Flashcards in Questions I got Wrong (3) Deck (290):
Which structures develop from the Mesonephric (aka Wolffian) ducts?
First Line Treatment for PJP
Mode of Inheritence of Leber Hereditary Optic Neuropathy (LHON)
Which metabolite in the urine will turn black upon standing?
Alkaptonuria is a deficiency in which enzyme?
Homogentistic Acid Oxidase
Homogentistic Acid Oxidase is involved in the breakdown of which molecule?
If you have excess ______, it can make Alkaptonuria worse.
Which molecule builds up in the tissue and excreted urine in patients with Alkaptonuria?
Mode of Inheritence of Alkaptonuria
Adverse effects of Thiazolidinediones
1. Peripheral Edema (water retention)
2. Heart Failure
3. Weight Gain
4. Decreased Bone density
Which anti-microbial drug will cause Aplastic Anemia?
(Binds to 50s)
Next Step in HIV management after Western Blot?
Quantify the Viral Load and establish a risk profile by obtaining a CD4 cell count
What are the (4) inactivated vaccintes?
Cranial nerve responsible for 1st Branchial arch structures
Cranial nerve responsible for 2nd Branchial arch structures
Cranial nerve responsible for 3rd Branchial arch structures
Cranial nerve responsible for 4-6th Branchial arch structures
"When at the restaurant of the golden ARCHES, children tend to first CHEW, then SMILE, then SWALLOW STYLishly or SIMPLY SWALLOW, and then SPEAK"
Nerves responsible for the various Branchial Arches
1 - Chew (CN V - V2 and V3)
2 - Smile (CN VII)
3 - Swallow Stylishly (CN IX - Stylopharyngeus)
4 - Simply Swallow (CN X - Superior Laryngeal Branch)
6 - Speak (CN X - Recurrent Laryngeal Branch)
Which muscles are derived from the 1st Branchial Arch?
"MATT" + Muscles of Mastication
M - Mylohyoid
A - Anterior Belly of the Digastric
T - Tensor Tympani
T - Tensor Veli Palatini
Alkylating agent that cross-links DNA @ Guanine
Prophylactic Treatment for a Pt about to receive Cyclophosphamide
Mensa + Fluids
Artery and Nerve in the Anterior Compartment of the leg
Anterior Tibial Artery
Deep Peroneal Nerve
Nerve in the Lateral Compartment of the leg
Superficial Peroneal Nerve
Artery and Nerve in the Posterior Compartment of the leg
Posterior Tibial Artery
Side-Effects of SERMs
Inducing symptoms of Menopause
(i.e. Vaginal dryness, HOT FLASHES, etc.)
"Helmet-Shaped" RBCs are commonly seen in which process?
Which form of Glutathione is going to build up in Pts with G6PD?
Ras belongs to which family?
Guanosine Triphosphate-Binding Protein
Tx for Wilsons Disease
1. Chelation with Penicillamine (Chemical Antagonist)
2. Oral Zinc
Triad of Meniere Disesae
1. Sensorineural hearing loss
Which type of frequency (low vs. High) is lost in Meniere Disease?
Cause of Meniere Disease
Increase in the volume of ENDOLYMPH
Will Meniere Disease present with Nystagmus?
What is Charcot triad? Which disease is it related to?
2. RUQ Pain
Will you see jaundice in Choledocolithiasis?
What type of vitamin deficiency presents with Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome? Explain.
Vitamin B9 and B12 (Hypersegmented Neutrophils)
You are inhibiting the recycling of purines, the body then relies on DE NOVO synthesis which will deplete the Vitamin B9 and B12 levels
What type of adverse blood cell will you see on a blood smear in a patient with Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome?
Beta-blockers can ______ in pts with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State
"Chest x-ray shows scattered opacities, likely calcifications, in the peripheral lymph nodes of the upper lobes."
Chemical antagonist for Lead
Chemical antagonist for Wilsons Disease
Chemical antagonist for Iron
Neurologic deficits due to a vascular infarct and you see the tongue of the pt is deviating upon protrusion. What are you automatically thinking about?
Medial Medullary Syndrome
An infarct of the __________ produces contralateral weakness in an upper motor neuron pattern (due to damage to the corticospinal tract in the medullary pyramids), which is seen with this patient’s hyperreflexia in the arm and leg. Loss of proprioception and vibratory sensation (due to damage to the medial lemniscus) occurs below the neck, while sparing the face.
Which artery is involved in Medial Medullary Syndrome?
Anterior Spinal Artery (@ the medulla)
Which enters the CNS more rapidly? (Direct or Indirect Sympathometics)?
Which has a better Bioavaliability? (Direct or Indirect Sympathometics)
(They are normally given IV)
Which are longer lasting? (Direct or Indirect Sympathometics)
Which bug is related to Aspiration Pneumonia?
(i.e. Bacteroides fragilis and Prevotella)
Clinical presentation of Aspiration Pneumonia?
Foul Smelling breath
(In alcoholics or unconscious patients)
Name the 2 dominant mutations present with Turcot Syndrome
1. APC (FAP + Medulloblastoma)
2. MLH1 DNA mismatch repair gene (FAP + Glioblastoma Multiforme)
Two lab tests that you can order to diagnose HELLP syndrome associated with prengnancy
1. Liver Function Tests
2. Blood Smear (hemolysis)
Perineal tear during pregnancy and problems with holding in stool
External Anal Spincter
Damage to the Levator ani muscles during childbirth will lead to ________ .
Pt hasn't had a period but the ovaries and uterus are normal. She also has hypertension. What are you thinking?
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
Pts with HLA-DR5 have an increased risk of developing (2)
1. Hashimotos Thyroiditis
2. Pernicious Anemia
The vaccine against Haemophilus influenzae targets ________ .
(i.e. Type b polysaccharide capsule)
The vaccine against Salmonella Typhi targets ____________ .
Symptoms of Hypoglycemia (2)
Which drug should you use cautiously in Pts with CHF due to its ability to Mask Hypoglycemia?
Typical Presentation of Pts with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State
1. Dehydrated (i.e Dry mucous membranes, decreased skin tugor)
Describe the various steps of the action potential in SMOOTH muscle.
1. Action potentials depolarize the myocyte membrane (activating voltage-gated calcium channels)
2. Calcium then binds and activates calmodulin (activates myosin light-chain kinase (MLCK))
3. MLCK phosphorylates MYOSIN (allowing it to form cross bridges with actin)
4. Resulting in muscle contraction
Where does calcium bind in a Skeletal Muscle vs a Smooth Muscle?
Skeletal: Troponin C
Smooth: Calmodulin (which will activate myosin light-chain kinase)
Best treatment for ventricular fibrillation?
(i.e. Lidocaine or Mexiletine)
Which drug class is the BEST to use post-MI for acute ventricular arrhythmias?
(i.e. Lidocaine or Mexiletine)
Which drug class is used in REFRACTORY ventricular tachycardia as a "last resort" medication?
(i.e. Flecainide and Propafenone)
Which drug class is contraindicated in structural and iscehmic heart disease?
(i.e. Flecainide and Propafenone)
Drugs that are contraindicated in pregnancy
Symptoms of Hypoglycemia
Diaphoresis / Depression
What is the cause of Thyrotoxicosis Factitia?
Taking too much Endogenous Levothyroxine
What is the patient population who is at risk for taking too much Levothyroxine?
Fitness Ethusiasts that are trying to lose weight
Thyroid Functional studies associated with "Thyrotoxicosis Factitia"?
TSH - Decreased
T3 - Increased
T4 - Increased ("Free thyroxine")
At what % of arterial blockage will you see stable angina?
Which drug has the adverse side-effect of fat redistribution, predominately around the face? (it's not glucocorticoids)
If the anterior or posterior tibial artery is occluded, which artery in the foot is going to ensure adequate profusion?
Which artery in the foot is a branch off of the Dorsal Artery of the foot and sends perforating branches down to the plantar artery of the foot?
What is the lead point in pts with Intestinal Intussusception?
Hyperplasia of the Peyers Patches
What is the function of Peyer's Patches in the Intestine?
M cells within the Peyers Patches take up antigens and PRESENT them to B-Cells which will then secrete IgA antibodies in response to that antigen
First response to hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage
How to diagnose C. Difficile
If you have a mutation in the ______ receptor, HIV will not be able to enter the cells via the macrophages
Ziehl-Neelsen Stain is used for which organisms? (3)
3. Cryptosporidium oocytes
(i.e. Acid-Fast bacteria/protozoa)
Giemsa stain is used for which organisms? (5)
"Certain Bugs Really Test my Patience"
What does Periodic acid-Schiff stain?
Stains Glycogen and mucopolysaccharides
"PaSs the sugar"
(Dx of Whipple Disease / Tropheryma whipplei)
MOA of Theophylline
(Increases cAMP intracellularly)
What type of drug should you use to treat an overdose of Theophylline
(It will decrease cAMP levels)
(Use a cardioselective B-Blocker if the pt has Asthma)
Why would a baby, who is receiving formula and breast feeding, develop anemia?
Breast milk does not have much IRON in it and you can develop a MICROCYTIC anemia if you do not supplement
How do you develop a Microcytic Anemia?
Cell volume decreases due to heme synthesis impairment caused by a lack of iron (or other causes)
Explain how "severe underperfusion of peripheral muscles" can lead to an elevated anion gap acidosis
Causes elevated levels of LACTIC ACID
Normal Anion Gap
What is going to cause a metabolic acidosis with a HIGH anion gap?
Lactic acidosis (i.e. anerobic metabolism of muscles or underperfusion of peripheral muscles)
Ethylene glyco (i.e. anti-freeze)
Salicylates (i.e. aspirin)
Which drugs most commonly have zero order kinetics?
Treatment for Kaposi Sarcoma
Ulcerated lesion in the nose associated with Hemoptasis and kidney problems
Which two diseases can present with an absent thymic shadow?
DiGeorge Syndrome (Has cardiac and facial problems too!)
Why do pts have multiple fractures in CKD?
Pts with CKD have elevated Ca2+ levels and leads to elevated PTH secretion
Phosphate will then bind to Calcium in the blood and cause HYPOCALCEMIA
PTH also binds to osteoblasts which will increase RANKL which will inhibit the release of osteoprotegrin and increase osteoclastic activity.
5% of _______ present with MEN1, but they are mainly sporadic
Clinical presentation of VIPomas
Diarrhea with HYPOKALEMIA
Muscle weakness, tetany and possible paralysis due to Hypokalemia
Vitamin deficiency with perifollicular and subperiosteal hemorrhage
Why is AST higher than ALT in pts with yellow fever?
Damage to muscle!
Triad of Plummer Vision Syndrome
1. Iron deficiency Anemia
2. Atrophic Glossitis
3. Esophageal Webs
Painful mucosal lacerations of the distal esophagus
Which one is more common: Hodgkin or non-Hodgkin Lymphoma?
Triad for normal pressure hydrocephalus
1. Urinary Incontinence
2. Gait ataxia
("Wet - Wacky - Weird")
Painful swallowing/odynophagia can present with compression of which cranial nerves and ischemia to which part of the brainstem?
CN IX and X
Ischemia to the medulla
_______ is administrated in Pts to increase the cytotoxicity of 5-FU
Tender raise lesions on fingers and toe pads
Round, white spots on the retina surrounded by hemorrhage
Small blood clots that run vertically under the fingernails
Modified Duke Criteria
Dx of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis
1. Predisiposing factor (history of mitral valves prolapse)
2. Temperature >38C
3. Vascular phenomena (patient has signs of microemboli)
4. Immunologic phenomena (patient has Osler nodes - tender, raised lesions)
5) Microbiologic evidence (most likely organism is Strep Viridans)
What are the various things (3) seen with microemboli?
1. Osler Nodes
2. Roth Spots
3. Splinter Hemorrhages
Pneumonic for infective endocarditis
Nail Hemorrhage (splinter hemorrhages)
First-Line treatment for SEVERE nausea and vomiting due to chemotherapy treatment
Treatment for motion sickness
Tx for nausea and vomiting but you have to watch out in pts with Parkinsons Disease
Treatments for post-operative associated nausea or in vestibular/labyrinthine disorders
Which laryngeal muscle develops from Pharyngeal arch 4?
(innervated by the SUPERIOR LARYNGEAL nerve)
Pharyngeal Pouch 1 gives rise to _______ .
External auditory meatus
Pharyngeal Pouch 2 gives rise to ________ .
Epithelial lining of the Palatine Tonsils
Pharyngeal Pouch 3 gives rise to _______ .
1. Inferior Parathyroids (Dorsal Wings)
2. Thymus (Ventral Wings)
Pharyngeal Pouch 4 gives rise to _______ .
1. Superior Parathyroids (Dorsal Wings)
2. Ultimobrachial body and Parafollicular C cells of the Thyroid (Ventral Wings)
DiGeorge Syndrome involves aberrant development of which Pharyngeal Pouches?
3rd and 4th
If a pt suffers complete thrombosis to the Basilar artery, they are most likely going to have ______ .
Presentation of Locked-in Syndrome
Completely Paralyzed but consciously intact
Pts can feel, hear, see and understand everything going on in their environment
Locked-in syndrome involves which tracts?
1. Corticospinal Tracts
2. Corticobulbar Tracts
Which muscle is the only ABductor of the vocal cords?
Posterior Cricoarytenoid Muscles
(innervated by Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve)
Patient with episodic flushing and diarrhea, in combination with shortness of breath
Malignant Carcinoid Syndrome
Typically, 90% of carcinoid tumors originate from the ________ or _______ .
Carcinoid tumors are typically asymptomatic until _________ .
Metastasis to the liver occurs
Why is carcinoid syndrome typically asymptomatic before it spreads to the liver?
Metabolically active metabolites are normally INACTIVATED by the liver
Once liver mets has occured, the metabollically active metabolites will be secreted directly into the systemic circulation via the HEPATIC PORTAL VEIN
What are the main (3) vasoactive substances and their effects that are present in Carcinoid syndrome?
1. Serotonin (causes fibrosis in the tricuspid and pulmonary valve)
2. Gastrin (nausea and diarrhea)
3. Histamine (flushing of the skin)
MOA of Procarbazine
Physiologic function of Angiotensin II
Binds to Angiotensin Receptor Type I (GPCR coupled to Gq)
Activates Phospholipase C (PIP2 --> IP3 + DAG)
IP3 opens Ca2+ channels and increases influx
DAG goes on to activate protein kinase C
Net Result: Smooth Muscle Contraction @ the EFFERENT renal arteriole
Meckels Diverticulum is cause by failure of the _______ to obliterate. Which artery supplies it?
Superior Mesenteric Artery
Components of the Glomerular Filtration Barrier
1. Endothelial Cells
2. Glomerular Basement Membrane
3. Epithelial Podocytes
Pathogenesis of Minimal Change Disease
Normally presents after a Cold
Loss of HEPARIN SULFATE (negatively charged)
No longer can prevent NEGATIVELY charged molecules (i.e. albumin) from being filtered into the urine
Which lipid lowering drug is related to Gallstone formation?
MOA of Gemfibrozil
(i.e. increases Triglyceride clearance)
How does Gemfibrozil cause Gallstone formation?
Associated with cholesterol gallstones, by reducing cholesterol solubility and reducing bile acid synthesis secondary to inhibition of 7-α-HYDROXYLASE
Schistosomiasis will lead to which type of cancer?
Squamous Cell Cancer
Smoking will lead to which type of cancer in the bladder?
Transitional Cell Cancer
Contraindication for Bupropion
Pts with Anorexia Nervosa
(i.e. Pts that have lowered thresholds for SEIZURES)
Cause of cri-du-chat syndrome
Chromosome 5 deletion
Thrombus in the Hepatic vein is known as ______ .
Where is vitamin K produced?
Bacteria in the GI Tract
Multiple courses of antibiotics can _____ . Which will cause a _______ deficiency.
Kill the Bacteria in the GI Tract
Methicillin, dicloxacillin, oxacillin, and nafcillin
HLA associated with Bechet Disease
What is Bechet Disease?
Autoimmune vasculitis characterized by ORAL and GENITAL aphthous ulcers
Sustained skeletal muscle contraction of the jaw
(i.e. Lock Jaw)
Exotoxin released by Clostridium Tetani
Sensation of the need to empty the bowel accompanied by pain and cramping, although there is little stool to pass
What is Tenesmus associated with?
It is usually associated with INFLAMMATORY (either infectious or noninfectious) diseases of the bowel
What is the physiologic change that happens in the airways when Pts with Emphysema breath with PURSED LIPS?
Increased pressure in the smaller airways
Increases the pressure in the LARGER airways by increasing resistance so that it will keep them open during expiration
What happens to compliance of the lungs in Pts with Emphysema?
(Increased ELASTASE activity causes the destruction of Elastic Fibers)
What happens to recoil of the lungs in Pts with Emphysema?
What happens to the Diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLOC) in pts with Emphysema?
(Due to the destruction of Alveolar Walls)
Diagnostic Criteria for Chronic Bronchitis
Productive cough for > 3 MONTHS in a year for > 2 CONSECUTIVE years
What is the REID index and in which disease will it be increased?
Thickness of mucosal gland layer to thickness of wall between epithelium and cartilage
Increased >50% in Chronic Bronchitis
First-Line intervention for Pts with Tourrette's Syndrome
Second-Line intervention for Pts with Tourrette's Syndrome
(i.e. Haloperidol, pimozide and Risperidone; Also Clonidine)
Which two metastatic cancers can cause intracranial hemorrhages?
1. Renal Cell Carcinoma
2. Malignant Melanoma
Prevents ENTRY of viral particles into the target host cell
Prevents ATTACHMENT of virus to the target host cell
MOA of "-gravir" drugs
(i.e. Dolutegravir, Elxitegravir, Raltegravir)
Block incorporation of the viral genome into the host cell genome
(i.e. Integrase Inhibitors)
MOA of "-navir" drugs
(i.e. Atazanavir, Darunavir, Fosamprenavir, Indinavir, Lopinavir, Ritonavir, Saquinavir)
Interfering with posttranslational processing of viral proteins
(i.e. Protease Inhibitors)
1st aortic arch
Maxillary artery bilaterally
2nd aortic arch
Hyoid and Stapedial Arteries bilaterally
3rd aortic arch
Portions of Proximal internal and distal Common carotid arteries bilaterally
5th aortic arch
Left 4th aortic arch
Portion of the adult aortic arch that is DISTAL to the point at which the fetal Ductus Arteriosus originates
Right 4th aortic arch
Right proximal subclavian artery
Left 6th aortic arch
Right 6th aortic arch
Proximal portion of the right pulmonary artery
Common presentations of MS
1. Sensory and motor deficits, often in the extremities (usually asymmetric, and can lead to bowel and bladder dysfunction)
2. Optic neuritis that can result in visual loss or changes such as internuclear ophthalmoplegia
3. Cerebellar abnormalities, which can include ataxia, nystagmus, and tremor.
MOA: Reduced hepatic triglyceride and VLDL Synthesis
MOA: Peroxisome proliferator activated receptor-α agonist
MOA: Inhibition of the 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase
MOA: Increased excretion of bile acids in the stool
MOA: Inhibition of cholesterol absorption in the gastrointestinal tract
Common symptoms that present with Cluster Headaches
2. Conjunctival injection
4. Nasal congestion
Which enzymes does Lead inhibit?
1. ALA Dehydratase
2. Ferrochelatase (Final Step in Heme synthesis)
Pneumonic for which way the Hb-O2 curve shifts
"CADET, face Right!"
2,3 - DPG
Periodic acid–Schiff-positive remnants of autophagic vacuoles, or Bunina bodies, are found in the anterior horn of the spinal cord in patients with _______ .
Eosinic intracytoplasmic inclusions are seen in patients with ________ .
Pancytopenia + Skeletal abnormalities = _________
Cause and mode of inheritance of Fanconi Anemia
Cells cannot properly repair a type of DNA damage known as "interstrand cross-links"
Best treatment for pts with Fanconi Anemia
Bone Marrow Transplant
MOA of Celecoxib
Function of COX-2
Found in inflammatory cells and vascular endothelium and mediates inflammation and pain
Vascular Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (Type IV) is associated with a defect in the formation of ______ .
Type III procollagen
Pts with Vascular Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (Type IV) are a high risk of developing _________ .
Epidermoylsis bullosa is associated with an abnormality in _______ .
Keratin 14 and 5
Fibrillin in on which chromosome?
Mode of inheritance of Vascular Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (Type IV)
Treatment for Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
Adverse effect of Oxygen therapy when treating pts with Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
Formation of Free Radicals
Explain the process of Absorptive Atelectasis
Absorptive atelectasis occurs when high FiO2 causes a large volume of nitrogen in the lungs to be replaced with oxygen, reducing the volume of the alveoli, and resulting in alveolar collapse
Positive symptoms of Schizophrenia are associated with an increase in which neurotransmitter?
Decrease in GABA is associated with ______ .
Decrease in Ach is associated with _______ .(2)
1. Alzheimer's Disease
2. Huntington's Disease
Decrease in Serotonin is associated with ______ .
Increase in Norepinephrine is associated with _______ .
Which amino acids are NOT being reabsorbed when you have stones that are Hexagonal in shape?
Undescended testicle(s) are associated with which an increased risk for which type of cancer?
Germ Cell Tumors
What develops after fever has resolved as a bright, blanchable erythema on the cheeks (“slapped cheeks”) with perioral pallor?
Use of Chlordiazepoxide
Used in preventing and treating delirium tremens due to its LONG half-life and ACTIVE metabolites, leading to decreased peaks/troughs and fewer withdrawal symptom
Difference between DLBCL and SLL
DLBCL - large, basophilic cytoplasm, disorganized cell morphology
SLL - diffuse infiltrate of small, round, mature-appearing lymphocytes with MINIMAL cytoplasm
Histology shows large cells with prominent nucleoli and pale to clear "halos" of cytoplasm in the epidermis
Which organelle will load MHC I?
CT Findings: Perisigmoid inflammatory changes, such as fat stranding
Small intracellular yeast
Duodenal ulcers affect which artery?
Explain the "3-2-1" criteria for Lynch Syndrome
"3" family members with Lynch-associated cancers
Spanning "2" generation
"1" relative diagnosed before age 50 and 1 first degree relative with the diagnosis
FAP/Lynch syndrome + malignant CNS tumor
(i.e. Turcot = TURBAN)
Autosomal dominant syndrome featuring numerous hamartomas throughout GI tract, along with HYPERPIGMENTED mouth, lips, hands, genitalia. Associated with risk of breast and GI cancers
Cause of Lynch Syndrome
Mutations in Mismatch Repair genes (i.e. MLH1)
_______________ is characterized by a high blood level of methemoglobin, in which the oxygen-carrying iron is present in the oxidized (ferric Fe3+) state instead of the reduced (ferrous Fe2+) state
MOA of Dapsone
Dapson can cause _________ .
Treatment of Methemoglobinemia
Inhaled corticosteroids used in Asthma patients can decrease the transcription of inflammatory cytokines and cause ________ .
Partial or complete lack of the iris
Severe abdominal pain, nausea, hematemesis, hypotension, and tachypnea are signs of ____________ .
Acute Iron Overload
Tx of Acute Iron Overload
CD-18 = _____ .
Sensitivity to RULE OUT a disease
What is the probability of a Pt truly having cancer?
POSITIVE PREDICTIVE VALUE
Which structures run in the CENTER of the bronchopulmonary segments?
1. Tertiary Bronchus
Which structures run in the PERIPHERY of the bronchopulmonary segments?
Contraindication to tPA therapy
Blood pressure >185/90 mmHg
Pathogenesis of Wilsons Disease
Decreased Copper secretion in to the bile due to a mutation in the ATP7B gene which encodes for a copper transporter that functions mainly in the liver
Younger Pt with multiple angiokeratomas (the small, reddish-black papules on his abdomen and scrotum), acroparesthesia (intermittent peripheral paresthesias), and heat intolerance.
Enzyme deficient and accumulated substrate in Fabry's Disease
Non-specific serum Ab found in Pts with Treponema pallidum can bind to __________ which is found in the _________ of the cell.
Cardiolipin (aka diphosphatidylglycerol)
Inner Mitochondrial Membrane
Enflurane is more likely to cause _______ when compared to the other inhaled anesthetics
___________ is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, and infection rates are high in sub-Saharan Africa.
Which hepatitis can cause hepatic tissue necrosis and is associated with pregnancy women?
Treatment for Pts with anemia due to SLE
Administration of EPO
Treatment for Pts with anemia due to aplastic anemia and Fanconi anemia
Bone marrow Transplant
Tx for Pts with Iron deficiency anemia
Administration of alkylating agents (I.e. cyclophosphamide) to pts with ________ will cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
Cafe haul air spots
Cause of Fanconi Anemia
Defect in a multiprotein complex that is required for HOMOLOGOUS RECOMBINATION DNA REPAIR
Sarcoma - Breast - Leukemia - Adrenal Gland
(Aka Li-Fraumeni Syndrome)
Mutation in Li-Fraumeni Syndrome
1 - Prepuberty
2 - Breast Bud stage with Downy Hair
3 - Coarse pubic hair
4 - Areola rising
5 - Pubic hair spreading to medial thigh
Thalidomide is used to treat ___________.
MOA of Cilastatin
Inhibitor of dehydropeptidase at the Proximal Tubule of the kidneys
Function of Cilastatin
Boost the efficacy of Imipenem
(Broad spectrum antibiotic from the Carbapenem class)
Which carbapenem is resistance to dehydropeptidase Inhibitors (I.e. Cilastatin)
What do Obstructive and Restrictive Lung Diseases have in common?
Decreased Vital Capacity
Most common cause of Meningitis in Pts around College age (I.e. 18-24)
“Lymphocytes with multiple long cytoplasmic projections”
Hairy Cell Leukemia
Treatment for MS
Antibodies in Guillain Barre syndrome are directed towards __________.
Endoneurium of peripheral nerves
Presentation of brain tumor:
Does not invade the parenchyma
Originates next to dura
Meningiomas arise from ___________.
Brain tumor with neovascular proliferation
Brain tumor with undifferentiated tumor cells
Metastasis to the brain
Rickettsiales Bacteria species that presents with “berry like” cytoplasmic inclusions in Neutrophils
Which DM medication can have a Disulfiram-like reaction?
First Generation Sulfonylurea
First-line Treatment for Metastatic Prostate Cancer
Leuprolide and Flutamide
(Flutamide is a nonsteroidal antiandrogen that competitively inhibits androgens at the testosterone Receptor)
Most common cellular cause of Cystic Fibrosis
Class II mutation
(Impaired CFTR channel processing and trafficking from the REF to the Golgi Apparatus)
Non-caseating granulomas + IBD = ____________
Normal range for anion gap
8 - 16
Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factor (G-CSF) binds to which type of Receptor?
(It is a glycoprotein Growth Factor)
Chromosome for BRCA1
(Same as NF-1)
Wilms Tumor Chromosome
Which type of cancer in the colon can increase your risk for other cancers?
(80% risk of colorectal cancer and others; I.e. GI Tract, Urinary Tract, Female Reproductive Tract)
Dissection or thrombosis of the vertebral or posterior inferior cerebellar artery classically results in _____________.
Lateral Medullary Syndrome
Manifestations of ______________ include:
ipsilateral Horner syndrome
absent pain and temperature sensation from the ipsilateral face and contralateral body
Lateral Medullary Syndrome
(Aka Wallenberg Syndrome)
Tension Pneumothorax can cause _________
(Because of buildup of intrathoracic pressure, there is a decrease in venous return and thus decreased cardiac output, which results in hypotension)
Essential fatty acids
Linoleic and Linolenic Acid
Histology of Pagets Disease
Large cells with clear halos
Bulky arytenoid cartilage
Arytenoid cartilage is derived from which pharyngeal arch?
Tx for moderate-to-severe Alzheimer’s disease
MOA of memantine
NMDA Receptor Antagonist
Selective Serotonin 2C Receptor Agonist
Only FDA drug to pass a phase 3 clinical trial as a selective serotonin 2C Receptor Agonist in aiding weight loss
Arachnoid granulations drain into _________
Superior Sagittal Sinus
Which way does Uvua deviated?
Contralateral side of CN X lesion
Effect of Non-selective Beta Blockers on SVR