can cause an increase in ACTH)
Essential Amino Acids
PVT TIM HALL
Only Essential Amino Acid that can donate a Methyl group
Which acid-base disorder can be cause by Hydroclorothiazide?
Name the syndrome:
1. Change in mental status
2. Discolored urine
3. Muscle rigidity
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Tx for Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (2)
Which syndrome is Linezolid related to?
Which (2) drugs can work synergistically to lower LDL levels in Pts with type IIA familial hyperlipidemia?
2. Bile Acid Resins (i.e. Cholestyramine)
Brain tumor that has foamy cells and is highly vascular
(Part of VHL on Chromosome 3)
Enzyme deficient in Hunter syndrome
Mode of inheritence of Hunter syndrome
Which syndrome presents WITHOUT corneal clouding and coarsened facial features, mildly aggressive behavior, pearly skin lesions on their scapulae
Syndrome deficient in a-L-iduronidase
Big clinical presentation with Hurler syndrome when comparing it to Hunter syndrome
Syndrome deficient in galactosamine-6-sulfatase OR B-galactosidase
Syndrome deficient in B-glucuronidase
Syndrome deficient in sulfamidase
Clinical presentation of Sanfilippo Syndrome (3)
1. SLEEP DISORDERS are common
2. Developmental delay
3. Behavior problems (aggressive, hyperactive)
How do you differentiate the clinical presentations of Sly syndrome and Hurler Syndrome?
Intellectual disability is NOT a significant component of Sly syndrome
Mode of inheritance of Sly Syndrome
How do you differentiate the clinical presentations of Morquio syndrome from Hurler syndrome?
Morquio syndrome will present with VALVULAR heart disease
3 D's associated with Vitamin B3 deficiency
What type of organism commonly causes lung abscesses in pts who have lost conciousness, alcoholics, and debilitated persons?
Weight loss, painless jaundice, and migratory thrombophlebitis are signs of ________ .
Syndrome that is classically assocaited with Pancreatic Cancer
What is the root of the problem in pts with Trousseau syndrome?
State of Hypercoagulability
What can happen to pts with G6PD deficiency when they are exposed to oxidizing agents (i.e. primaquine)?
Unstable trinucleotide repeats, as seen in Friedreich ataxia, can _______ .
Impede Gene Transcription
Which drug (Cimetidine or Ranitidine) will cause gynecomastia?
The most common mutation in CF Pts results in a defect in which aspect of the ion transporter's assembly?
Endoplasmic Reticulum Processing
What structure fails to form in a fetus with Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia?
What should you think when you see "Pale Conjunctiva"?
Iron Deficient Anemia
Hyperbaric Oxygen is used to reverse ________ .
Thiosulfate + Sodium nitrate is used to reverse ________ .
Methemoglobinemia may occur as an adverse side effect of _______ .
Methylene blue is used to reverse __________ .
What is the presenting sign of Pts with Leukocyte Adhesion deficiency?
Delayed Separation of the umbilical cord stump
Which protein is defective in Leukocyte Adhesion deficiency?
Inheritence of Neurofibromatosis
Tx for Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
Which antihypertensive drug should be used with caution in patients with diabetes because of the risk of masking the symptoms of hypoglycemia?
B-Blockers (i.e. metoprolol)
__________ bind to gram-negative bacterial cell membrane phospholipids and destroy the membrane by acting like a detergent.
Main toxicity of Polymyxins
Tx for HIGHLY resistant bacteria (i.e. Klebsiella or P. aeruginosa)
Polymyxins B and E (i.e. colistin)
Which type of Pneumothorax will cause tracheal deviation?
Mode of inheritence of Lynch Syndrome (aka HNPCC)
Childhood tumor that is found in the cerebellar midline with small blue cells arranged in Homer-Wright Rosettes.
Sweating, palpitations and lightheadedness are common symptoms of ________ .
Only immunoglobulin that can be passed from mother to fetus
Strongest risk factor associated with SCC of the Larynx
Which set of lymph nodes do Choriocarcinomas spread to in males?
Characteristics of Dermatitis herpetiformis
Erythematous, vesicular rash
Another name for "von Recklinghausen's disease of the bone"
Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica
MOA of Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica
(Elevated Ca2+, Low Phosphate, High Alkaline Phosphatase)
Necrolytic migratory erythema is a characteristic skin finding of a ________ .
The superficial arch in the hand is a continuation of _______ while the deep arch is a continuation of the ________ .
Ulnar Artery (Superficial)
Radial Artery (DEEP)
PDA is a defect of which aortic arch?
When do you use Doxycycline vs. Ceftriaxone when treating lyme disease?
Doxycycline --> Facial Nerve Palsy
Ceftriaxone --> Neurologic or Severe Heart Symptoms
Side effects of Tetracyclines (3)
2. GI Issues
3. Tooth discoloration BUT ONLY in children
What do Barbiturates do to CYP?
These 5 "P's" are associated with _____ :
1. Painful abdomen
2. Port wine colored urine (due to excessive excretion of porphobilinogen)
4. Psychological Disturbances
5. Precipitation by drugs or starvation/ETOH use
Acute Intermittent Porphyria
Tx for Acute Intermittent Porphyria (2)
(They will inhibit ALA synthetase)
Which cells DO NOT use GLUT transporters to get Glucose insider their cells?
What is the vitamin deficiency:
Cracking of the lips and corners of the mouth and corneal vascularization
What is the vitamin deficiency:
Dermatitis, diarrhea, and a swollen tongue
What is the vitamin deficiency:
Dilated cardiomyopathy, edema
Thiamine (B1; Wet Beriberi)
What is the vitamin deficiency:
Night blindness, dry skin, and impaired immune response
What is the vitamin deficiency:
Perifollicular and subperiosteal hemorrhages
Bone marrow aspirate with the presence of macrophages engulfing RBCs
Tx of Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (3)
3 Basics steps of PCR
1. Denaturation to separate the DNA strands
2. Annealing of primers to complimentary sequences on each of the strands
3. Replication by heat-stable DNA polymerase
Which drug do you use for ischemic strokes that happened within 3 hours without any contraindications?
(Plasminogen --> Plasmin)
Which nerves come off of the posterior cord?
1. Axillary (Shoulder ABduction)
2. Radial (Wrist and arm extension)
Secondary confirmatory Dx on Ultrasound for Gallstones in the cystic duct
Gallbladder Wall Thickening
Irritation from rupture of follicle in the middle of the menstrual cycle
Small angular muscle fibers
Periodic acid-Schiff-positive cytplasmic inclusioins that are remnants of autophagic vacuoles
Found in LOWER MOTOR NEURONS in pts with ALS
De Quervian thyroidits
Transient hypothytroidism seen after a viral illness
Treatment for Copper Toxicity
Enzyme deficient in VonGierke's Disease
Which drug inhibits these two enzymes?
1. Glycerophosphate Dehydrogenase
2. Complex I
Alkaline Phosphatase is a marker of bone ______ .
G-CSF recombinant cytokine used to augment the recovery of bone marrow while on immunosuppressive regiments
Phenylalanine is a precursor to ______ .
Treatment for BPH
Tamsulosin (alpha-1 antagonist)
Which organs are in the retroperitoneal space?
S - Suprarenal (adrenal) glands)
A - Aorta and IVC
D - Duodenum (2nd and 4th parts)
P - Pancreas (except the Tail)
U - Ureters
C - Descending and Ascending
K - Kidneys
E - Lower 2/3
R - Rectum (Partially)
Symptoms of jaundice and new-onset diabetes mellitus usually present in the late stages of _______ .
Drug class of Phenlzine
Examples of Passive immunization
"To Be Healed Very Rapidly"
T - Tetanus
B - Botulism
H - Hepatitis B
V - Varicella
R - Rabies
Another name for "Infundibulopelvic Ligament"
In which ligament do the ovarian vessels run within?
"Splitting" is the defense mechanism associated with ______ .
Borderline Personality Disorder
Which hepatitis virus is prevalent in Africa, Asia and much of eastern europe?
alpha-interferon is one of the treatment options for management of _______ .
Which drug are you going to use to treat drug-induced Diabetic Nephropathy?
Competitive inhibitors are going to _____ the Michaelis-Menten constant.
Leuprolide is used to treat _____ .
Metastatic Prostate Cancer
"Sign of Leser-Tresat" skin mainfestation
Multiple Suborrheic keratoses
"Sign of Leser-Tresat" associated cancer
Paraneoplastic syndrome that is going to cause Hypercalcemia via the release of PTHrP
Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Lung
Type B Gastritis
Infection with H. Pylori
Patient presents with weakness, increased respiratory effort, an enlarged liver on exam, and a chest X-ray suggesting an enlarged cardiac contour
(Glycogen is Accumulating in the Liver due to a defect in lysosomal alpha 1,4-glucosidase)
Describe the neuronal pathway in Parkinsons Disease
Dopaminergic Neurons from the Substantia Nigra project INTO the Striatum (putamen and caudate)
Characteristic berry-like cytoplasmic inclusions in macrophages or neutrophils
MOA of Leuprolide
Most common tumor in the GU tract that presents with Painless Hematuria
Transitional Cell Carcinoma
Which compound can Ceramic workers be exposed to?
Lead poisoning is due to inhibition of _______ .
Abnormal cellular trafficking which results in failure of phagolysosome formation
Organ that most likely is removed to control bleed after blunt injuries to the abdomen
What shows up on histology in patients that have undergone a splenectomy? (2)
1. Target Cells (Codocytes)
2. Howell-Jolly Bodies
Most common cause of neonatal meningitis
Group B Streptococcus
What type of emphysema do you see in the lungs of a patient with Alpha1-Antitrypsin Deficiency?
(PiZZ mutation = Serving "PiZZa in a PAN"
Symptoms of Schizophrenia are due to an increase in which neurotransmitter?
(In the mesolimbic system)
Osmotic damage to the lens in a Patient with T1DM can cause Cataract formation. Why?
Increase in Sorbitol in the cell
Coenzyme responsible for Catecholamine (DA, Epi, NE) Production and PKU
The ______ test is conducted by asking the patient to stand with feet together and eyes closed, while observing if the patient falls, loses his balance, or sways
Positive Rhomberg test tells you what?
Problem with the Medial Lemniscus
Pts with PKU need a dietary supplement of ______ .
Short acting Benzodiazepines (4)
Dark urine and dark cartilage is due to which defective enzyme and it causes which amino acid to build up?
Homogentisic Acid Oxidase (Alkaptonuria)
What does stenosis of the Renal artery do to GFR?
(causes the release of Renin in the Specific renal vein)
Is Rheumatic Fever an autoimmune disease?
In Pts with a Group A Step infection, Impetigo usually precedes ______ .
Type of Hypersensitivity reaction associated with Rheumatic Fever
(Antibodies to M-Protein cross react with self antigens)
Where in the pancreas are VIPomas typically found?
EXCESSIVE VIP secretion --> Inhibition of Gastric Acid secretion (Achlorhydria) leads to an INCREASE in Chloride in the blood
Watery Diarrhea, HypoKalemia, Achlorhydria
After acute lung injury, Type 2 Pneumocytes can differentiate into ____ .
Type 1 AND Type 2 pneumocytes
Midsystolic murmur that decreased with hand grip (increased total peripheral resistance) and increased with a Valsalva maneuver (decreased venous return) suggest ________ .
________ have specialized antigenically variable pili that mediate its attachment to mucosal surfaces.
Which enzyme is responsible for activating tripsinogen --> Trypsin
(Embedded in the intestinal mucosa)
Type of Collagen deficient in Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
Elevated levels of _____ are seen in Vitamin D Deficiency
Adverse side effect of Riboflavin
Dose-Dependent Hemolytic Anemia
Which STD do you need to notify the Health Department?
"Involuntary facial grimacing and repetitive tongue thrusting"
Which drugs can cause a drug-induced SLE?
Statins mixed with ______ will increase the risk for myopathy.
Daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, and sleep paralysis, some of the classic symptoms of ______ .
Tx for Narcolepsy
Muscle innervated by Axillary Nerve (2)
2. Teres Minor
First sign of Magnesium Sulfate toxicity in treating a Pt with Pre-eclampsia
Pathogenesis of Guillian Barre Syndrome
Autoimmune Inflammation of Peripheral Nerves
Regimen for Treating Testicular Cancer (3)
Effects of LTC4, LTD4 and LTE4 in the lungs
Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy are cause by mutations in _______ .
(i.e. B-myosin heavy chain)
Normocytic anemia with low transferrin, and normal or low-normal total iron-binding capacity (because iron stores are typically high)
Anemia of Chronic Disease
Four days after he starts taking the prescribed medication for treating Acne Vulgaris, severe blistering develops over his face, the back of his neck, and the backs of his hands. What is the drug and what is the adverse reaction?
Another name for ACE inhibitor
Angiotensin Receptor Blocker
Defect in Chronic Granulomatous Disease
NADPH oxidase is defective
What type of organisms are Pts with Chronic Granulomatous Disease more susceptible to?
Catalase (+) Organisms
(Staph Aureus, Aspergillus, Serratia marcescens, Burkholderia cepacia)
Which nutrient is deficient in "Kwashiorkor"?
Which nutrient is deficient in "Marasmus"?
Clinical presentation of Kwashiorkor
Clinical presentation of Marasmus?
Function of CCK (2)
1. Contraction of the Gallbladder
2. Increase in Pancreatic enzyme secretion
CD marker of Pluripotent stem cells (2)
CD34+ and CD38-
Which artery is at most risk following a duodenal ulcer?
Role of mesonephric duct in females
They form "SEED" in males
(Seminiferous Tubules, Epididymis, Ejaculatory Duct, Ductus Deferens)
The best immediate treatment for an infant with hemolytic disease of the newborn is to _______ .
Exchange the Rh-positive blood with Rh-negative blood
Initial treatment for Warm AIHA
MOA of Lorcaserin
Serotonin 2C receptor AGONIST
What do you use Lorcaserin for?
How does Growth Hormone cause Hyperglycemia?
Which organ does Pompes Disease primarily affect?
("Pompes trashes the Pump")
ECG and CXR findings with Pompes Disease
ECG - Short PR intervals and LARGE QRS complexes (Biventricular Hypertrophy)
CXR - Cardiomegaly
Deficient Enzyme in Pompe Disease
Why are Pts with CLL at an increased risk for infection?
Functional defect in non-neoplastic B Cells
Why do Pts with CLL present with AIHA?
Autoantibody production by the malignant or normal B Cells
Earliest sign of alcohol withdraw (within6-24 hours)
What is a curling ulcer?
Ulcer that occurs in the FUNDUS of the stomach of pts with severe burns
Describe the pathogenesis of Curling Ulcers
Severe Burns --> Reduced Plasma Volume --> Mucosal ischemia and necrosis
Tx for Curling Ulcers
What is the most abundant form of RNA?
Which form of RNA is most RESISTANT to RNAases?
Renal abnormality related to Turner Syndrome
Vitamin B3 Deficiency
Only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood
Bilirubin in the bile and urine can be considered _______ .
(Because it already went through the liver)
Sodium stibogluconate is used to treat ______.
Pap smear is an example of _______ prevention.
Sunscreen is an example of _______ prevention.
Which bug causes Genital Ulcers and causes swollen inguinal lymphadenopathy?
Shape of Haemophilus ducreyi
Gram (-) Coccobacillus
Which cranial nerve is related to the second Branchial Arch?
Which cranial nerve is related to the first Branchial Arch?
Which drug should you use for refractory hypertension?
"Centrally-acting alpha-2 agonist"
Abrupt discontinuation of Clonidine will cause ______ .
SEVERE rebound hypertension
Which diseases have Psammoma Bodies?
What is the "Tell-Tale" sign of Erythroblastosis Fetalis?
Previously normal child and this one is having complications
How does an infant keep up the RBC production in Erythroblastosis Fetalis?
Which cells in the human body are responsible for taking care of Step. Pneumo infections?
(Of the Liver)
Major Basic Protein is released from which cell?
(It is a potent Helminthotoxin)
Myeloperoxidase is released from which cell?
"AAA RACKS IN GQ Magazine"
Drugs that INHIBIT CYP450
AAA - Acute Alcoholic Abuse
R - Ritonavir
A - Amiodarone
C - Cimetidine
K - Ketoconazole
S - Sulfonamides
IN - Isoniazid
G - Grapefruit
Q - Quinidine
M - Macrolides
_______ is programmed cell death that involves chromatin aggregation, phagocytosis, cytoplasmic blebs, and apoptotic bodies.
Thrombosis to the PICA is going to cause ______ .
Patient presents with sudden onset hoarseness, dysphagia, ataxia, and alternating hemianalgesia. Which syndrome are you thinking about?
How long do symptoms have to present with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
How does mRNA and tRNA line up?
You have 5' and 3' on the same end
What do positive urine nitrites mean?
There is a BACTERIA in the urine!!!
Equation for Tidal Volume
VD (dead space) = VT (Tidal Volume) × [(PaCO2 – PeCO2) / PaCO2]
What are infants that are taking sulfa drugs most at risk for developing?
Basal Ganglia damage
Which organism is associated with infants that have a PDA?
Wilms Tumor (Most common in kiddos)
Aniridia (Partial or complete lack of the Iris)
________ is an inherited lysosomal storage due to a defect in N-acetylglucosaminyl-1-phosphotransferase
Clinical features of _________ include skeletal abnormalities, corneal clouding, restricted joint movement, coarse facial features, and severe psychomotor impairment.
In which organelle does phosphorylation of structures occur by N-acetylhlucoaminyl-1-phosphotransferase?
Why is it good for Pts with Type 2 DM to EXERCISE?
Exercise can increase the translocation of GLUT4 from intracellular stores to the cell surface
GLUT 4 receptors are found in Adipocytes and Skeletal Muscle
Encapsulated nondimorphic yeast with narrow-based budding
(Think about PIGEON droppings and Pts hanging out at the PARK)
Classic sign of Stomach Adenocarcinoma metastasis
Esophageal Veins arise from which vein?
Left Gastric Vein
Most common bacterial cause of impetigo?
(Followed by Strep. Pyogenes)
What does Nonbullous impetigo start as and end up as?
Start - Eruption of Vesicles on the Face
End - Pustules with a Honey-Comb Crust
What does Bullous impetigo start as and end up as?
Start - Fluid-Filled Bullae
End - Leave a thin-brown Crust
Which Rotator Cuff muscle has the sole purpose of Laterally rotating the humerus?
(2) Motions of Teres Minor
1. Lateral Rotation of Humerus
2. ADduction of Humerus
How can alcoholics most commonly develop edema?
Decreased production of Serum Proteins
MOA of Theophylline