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Nefrologia PT > Random Recall Part 3 > Flashcards

Random Recall Part 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment of SAAF in pregnant patient

A

heparin + aspirin

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2
Q

Low C3 only

A

Disorders in which C3 is decreased but C4 is not include MPGN and post-infectious glomerulonephritis, indicating a tendency for the alternative pathway to be active moreso than the classical pathway.

PSGN and MPGN type 2 (DDD)

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3
Q

Low C3 and C4

A

Shunt nephritis, Lupus, Cyrgoglobulinemia, MPGN Type 1, Bacterial endocarditis

Activation of the classical pathway will typically result in lowering of both C3 and C4, and therefore disorders in which BOTH C3 and C4 are decreased include lupus nephritis and cryoglobulinemia

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4
Q

IgG and positive bandlike subendothelial immune deposits + subendothelial mesangial deposits

A

MPGN Type 1

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5
Q

mimic MCD and FSGS

A

C1q nephropathy

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6
Q

renal changes in pre-eclampsia

A

glomerular endotheliosis

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7
Q

UTI suppressive treatment in pregnant

A

nitrofurantoin

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8
Q

crystalluria

A

cusira: calcium oxalate, urates, sulfonamides, indinavir, radio iodinated contrast, acyclovir

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9
Q

aceinhibitor with no renal dose adjustment in HD patients

A

imidapril

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10
Q

If captopril decrease GFR by 35%

A

suspect RAS

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11
Q

renal cell carcinoma which produce mucin

A

collecting duct carcinoma

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12
Q

differentiate cell mediated vs humoral rejection

A

negative C4D stain - cell mediated; positive C4D: humoral

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13
Q

most common cause of delayed graft function

A

ischemic ATN

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14
Q

KT drug that can cause gout

A

cyclosporine

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15
Q

can increase CNI level

A

verapamil

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16
Q

decrease CNI level

A

anti TB and anti seizure drugs

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17
Q

PTH in phosphorus reabsorption

A

decrease kidney; increase gut absorption

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18
Q

erectile dysfunction in CKD

A

blunt increase in LH

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19
Q

risk factor with paradoxical protective effect in HD

A

obesity

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20
Q

first line drugs for restless leg syndrome

A

levodopa and pramiprexole (2) gabapentin and carbamezipine

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21
Q

first line for skin xerosis with pruritus

A

capsaicin

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22
Q

platelet effect on CKD

A

impaired interaction of platelets with vascular endothelium

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23
Q

DM more common in what post KT drug

A

Tacrolimus

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24
Q

glucose intolerance as an effect of which post KT drug

A

prednisone, cyclospporine

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25
Q

how many weeks before conception should MMF be shifted to another post KT drug

A

6 weeks before concenption

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26
Q

absolute contraindication to KT

A

positive T cell crossmatch

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27
Q

acute cellular rejection treatment

A

pulse steroids

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28
Q

obesity

A

reduced adiponectin; increased leptin, resistin, IL6, TNFa

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29
Q

high BP in the office and normal BP values in the out of office enviroment

A

white coat hypertension

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30
Q

normal BP in the office but high BP in ambulatory setting

A

masked hypertension

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31
Q

sleep BP that falls less than 10% compared with awake levels

A

nondipper (normal 15-20% dip)

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32
Q

useful to monitor orthostatic hypotension

A

home bp monitoring

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33
Q

evaluate Na and K intake

A

24h urine collection

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34
Q

treatment for low renin hypertension

A

alpha blocker

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35
Q

treatment for acute aortic dissection

A

lower BP within 20 mins to a sbp < 120

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36
Q

most common immunulogic cause of AIN

A

acute allograft rejection

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37
Q

target K in AKI

A

less than 5.5

38
Q

when to treat met acid in AKI

A

hco3 < 15, pH < 7.15-7.2

39
Q

average annual decline in egfr in DM

A

2.1-2.7

40
Q

target pth in CKD

A

150-300

41
Q

most important regulator of intestinal absorption

A

dietary phosphate

42
Q

recommeded daily allowance for Pi

A

800 mg/day

43
Q

Schistosoma species often involved in GN

A

S. mansoni

44
Q

First line therapy for treatment naïve patients with metastatic CA

A

Bevacizumab + IFN alpha

45
Q

Treatment Non-pseudomonal gram negative enterobacteria

A

3rd Gen cephalosporins or aminoglycosides

46
Q

More important CD class early after transplant

A

CD8

47
Q

critical for indirect allorecognition later in the transplant course

A

CD4

48
Q

compression of the left renal vein between the aorta and superior mesenteric artery

A

renal nutrcacker

49
Q

Cells responsible for EPO production

A

peritubular fibroblast

50
Q

RCC well differentiated neoplastic cells with intensely eosinophilic granular cytoplasm

A

oncocytoma

51
Q

RCC with hepatic dysfunction in the absence of metastases

A

Stauffer syndrome

52
Q

RCC with excellent prognosis

A

Chromophobe / Sarcomatoid

53
Q

Most common malignant cause of UTO

A

Cervical Cancer

54
Q

collecting sample for BUN

A

Slow pump to 100 ml/min for 10 seconds then stopping pump before sampling

55
Q

Accepted parameter for dialyzer reuse

A

→ fiber bundle volume must be greater than 80% of the initial value, and the dialyzer should hold greater than 80% of the maximal operating pressure

56
Q

Buffer of free radicals in Wisconsin solution

A

Hydroxyethyl starch

57
Q

Buffer in HTK solution

A

Histidine

58
Q

More sensitive assay for detecting donor anti-HLA antibody

A

Flow cytometric cross-match assay

59
Q

kidney disease presenting with membrane blebs on RBC

A

glomerular

60
Q

urine sediment seen in patients with nephrotic range proteinuria

A

oval fat bodies

61
Q

hyponat of pregnancy appears to be mediated by

A

relaxin

62
Q

medication when combined with antimicrobials that provide palliation for patients who cannot undergo surgery

A

acetohydroxamic acid

63
Q

Type of classic decoy cells

A

Type 1

64
Q

GBM in thin basement memberane disease

A

150-250 nm

65
Q

initial management in thrombotic microangiopathy post transplant

A

discontinue CNI

66
Q

diuretic of choice in patients with GFR below 30

A

Torsemide

67
Q

ace inhibitor less likely to cause cough

A

imidapril

68
Q

initial lab test to investigate presence of comorbid condition, seoncdary causes or target organ damage in a newly diagnosed htn

A

ECG

69
Q

key renal regulatory response to mild increase in blood pressure

A

pressure natriuresis

70
Q

pathophysiology of ankle edema secondary to calcium channel blocker

A

precapillary vasodilation

71
Q

hypertensive emergency medication that provides acute improvement in renal function, lacks toxic metabolites and has specific renal vasodilating effects

A

fenoldopam

72
Q

water exiting the reverse osmosis unit

A

permeate

73
Q

changes in GFR are offset by changes in the tubular reabsorption of fluid and NaCl; independent of direct neuronal and systemic hormonal control

A

glomerulotubular balance

74
Q

low angiotensin levels

A

NaCl reabsorption

75
Q

fine tuning of K excretion

A

distal nephron

76
Q

principal effector molecule of RAS

A

angiotensin II

77
Q

arterial pressure that can trigger renin secertion

A

< 90 mmHg

78
Q

angiotensin peptide with a predominant role in vasopressin release

A

AT III

79
Q

strongest expression of SGLT1

A

S3 of PCT

80
Q

plasma glucose threshold where glucose should begin to be excreted int he urine

A

280 mg/dL

81
Q

SGLT2 inhibitor decrease glomerular hyperfiltration via TGF by what mechanism

A

constriction of afferent arteriole

82
Q

major transporter of cationic drugs and metabolites

A

SLC22A2

83
Q

main apical transporter for anionic amino acids in the proximal tubule

A

EAAT3

84
Q

Increase in tubular flow causes increase in NaCl delivery and Ca influx leading to decrease in renin

A

Tubuloglomerular feedback

85
Q

Uosm 280 in spg

A

1.008 or 1.009
inc in UOsm 35-40, rises to 0.001

86
Q

Proteinuria in fanconi and dent disease

A

Tubular

87
Q

Proteinuria in myeloma and rhabdo

A

overflow

88
Q

Proteinuria in infection stones

A

post renal

89
Q

glomerular hematuria

A

10-80% dysmorphic rbc
> 2-5% acathocytes

90
Q

casts in chronic renal failure

A

broad casts

91
Q

atn cast

A

tubular epithelial cell

92
Q

most common n benign neoplasm less than 2-3 cm

A

renal adenoma

Nefrologia PT (112 decks)

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