Random Recall Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Egfr range that vascular access should be considered

A

20-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

level of GFR (ml/min/1.73m2) does insulin resistance become deranged in uremic carbohydrate metabolism

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Biopsy of skin tissue showed fibroblast- like cell that stained with procollagen I and CD34

A

Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

bone biopsy: Histologic results show increased rate of bone formation, increased bone resorption, extensive osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity and progressive increase in endosteal peritrabecular fibrosis

A

Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

hormonal dysfunction leads to sexual dysfunction in both males and female patients with CKD

A

increase prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

average latency period (in days) before the onset of nephritis in postpharygitic cases of post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

7-21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

type of membranoproliferative GN is a retinal examination indicated

A

Dense Deposit Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

minimum adequate amount of specimen needed for transplant biopsies

A

10 glomeruli 2 arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

parasitic disease cause glomerular involvement owing to reduced expression of complement receptor 1

A

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

antihypertensive medications used in pregnancy has been associated with fetal growth restriction

A

Atenolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

physiologic mechanisms during pregnancy exacerbates renal damage in patients with preexisting renal disease

A

Increase RBF and GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

primary mechanism of water, sodium, and chloride transport in the descending thin limb of the Loop of Henle

A

passive diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

renal tumor can cause excess aldosterone leading to hypertension and hypokalemia

A

renal juxtaglomerular tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

asymptomatic microscopic hematuria

A

more than 3 RBC/HPF in at least two of three samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

pathophysiologic mechanism of Cisplatin-induced AKI

A

tubular toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

renal autoregulation works until a mean systemic arterial blood pressure of

A

80 mmhg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

most important substance produced by the endothelium for BP regulation

A

nitric oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

30# of NaCl reabsorption occur

A

loop of henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

transcellular NaCl via a Cl-OH exchanger in the proximal tubule is mediated by which protein

A

SLC26A6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

vasopressin in NaCl transport in the TAL

A

apical Na K 2Cl cotransport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

major mechanism of potassium transport in proximal tubule

A

paracellular pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

estrogen in Calcium transport

A

decrease urine ca excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

hematuria secondary to pigment nephropathy

A

positive for blood and urine RBC is 0-2/hpf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

layer of the peritoneum is duplicated after long-term peritoneal dialysis (PD) treatment or ex- posure to a high glucose concentration

A

Submesothelial basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

minimum ultrafiltration volume (ml) needed to determine ultrafiltration failure in a PD patient who undergoes peritoneal equilibration test (PET)

A

400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

benefits of icodextrin use

A

Better lipid profile, lower mortality, regression of LVH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

laboratory test can be used as an index for monitoring the evolution of renal osteodystrophy and serves as a surrogate measure of bone turnover

A

Parathyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

disorder shows progressive hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the parathyroid hormone and is one of the hallmarks of disordered mineral metabolism in CKD

A

tertiary hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

primary mechanism of water, sodium, and chloride transport in the descending thin limb of the Loop of Henle

A

passive diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

marked renal physiologic change induced by hypokalemia

A

NaCl retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Na cotransporter affected in pseydohypoaldosterinusm type II (Gordon syndrome)

A

NCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

transport channel affords the ability to increase reabsorption of sodium within the CCD without affecting potassium secretion

A

Thiazide sensitive NCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

hypoK, low renin, high aldo

A

primary hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

treatment of PA

A

sprinoloctone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Treatment for PHA I

A

NaCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

hyperK, high renin, high aldo

A

Pseudohypoaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

hyperK low renin low aldo

A

hypreninimec hypoaldo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

treatment of hyporenin hypoaldo

A

loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

stimulates sodium reabsorption in the thick ascending limb

A

Vasopressin, PTH, glucaogon, calcitonin, B adrenergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

1, alpha, 25(OH)D decrease/increase expression of calbindin D

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The parathyroid hormone decrease/increase the activity of TRPV5 channels

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Furosemide activates/inhibits NaK2Cl cotransport type 2

A

inhibits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ca sensing receptor activation inhibits/activates NKCC2 activity

A

inhibits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

DIalysis water contaminant causing cardiac arrhythmia and death

A

fluoride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

dialysis water contaminant causing osteomalacia, microcytic anemia, dialysis associated encephalopathy – dementia and movement disorder

A

Aluminum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

most frequent cause of early recurrence of primary disease in post-transplant patients

A

FSGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

most common cell origin of renal cell carcinoma

A

proximal tubule - clear cell

48
Q

primary phenotypic structural lesion in PKD lies in this cellular organism

A

cilium

49
Q

radiologic feature that best predicts the rate of decline of kidney function

A

baseline kidney volume

50
Q

treatment of salicylate poisoning

A

hemodialysis

51
Q

granular cells that contain renin and its precursor are found in

A

afferent arteriole

52
Q

segment of the renal circulation which has the highest hydraulic pressure

A

arcuate artery

53
Q

Decrease in Colloid Osmotic pressure leads to inc/dec in SNGFR

A

Increase in SNGFR

54
Q

30% of the filtered NaCl is reabsorbed in this segment via the Na-K-2Cl co-transporter.

A

Loop of Henle

55
Q

the site of the glomerulotubular balance wherein the fractional reabsorption of Na increases as the GFR increases

A

proximal tubule

56
Q

Reabsorption of filtered Na occurs in this segment via the Na-H exchange transporter.

A

proximal tubule

57
Q

About 10% of the filtered NaCl is reabsorbed in this segment via the NaCl co-transporter (NCC).

A

DCT

58
Q

Reabsorption of Na without Cl occurs in this segment via the highly selective epithelial Na channel (ENaC).

A

CCD

59
Q

Regulated K secretion occurs in the principal cells of this segment

A

CCD

60
Q

major site of tubular Mg reabsorption.

A

Loop of henle

61
Q

major site of tubular phosphate reabsorption

A

proximal tubule

62
Q

HCTZ will increase/decrease Ca reabsorption in the proximal tubule

A

increase Ca reabsorption

63
Q

major regulator of renal phosphate handling

A

PTH

64
Q

Most of the bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule involves this transporter.

A

NHE

65
Q

Bicarbonate secretion into the tubular lumen via the bicarbonate-Cl exchanger (pendrin) occurs in the

A

Type B intercalated Cells

66
Q

metabolism of this amino acid leads to the formation and secretion of two ammonium (NH4) ions and the formation and reabsorption of two bicarbonate ions.

A

Glutamine

67
Q

Pregnancy has inc/dec AQP2

A

increase

68
Q

chief site of dilution of the urine regardless of vasopressin (ADH) activity

A

loop of henle

69
Q

the major solute that accounts for the medullary hypertonicity

A

urea

70
Q

“Hyperdynamic Circulation Theory” postulates that sodium and water retention in cirrhosis is brought about by increased production of this substance

A

Nitric Oxide

71
Q

Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) caused by hypercalcemia

A

intrarenal vasoconstriction

72
Q

electrolyte abnormality is commonly associated with aminoglycoside and cisplatin induced Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN)

A

hypomagnesemia

73
Q

mechanism involved in Uric Acid -induced ATN

A

direct tubular toxicity

74
Q

biomarker may be used to differentiate pre-renal AKI from ATN

A

NGAL

75
Q

most sensitive index in differentiating pre-renal AKI from ischemic ATN

A

FeNa

76
Q

Drug that may increase GFR in AKI

A

natriuretic peptide

77
Q

the KDOQI guidelines, what is the maximum duration for using an internal jugular (IJ) vein catheter to minimize the risk of infection

A

2 weeks

78
Q

action of Fenoldopam in the management of AKI

A

renal vasodilation’; selective dopamine agonist

79
Q

Decreased GFR in patients with DM nephropathy is due to

A

decrease in filtration sruface from mesangial expansion

80
Q

optimal renoprotective dose of Losartan in DM nephropathy

A

100 mg/day

81
Q

most appropriate treatment modality for asymptomatic bacteriuria in elderly patients without renal or urologic abnormalities

A

no treatment needed

82
Q

The rate of decrease in creatinine clearance in elderly patients is

A

0.8 ml/min/1.73 m2

83
Q

Hyponatremia in the elderly is due to

A

enhanced osmotic AVP release.

84
Q

Restriction of potassium intake should start when the estimated GFR is below

A

30 ml/min

85
Q

vitamin is contraindicated in Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)

A

Vitamin E

86
Q

confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Acute Interstitial Nephritis

A

Hansel staining for eosinophils in the urine

87
Q

complication of chronic analgesic abuse

A

renal papillary necrosis

88
Q

Down-regulation of the Aquaporin 2 channels in the collecting tubules due to Lithium Toxicity leads to

A

Nephrogenic DI

89
Q

nephritogenic type of Group A Streptococci lead to nephritis after either a pharyngitis or pyoderma

A

M type 49

90
Q

the presence of adventitial and periadventitial fibrosis would be consistent with

A

radiation nephritis

91
Q

Renal medullary carcinoma associated with

A

sickle cell disease

92
Q

the most common cause of renal failure in patients with sickle cell disease

A

FSGS

93
Q

drug would directly damage the endothelium causing renal artery thrombosis

A

cocaine

94
Q

most common type of renal artery aneurysm, arising at bifurcation of renal artery

A

saccular renal artery aneurysm

95
Q

most common virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis in schoolchildren

A

adenovirus

96
Q

seen in malakoplakia and not in xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

A

Michaelis Gutmann bodies

97
Q

Michaelis Guttman bodies are found in

A

Macrophages

98
Q

uremic toxin that inhibits nitric oxide

A

methylated arginines

99
Q

Vitamin D2 and D3 bind to vitamin D-binding protein and circulate to the liver where it is hydroxylated to:

A

25(OH)2D

100
Q

inhibits extraskeletal calcification

A

MGP

101
Q

induces vascular calcification

A

BMP2

102
Q

most frequent cause of inadequate response to recombinant human erythropoietin administration is

A

iron deficiency

103
Q

Erythropoietin exerts its greatest influence on which of the erythrocyte progenitor.

A

CFU-E

104
Q

Maximal fluid removal occurs during the first 8 to10 minutes of a PD dwell. This is due mostly to:

A

ultrapores

105
Q

major site of resistance to peritoneal transport is provided by the:

A

peritoneal endothelium and basement membrane

106
Q

contribution of a capillary to peritoneal transport depends on its proximity to the mesothelium.

A

distributive model for peritoneal transport

107
Q

Hypervascular peritoneal
membrane

A

Type 1 UF

108
Q

. Excess lymphatic absorption

A

Type 3 UF

109
Q

Reduced peritoneal surface area

A

Type 2 UF

110
Q

The most common type of bone disease found in PD patients is:

A

Adynamic bone disease

111
Q

Clearance of small molecular weight substances in HD

A

blood flow

112
Q

Clearance of small molecular weight substances in HD

A

membrane permeability

113
Q

dialyzer property determines the permeability of the membrane to high-molecular-weight substances and the degree of biocompatibility.

A

hydrophobic/hydrophilic properties of the membrane

114
Q

agent associated with hemolysis and Heinz-body hemolytic anemia.

A

choramines

115
Q

The anti-CD52 monoclonal antibody alemtuzumab may be associated with acute rejection at a time corresponding to the repopulation of his T cell repertoire at what time period

A

6 months

116
Q

anti-IL2R monoclonal antibody is targeted therapy against

A

activated cells

117
Q

immunosuppression is recommended because it reduces the risk for reactivation of HCV

A

cyclosporine