Questions I got WRONG (2) Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Questions I got WRONG (2) Deck (303):
1

Which odd metabolic functions can the Kidneys participate in? (2)

1. Gluconeogenesis (85% of the time)

2. Glycogenolysis (15% of the time)

2

Which enzyme is involved in the rate determining step in Renal Gluconeogenesis?

Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphatase

3

Which enzyme is involved in the rate determining step in Glycolysis?

Phosphofructokinase (PFK)

4

Exposure to aflatoxin can cause which neoplasm?

Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)

5

CKD + Anemia = ______

EPO Deficiency

6

Mechanism of Resistance for aminoglycosides

Covalent Modification via:

1. Acetylation
2. Adenylation
3. Phosphorylation

7

MOA of Mifepristone

Progesterone Agonist

(acts as a competitive antagonist of progesterone)

8

From exclusively which parents DNA do you get a molar pregnancy?

PATERNAL

9

Tx for Diabetic Gastroparesis

Metoclopramide (D2-receptor antagonist)

(Increases Gastric motility)

10

What happens to the intestines with Metoclopramide? (4)

1. Contraction of Lower Esophageal Sphincter

2. Relaxation of the Pylorus

3. Increase in Gastric Contractions

4. Increase in Peristalsis in the duodenum and jejunum

11

Main adverse side effect of Metoclopramide

Extrapyramidal Adverse Effects

(Due to inhibition of Dopamine)

12

First line treatment in Diabetic Pts with Hypertension

ACE Inhibitors

13

"Job Syndrome"

Hyper-IgE syndrome

(TH17 cells fail to produce IL-17)

14

"Failure to synthesize MHCII antigens"

SCID (Severe Combined Immunodeficiency)

15

"Microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion"

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

16

"Partial Albinism, recurrent respiratory and skin infections, and peripheral neuropathy"

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

17

Gene mutation responsible for the findings in "Job Syndrome"

STAT3

18

Tx for long-term management of Atrial Fibrillation

Warfarin

19

Hereditary spastic paraplegia is characterized by progressive lower limb weakness and spasticity due to degeneration of the _______ .

Lateral Corticospinal Tract

20

Function of lateral spinothalamic tract

Pain and Temperature

21

Function of Anterior Corticospinal Tract

Controlling Proximal Muscles (i.e. Trunk)

22

Function of Anterior Spinothalamic Tract

Nerves that respond to crude touch and pressure

23

t(11:22)

Ewing Sarcoma

24

"onion skinning" of the periosteum

Ewing Sarcoma

25

Type of Mutation in Duchene's Muscular Dystrophy

Frame-shift Mutation

(aka Deletion)

26

"Provider projects his or her own thoughts, feeling, past experiences, or issues onto a patient"

Countertransference

27

Classification of the "Lactobacilli" in the vagina

Gram-Positive Facultative Anaerobes

28

Biochemistry: "Coarse facial features, clouded corneas, and restricted range of motion in joints. Elevated serum hydrolase levels"

I-Cell Disease

29

Tx for Bruton agammaglobulinema

IV immunoglobulin

30

Brain tumor that presents with headache and focal neurologic defects

Meningioma

31

Meningiomas arise from which layer of the Brain?

Arachnoid Mater

32

Pts with Neurofibromatosis 2 are at a heightened risk for developing: (3)

1. Cataracts

2. Meningiomas

3. Benign Eye Tumors

33

How old is this baby:

1. Sitting unassisted

2. Grasping items

3. Rolling over

6 months

34

Infants typically retain a positive Babinski sign until _______ .

12-14 months of age

35

Best Tx for Pts that have Rheumatoid Arthritis and are at low risk for cardiovascular disease but at a High Risk for GI disturbances.

Selective COX-2 inhibitors

(i.e. Celecoxib)

36

Which diuretic may worsen Osteoporosis?

Furosemide

(Loop Diuretics)

37

"Autosomal Dominant disease results in a disturbance of both endochondral and membranous bone formation due to a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor-3 (FGF-3 gene)"

Achondroplasia

38

Venous drainage of external hemorrhoidal tissue is via the ______ vein to the ________ .

Inferior Rectal Vein

Inferior Vena Cava

39

Bioabailability of an IV drug (value)

1

40

Maintenance Dose calculation

MD = [(Target plasma concentration * Drug Clearance * Dosage Interval)] / Bioavailability

*** Note that if a drug is given INTRAVENOUSLY, the bioavailability is 1 ***

41

Which (2) embryologic structures form the Median Umbilical Ligament?

1. Allantois

2. Urachus

42

Remnant of the fetal umbilical arteries

Medial Umbilical Ligament

43

Initial treatment for SIADH

Water Restriction

44

Function of Secretin

Acts on pancreatic duct cells to stimulate BICARBONATE secretion

45

Secretin is released in response to which process?

Increased acid and fatty acids in the lumen of the duodenum

46

During a fasting state, which two GI hormones will be increased?

1. Motilin (From the small intestine)

2. Ghrelin (from the Stomach)

47

Stomach distention and vagal stimulation will increase the release of ______ .

Gastrin

(from the ANTRUM of the stomach and duodenum)

48

Fatty acids, amino acids, and oral glucose reaching the duodenum and jejunum will increase the release of _____ .

Glucose-Dependent Insulinotropic Peptide (GIP)

(From Duodenal and Jejunal K CELLS)

49

Which muscle in the mouth is responsible for opening the jaw? What is its innervation?

Lateral Pterygoids (Lateral Lowers the jaw)

Mandibular Branch of Trigeminal Nerve (V3)

50

Lack of germinal centers and the clinical scenario of disease following vaccination with live pathogen suggests a _______ .

B-Lymphocyte Immunodeficiency

51

How would you treat a B-Lymphocyte Immunodeficiency after administration of a Live Pathogen (vaccine)?

Regular IM gamma-globulin injections

52

"Fatigue, drowsiness, and depression" are common side effects of which anti-hypertensive agent?

Clonidine

(a2-receptor agonist)

53

What does SLE and CKD cause to decrease in the Kidneys?

EPO production

54

Treatment for Anemia of Chronic Disease?

EPO administration

55

#1 cause of Death in people 15-24 years old

Injuries

56

Aspirin will not decrease the production of ______ .

Leukotrienes

57

In which organelle are antigen-derived peptides loaded onto MHC class I Molecules?

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

58

Which enzyme converts (alanine and a-ketoglutarate) INTO (pyruvate and glutamate)?!

Alanine Aminotransferase

59

Enzyme involved in the Rate-Limiting step of the Urea Cycle

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

60

Enzyme deficient in Phenylketouria (PKU)

Phenylalanine Hydroxylase

61

Function of Phenylalanine Hydroxylase

Phenylalanine --> Tyrosine

62

"Musty body odor, fair skin, eczema and strict diet"

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

63

Enzyme in step after carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I in the urea cycle

Ornithine transcarbamylase

64

Enzyme in the urea cycle that forms (NH4+ and a-ketoglutarate) FROM (glutamate)

Glutamate Dehydrogenase

65

Which ratio of products in INCREASED in Pts with Alcoholism?

NADH:NAD+

66

An increased NADH:NAD+ ration in the liver leads to inhibition of ______ and subsequent _________ .

Gluconeogenesis

Hypoglycemia

67

Pyruvate is diverted to _____ with an increased NADH:NAD+ ratio

Lactate

68

Clinical presentation of Niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency (4)

"3 D's + Beefy Glossitis"

1. Dermatitis

2. Diarrhea

3. Dementia

4. Beefy Glossitis

69

Vitamin Deficiency:

1. Angular Stomatitis

2. Cheilosis

3. Corneal Vascularization

Riboflavin (vitamin B2)

70

Vitamin Deficiency:

1. Hemolytic Anemia

2. Muscle weakness

3. Posterior Column and Spinocerebellar tract Demyelination

Vitmain E

71

Vitmain Deficiency:

1. Ataxia

2. Opthalmoplegia

3. Confusion

4. Beriberi

Thiamine (vitamin B1)

72

Excess of which vitamin can be teratogenic to Pregnant women?

Vitamin A

73

Vitamin Deficiency:

1. Night Blindness

2. Squamous metaplasia of the corneal epithelium

3. Xerophthalmia

Vitamin A

74

Most common variant of Esophageal Atresia and Tracheoesophageal Fistula

Esophageal Atresia with DISTAL tranesophageal fistula

75

"Inflammatory arthritis that manifests as asymmetric dactyltitis and inflammation of other joints "

Psoriatic arthritis

76

Which organism is cultured via a "Calcium alginate swab" and grown on either a potato (Bordey-Gengou) agar or Regan-Lowe medium?

Bordetella pertussis

77

Tx for Depression and has a relatively safe cardiac profile

Paroxetine (SSRI)

78

Antimalarial drug that can cause Torsades de pointes

Quinine

79

Stain to detect Adenocarcinomas (i.e. Barrett's Esophagus)

Cytokeratin

80

Which Neurotransmitter decreases with age and is responsible for Pts not being able to stay in REM sleep?

Acetylcholine

81

FAP is associated with which 2 syndromes?

1. Turcot Syndrome

2. Gardner Syndrome

82

FAP + Medulloblastoma

Turcot Syndrome

83

FAP + Thyroid/Liver/Kidney Cancers

Gardner Syndrome

84

Which drug is involved in treating Tinea Corporis but might present with Darkening Skin patches after the course of treatment?

KETOCONAZOLE

(Inhibits Desmolase and can cause an increase in ACTH)

85

Essential Amino Acids

PVT TIM HALL

Phenylalanine
Valine
Threonine

Tryptophan
Isoleucine
Methionine

Histidine
Arginine
Leucine
Lysine

86

Only Essential Amino Acid that can donate a Methyl group

Methionine

87

Which acid-base disorder can be cause by Hydroclorothiazide?

Metabolic ALKALOSIS

88

Name the syndrome:

1. Change in mental status

2. Discolored urine

3. Muscle rigidity

4. Fever

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

89

Tx for Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (2)

1. Dantrolene

2. Bromocriptine

90

Which syndrome is Linezolid related to?

Serotonin Syndrome

91

Which (2) drugs can work synergistically to lower LDL levels in Pts with type IIA familial hyperlipidemia?

1. Statins

2. Bile Acid Resins (i.e. Cholestyramine)

92

Brain tumor that has foamy cells and is highly vascular

Hemangioblastoma

(Part of VHL on Chromosome 3)

93

Enzyme deficient in Hunter syndrome

Iduronate sulfatase

94

Mode of inheritence of Hunter syndrome

X-linked recessive

95

Which syndrome presents WITHOUT corneal clouding and coarsened facial features, mildly aggressive behavior, pearly skin lesions on their scapulae

Hunter Syndrome

96

Syndrome deficient in a-L-iduronidase

Hurler syndrome

97

Big clinical presentation with Hurler syndrome when comparing it to Hunter syndrome

Corneal Clouding

98

Syndrome deficient in galactosamine-6-sulfatase OR B-galactosidase

Morquio syndrome

99

Syndrome deficient in B-glucuronidase

Sly syndrome

100

Syndrome deficient in sulfamidase

Sanfilippo Syndrome

101

Clinical presentation of Sanfilippo Syndrome (3)

1. SLEEP DISORDERS are common

2. Developmental delay

3. Behavior problems (aggressive, hyperactive)

102

How do you differentiate the clinical presentations of Sly syndrome and Hurler Syndrome?

Intellectual disability is NOT a significant component of Sly syndrome

103

Mode of inheritance of Sly Syndrome

Autosomal Recessive

104

How do you differentiate the clinical presentations of Morquio syndrome from Hurler syndrome?

Morquio syndrome will present with VALVULAR heart disease

105

3 D's associated with Vitamin B3 deficiency

1. Dermatitis

2. Diarrhea

3. Dementia

106

What type of organism commonly causes lung abscesses in pts who have lost conciousness, alcoholics, and debilitated persons?

ANAEROBIC organisms

107

Weight loss, painless jaundice, and migratory thrombophlebitis are signs of ________ .

Pancreatic Cancer

108

Syndrome that is classically assocaited with Pancreatic Cancer

Trousseau syndrome

109

What is the root of the problem in pts with Trousseau syndrome?

State of Hypercoagulability

110

What can happen to pts with G6PD deficiency when they are exposed to oxidizing agents (i.e. primaquine)?

Hemolytic anemia

111

Unstable trinucleotide repeats, as seen in Friedreich ataxia, can _______ .

Impede Gene Transcription

112

Which drug (Cimetidine or Ranitidine) will cause gynecomastia?

Cimetidine

113

The most common mutation in CF Pts results in a defect in which aspect of the ion transporter's assembly?

Endoplasmic Reticulum Processing

114

What structure fails to form in a fetus with Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia?

Pleuroperitoneal Folds

115

What should you think when you see "Pale Conjunctiva"?

Iron Deficient Anemia

116

Hyperbaric Oxygen is used to reverse ________ .

CO poisoning

117

Thiosulfate + Sodium nitrate is used to reverse ________ .

Cyanide Poisoning

118

Methemoglobinemia may occur as an adverse side effect of _______ .

Dapsone

119

Methylene blue is used to reverse __________ .

Dapsone Poisoning

120

What is the presenting sign of Pts with Leukocyte Adhesion deficiency?

Delayed Separation of the umbilical cord stump

121

Which protein is defective in Leukocyte Adhesion deficiency?

CD18

122

Inheritence of Neurofibromatosis

Autosomal Dominant

123

Tx for Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

1. Ceftriaxone

2. Azithromycin

124

Which antihypertensive drug should be used with caution in patients with diabetes because of the risk of masking the symptoms of hypoglycemia?

B-Blockers (i.e. metoprolol)

125

__________ bind to gram-negative bacterial cell membrane phospholipids and destroy the membrane by acting like a detergent.

Polymyxins

126

Main toxicity of Polymyxins

Neurotoxicity

127

Tx for HIGHLY resistant bacteria (i.e. Klebsiella or P. aeruginosa)

Polymyxins B and E (i.e. colistin)

128

Which type of Pneumothorax will cause tracheal deviation?

Tension Pneumothorax

129

Mode of inheritence of Lynch Syndrome (aka HNPCC)

Autosomal Dominant

130

Childhood tumor that is found in the cerebellar midline with small blue cells arranged in Homer-Wright Rosettes.

Medulloblastomas

131

Sweating, palpitations and lightheadedness are common symptoms of ________ .

Hypoglycemia

132

Only immunoglobulin that can be passed from mother to fetus

IgG

133

Strongest risk factor associated with SCC of the Larynx

Smoking

134

Which set of lymph nodes do Choriocarcinomas spread to in males?

Para-aortic (Lumbar)

135

Characteristics of Dermatitis herpetiformis

Erythematous, vesicular rash

136

Another name for "von Recklinghausen's disease of the bone"

Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica

137

MOA of Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica

Untreated Hyperparathyroidism

(Elevated Ca2+, Low Phosphate, High Alkaline Phosphatase)

138

Necrolytic migratory erythema is a characteristic skin finding of a ________ .

Glucagonoma

139

The superficial arch in the hand is a continuation of _______ while the deep arch is a continuation of the ________ .

Ulnar Artery (Superficial)

Radial Artery (DEEP)

140

PDA is a defect of which aortic arch?

6th

141

When do you use Doxycycline vs. Ceftriaxone when treating lyme disease?

Doxycycline --> Facial Nerve Palsy

Ceftriaxone --> Neurologic or Severe Heart Symptoms

142

Side effects of Tetracyclines (3)

1. Photosensitivity

2. GI Issues

3. Tooth discoloration BUT ONLY in children

143

What do Barbiturates do to CYP?

INDUCE

144

These 5 "P's" are associated with _____ :

1. Painful abdomen

2. Port wine colored urine (due to excessive excretion of porphobilinogen)

3. Polyneuropathy

4. Psychological Disturbances

5. Precipitation by drugs or starvation/ETOH use

Acute Intermittent Porphyria

145

Tx for Acute Intermittent Porphyria (2)

1. Glucose

2. Heme

(They will inhibit ALA synthetase)

146

Which cells DO NOT use GLUT transporters to get Glucose insider their cells?

1. Enterocytes

2. Kidneys

147

What is the vitamin deficiency:

Cracking of the lips and corners of the mouth and corneal vascularization

Riboflavin (B2)

148

What is the vitamin deficiency:

Dermatitis, diarrhea, and a swollen tongue

Niacin (B3)

149

What is the vitamin deficiency:

Dilated cardiomyopathy, edema

Thiamine (B1; Wet Beriberi)

150

What is the vitamin deficiency:

Night blindness, dry skin, and impaired immune response

Vitamin A

151

What is the vitamin deficiency:

Perifollicular and subperiosteal hemorrhages

Vitamin C

152

Bone marrow aspirate with the presence of macrophages engulfing RBCs

Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis

153

Tx of Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (3)

1. Etoposide

2. Methotrexate

3. Corticosteroids

154

3 Basics steps of PCR

1. Denaturation to separate the DNA strands

2. Annealing of primers to complimentary sequences on each of the strands

3. Replication by heat-stable DNA polymerase

155

Which drug do you use for ischemic strokes that happened within 3 hours without any contraindications?

tPA

(Plasminogen --> Plasmin)

156

Which nerves come off of the posterior cord?

1. Axillary (Shoulder ABduction)

2. Radial (Wrist and arm extension)

157

Secondary confirmatory Dx on Ultrasound for Gallstones in the cystic duct

Gallbladder Wall Thickening

158

"Mittelschmerz"

Irritation from rupture of follicle in the middle of the menstrual cycle

159

Small angular muscle fibers

ALS

160

"Bunina Bodies"

Periodic acid-Schiff-positive cytplasmic inclusioins that are remnants of autophagic vacuoles

Found in LOWER MOTOR NEURONS in pts with ALS

161

De Quervian thyroidits

Transient hypothytroidism seen after a viral illness

162

Treatment for Copper Toxicity

Penicillamine

163

Enzyme deficient in VonGierke's Disease

Glucose-6-Phosphatase

164

Which drug inhibits these two enzymes?

1. Glycerophosphate Dehydrogenase
2. Complex I

Metformin

165

Alkaline Phosphatase is a marker of bone ______ .

Formation

166

MOA Filgrastim

G-CSF recombinant cytokine used to augment the recovery of bone marrow while on immunosuppressive regiments

167

Phenylalanine is a precursor to ______ .

Tyrosine

168

Treatment for BPH

Tamsulosin (alpha-1 antagonist)

169

Which organs are in the retroperitoneal space?

SAD PUCKER

S - Suprarenal (adrenal) glands)
A - Aorta and IVC
D - Duodenum (2nd and 4th parts)

P - Pancreas (except the Tail)
U - Ureters
C - Descending and Ascending
K - Kidneys
E - Lower 2/3
R - Rectum (Partially)

170

Symptoms of jaundice and new-onset diabetes mellitus usually present in the late stages of _______ .

Pancreatic Cancer

171

Drug class of Phenlzine

MAO Inhibitor

172

Examples of Passive immunization

"To Be Healed Very Rapidly"

T - Tetanus
B - Botulism
H - Hepatitis B
V - Varicella
R - Rabies

173

Another name for "Infundibulopelvic Ligament"

Suspensory Ligament

174

In which ligament do the ovarian vessels run within?

Suspensory Ligament

175

"Splitting" is the defense mechanism associated with ______ .

Borderline Personality Disorder

176

Which hepatitis virus is prevalent in Africa, Asia and much of eastern europe?

Hepatitis B

177

alpha-interferon is one of the treatment options for management of _______ .

Kaposi Sarcoma

178

Which drug are you going to use to treat drug-induced Diabetic Nephropathy?

ACE inhibitors

179

Competitive inhibitors are going to _____ the Michaelis-Menten constant.

Increase

180

Leuprolide is used to treat _____ .

Metastatic Prostate Cancer

181

"Sign of Leser-Tresat" skin mainfestation

Multiple Suborrheic keratoses

182

"Sign of Leser-Tresat" associated cancer

GI Adenocarcinomas

183

Paraneoplastic syndrome that is going to cause Hypercalcemia via the release of PTHrP

Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Lung

184

Type B Gastritis

Infection with H. Pylori

185

Patient presents with weakness, increased respiratory effort, an enlarged liver on exam, and a chest X-ray suggesting an enlarged cardiac contour

Pompe Disease

(Glycogen is Accumulating in the Liver due to a defect in lysosomal alpha 1,4-glucosidase)

186

Describe the neuronal pathway in Parkinsons Disease

Dopaminergic Neurons from the Substantia Nigra project INTO the Striatum (putamen and caudate)

187

Characteristic berry-like cytoplasmic inclusions in macrophages or neutrophils

Ehrlichia chaffeensis

188

MOA of Leuprolide

GnRH analog

189

Most common tumor in the GU tract that presents with Painless Hematuria

Transitional Cell Carcinoma

190

Which compound can Ceramic workers be exposed to?

Lead

191

Lead poisoning is due to inhibition of _______ .

ALA Dehydrogenase

192

Chédiak-Higashi disease

Abnormal cellular trafficking which results in failure of phagolysosome formation

193

Organ that most likely is removed to control bleed after blunt injuries to the abdomen

Spleen

194

What shows up on histology in patients that have undergone a splenectomy? (2)

1. Target Cells (Codocytes)

2. Howell-Jolly Bodies

195

Most common cause of neonatal meningitis

Group B Streptococcus

196

What type of emphysema do you see in the lungs of a patient with Alpha1-Antitrypsin Deficiency?

PANacinar Emphysema

(PiZZ mutation = Serving "PiZZa in a PAN"

197

Symptoms of Schizophrenia are due to an increase in which neurotransmitter?

Dopamine

(In the mesolimbic system)

198

Osmotic damage to the lens in a Patient with T1DM can cause Cataract formation. Why?

Increase in Sorbitol in the cell

199

Coenzyme responsible for Catecholamine (DA, Epi, NE) Production and PKU

BH4 (Tetrahydrobiopterin)

200

The ______ test is conducted by asking the patient to stand with feet together and eyes closed, while observing if the patient falls, loses his balance, or sways

Rhomberg

201

Positive Rhomberg test tells you what?

Problem with the Medial Lemniscus

202

Pts with PKU need a dietary supplement of ______ .

Tyrosine

203

Short acting Benzodiazepines (4)

"ATOM"

Alprazolam
Triazolam
Oxazepam
Midazolam

204

Dark urine and dark cartilage is due to which defective enzyme and it causes which amino acid to build up?

Homogentisic Acid Oxidase (Alkaptonuria)

Tyrosine

205

What does stenosis of the Renal artery do to GFR?

Decreases GFR

(causes the release of Renin in the Specific renal vein)

206

Is Rheumatic Fever an autoimmune disease?

Yes

207

In Pts with a Group A Step infection, Impetigo usually precedes ______ .

Glomerulonephritis

208

Type of Hypersensitivity reaction associated with Rheumatic Fever

Type 2

(Antibodies to M-Protein cross react with self antigens)

209

Where in the pancreas are VIPomas typically found?

Tail

210

Verner-Morrison Syndrome

EXCESSIVE VIP secretion --> Inhibition of Gastric Acid secretion (Achlorhydria) leads to an INCREASE in Chloride in the blood

"WDHA"

Watery Diarrhea, HypoKalemia, Achlorhydria

211

After acute lung injury, Type 2 Pneumocytes can differentiate into ____ .

Type 1 AND Type 2 pneumocytes

212

Midsystolic murmur that decreased with hand grip (increased total peripheral resistance) and increased with a Valsalva maneuver (decreased venous return) suggest ________ .

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

213

________ have specialized antigenically variable pili that mediate its attachment to mucosal surfaces.

N. Gonorrhea

214

Which enzyme is responsible for activating tripsinogen --> Trypsin

Enterokinase

(Embedded in the intestinal mucosa)

215

Type of Collagen deficient in Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

Type 3

216

Elevated levels of _____ are seen in Vitamin D Deficiency

PTH

217

Adverse side effect of Riboflavin

Dose-Dependent Hemolytic Anemia

218

Which STD do you need to notify the Health Department?

N. Gonorrhea

219

"Involuntary facial grimacing and repetitive tongue thrusting"

Tardive Dyskinesia

220

Which drugs can cause a drug-induced SLE?

"SHIPP-E"

Sulfa Drugs
Hydralizine
Isoniazid
Phenytoin
Procainamide
Etanercept

221

Statins mixed with ______ will increase the risk for myopathy.

Fibrates (Gemfibrozil)

222

Daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, and sleep paralysis, some of the classic symptoms of ______ .

Narcolepsy

223

Tx for Narcolepsy

Modafinil

224

Muscle innervated by Axillary Nerve (2)

1. Deltoid

2. Teres Minor

225

First sign of Magnesium Sulfate toxicity in treating a Pt with Pre-eclampsia

Hyporeflexia

226

Pathogenesis of Guillian Barre Syndrome

Autoimmune Inflammation of Peripheral Nerves

227

Regimen for Treating Testicular Cancer (3)

BEP

Bleomycin
Etoposide
Cisplatin

228

Effects of LTC4, LTD4 and LTE4 in the lungs

Bronchoconstriction

229

Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy are cause by mutations in _______ .

Sarcomeres

(i.e. B-myosin heavy chain)

230

Normocytic anemia with low transferrin, and normal or low-normal total iron-binding capacity (because iron stores are typically high)

Anemia of Chronic Disease

231

Four days after he starts taking the prescribed medication for treating Acne Vulgaris, severe blistering develops over his face, the back of his neck, and the backs of his hands. What is the drug and what is the adverse reaction?

Tetracyclins

Photosensitivity Reaction

232

Another name for ACE inhibitor

Angiotensin Receptor Blocker

233

Defect in Chronic Granulomatous Disease

NADPH oxidase is defective

234

What type of organisms are Pts with Chronic Granulomatous Disease more susceptible to?

Catalase (+) Organisms

(Staph Aureus, Aspergillus, Serratia marcescens, Burkholderia cepacia)

235

Which nutrient is deficient in "Kwashiorkor"?

Protein

236

Which nutrient is deficient in "Marasmus"?

Calories

237

Clinical presentation of Kwashiorkor

"MEAL"

Malnutrition
Edema
Anemia
Liver (fatty)

238

Clinical presentation of Marasmus?

Muscle wasting

239

Function of CCK (2)

1. Contraction of the Gallbladder

2. Increase in Pancreatic enzyme secretion

240

CD marker of Pluripotent stem cells (2)

CD34+ and CD38-

241

Which artery is at most risk following a duodenal ulcer?

Gastroduodenal Artery

242

Role of mesonephric duct in females

NO ROLE

They form "SEED" in males

(Seminiferous Tubules, Epididymis, Ejaculatory Duct, Ductus Deferens)

243

The best immediate treatment for an infant with hemolytic disease of the newborn is to _______ .

Exchange the Rh-positive blood with Rh-negative blood

244

Initial treatment for Warm AIHA

Corticosteroids

245

MOA of Lorcaserin

Serotonin 2C receptor AGONIST

246

What do you use Lorcaserin for?

Weight Loss

247

How does Growth Hormone cause Hyperglycemia?

Insulin Resistance

248

Which organ does Pompes Disease primarily affect?

HEART

("Pompes trashes the Pump")

249

ECG and CXR findings with Pompes Disease

ECG - Short PR intervals and LARGE QRS complexes (Biventricular Hypertrophy)

CXR - Cardiomegaly

250

Deficient Enzyme in Pompe Disease

alpha-1,4 Glucosidase

251

Why are Pts with CLL at an increased risk for infection?

Functional defect in non-neoplastic B Cells

252

Why do Pts with CLL present with AIHA?

Autoantibody production by the malignant or normal B Cells

253

Earliest sign of alcohol withdraw (within6-24 hours)

Hand Tremors

254

What is a curling ulcer?

Ulcer that occurs in the FUNDUS of the stomach of pts with severe burns

255

Describe the pathogenesis of Curling Ulcers

Severe Burns --> Reduced Plasma Volume --> Mucosal ischemia and necrosis

256

Tx for Curling Ulcers

PPI

(i.e. Omeprazole)

257

What is the most abundant form of RNA?

rRNA

258

Which form of RNA is most RESISTANT to RNAases?

rRNA

259

Renal abnormality related to Turner Syndrome

Horseshoe Kidney

260

Pollagra

Vitamin B3 Deficiency

261

Only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood

Pulmonary Arteries

262

Bilirubin in the bile and urine can be considered _______ .

Conjugated

(Because it already went through the liver)

263

Sodium stibogluconate is used to treat ______.

Leishmania donovani

264

Pap smear is an example of _______ prevention.

Secondary

265

Sunscreen is an example of _______ prevention.

Primary

266

Which bug causes Genital Ulcers and causes swollen inguinal lymphadenopathy?

Haemophilus ducreyi

267

Shape of Haemophilus ducreyi

Gram (-) Coccobacillus

268

Which cranial nerve is related to the second Branchial Arch?

CN VII

269

Which cranial nerve is related to the first Branchial Arch?

CN V

270

Which drug should you use for refractory hypertension?

Clonidine

"Centrally-acting alpha-2 agonist"

271

Abrupt discontinuation of Clonidine will cause ______ .

SEVERE rebound hypertension

272

Which diseases have Psammoma Bodies?

"PSaMMoma Bodies"

Papillary Thyroid
Serous Ovary
Meningioma
Mesothelioma

273

What is the "Tell-Tale" sign of Erythroblastosis Fetalis?

Previously normal child and this one is having complications

274

How does an infant keep up the RBC production in Erythroblastosis Fetalis?

Extramedullary Hematopoiesis

275

Which cells in the human body are responsible for taking care of Step. Pneumo infections?

Kuppfer Cells

(Of the Liver)

276

Major Basic Protein is released from which cell?

Eosinophils

(It is a potent Helminthotoxin)

277

Myeloperoxidase is released from which cell?

Neutrophils

278

"AAA RACKS IN GQ Magazine"

Drugs that INHIBIT CYP450

AAA - Acute Alcoholic Abuse

R - Ritonavir

A - Amiodarone

C - Cimetidine

K - Ketoconazole

S - Sulfonamides

IN - Isoniazid

G - Grapefruit

Q - Quinidine

M - Macrolides

279

_______ is programmed cell death that involves chromatin aggregation, phagocytosis, cytoplasmic blebs, and apoptotic bodies.

Apoptosis

280

Thrombosis to the PICA is going to cause ______ .

Wallenberg Syndrome

281

Patient presents with sudden onset hoarseness, dysphagia, ataxia, and alternating hemianalgesia. Which syndrome are you thinking about?

Wallenberg Syndrome

282

How long do symptoms have to present with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?

>6 Months

283

How does mRNA and tRNA line up?

You have 5' and 3' on the same end

284

What do positive urine nitrites mean?

There is a BACTERIA in the urine!!!

285

Equation for Tidal Volume

VD (dead space) = VT (Tidal Volume) × [(PaCO2 – PeCO2) / PaCO2]

286

What are infants that are taking sulfa drugs most at risk for developing?

Basal Ganglia damage

287

Which organism is associated with infants that have a PDA?

Rubella!

288

WAGR Syndrome

Wilms Tumor (Most common in kiddos)

Aniridia (Partial or complete lack of the Iris)

Genital anomalies

Mental Retardation

289

________ is an inherited lysosomal storage due to a defect in N-acetylglucosaminyl-1-phosphotransferase

I-Cell Disease

290

Clinical features of _________ include skeletal abnormalities, corneal clouding, restricted joint movement, coarse facial features, and severe psychomotor impairment.

I-Cell Disease

291

In which organelle does phosphorylation of structures occur by N-acetylhlucoaminyl-1-phosphotransferase?

Golgi Appartaus

292

Why is it good for Pts with Type 2 DM to EXERCISE?

Exercise can increase the translocation of GLUT4 from intracellular stores to the cell surface

GLUT 4 receptors are found in Adipocytes and Skeletal Muscle

293

Which organism:

Encapsulated nondimorphic yeast with narrow-based budding

Cryptococcus Neoformans

(Think about PIGEON droppings and Pts hanging out at the PARK)

294

Classic sign of Stomach Adenocarcinoma metastasis

Virchow's Node

(Supraclavicular Lymphadenopathy)

295

Esophageal Veins arise from which vein?

Left Gastric Vein

296

Most common bacterial cause of impetigo?

Staph. Aureus

(Followed by Strep. Pyogenes)

297

What does Nonbullous impetigo start as and end up as?

Start - Eruption of Vesicles on the Face

End - Pustules with a Honey-Comb Crust

298

What does Bullous impetigo start as and end up as?

Start - Fluid-Filled Bullae

End - Leave a thin-brown Crust

299

Which Rotator Cuff muscle has the sole purpose of Laterally rotating the humerus?

Infraspinatus

300

(2) Motions of Teres Minor

1. Lateral Rotation of Humerus

2. ADduction of Humerus

301

How can alcoholics most commonly develop edema?

Decreased production of Serum Proteins

(i.e. Albumin)

302

MOA of Theophylline

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitor

303

"FAT RN"

Pneumonic for pts with TTP

F - Fever

A - microangiopathic hemolytic Anemia

T - Thrombocytopenia

R - Renal Failure

N - Neurologic Distrubances