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Flashcards in Random Stuff 3 Deck (149):
1

What is the effect of ANG II on bradykinin levels?

Increases breakdown

2

When in gestation does chorionic villus sampling occur? What is the risk associated with this?

-After 10 weeks
-Limb defects

3

The uterine artery is a branch of what artery?

Anterior internal iliac

4

The middle rectal artery contributes blood to what part of the female pelvic anatomy?

uterus and rectum

5

The vaginal artery is a branch of what artery?

Internal iliac

6

What is adenomyosis, and what are the classic exam findings?

Endometriosis within the uterine myometrium, causing an enlarged, boggy uterus

7

What is the DOC for enterococcus?

Ampicillin

8

What is the treatment for newly acquired HBV?

Lamivudine and IFN-alpha

9

What IFN is used in the treatment of Hep B?

IFN-alpha

10

What is the MOA and use of Lamivudine?

-Cytidine analog that inhibits reverse transcription and blocks Hep replication
-Hep B

11

What is the treatment for HCV?

-Ribavirin and pegylated IFN-alpha2

12

What is the MOA and use of ribavirin?

-Guanosine analog
-RSV and Hep C

13

What is the classic side effect of isoniazid administration, beside the peripheral neuropathy from B6 deficiency?

Hepatotoxic

14

What is the HLA haplotype that is associated with DM I?

HLA-DR3

15

What are the four diseases associated with HLA-DR2?

-SLE
-Goodpasture
-MS
-Hay fever

16

What are the teratogenic effects of phenytoin?

-Skull malformations
-Underdeveloped nails and facial features
-MR

17

What are the components of the following mnemonic for Cp450 inducers: Chronic alcoholics Steal Phen-Phen, and Never Refuses Greasy Carbs"?

-Alcohol
-St. John's wort
-Phenytoin
-Phenobarbital
-Nevirapine
-Rifampin
-Carbamazepine

18

What are the components of the following mnemonic for Cp450 inhibitors: A Cute Gentleman Cipped Iced Grapefruit juice Quickly And Kept Munching on Soft Cinnamon Rolls

-Acute alcohol abuse
-Gemfibrozil
-Ciprofloxacin
-Isoniazid
-Grapefruit juice
-Quinidine
-Amiodarone
-Ketoconazole
-Macrolides
-Sulfonamides
-Cimetidine
-Ritonavir

19

What are the substrates for p450 enzymes (always think when outdoors)?

-Anti-epileptics
-Theophylline
-Warfarin
-OCPs

20

Lesions to the left posterior corpus callosum leads to what neurological deficit?

Reading impairment

21

A lesion to the right angular gyrus would produce what symptoms?

Hemineglect

22

Where is Wernicke's area located?

Posterior part of the left superior temporal gyrus

23

Which antiepileptic medication can cause a folate deficiency?

Phenytoin

24

At what rib level on the right side of the rib cage is the horizontal fissure?

4th

25

Where are GLUT-1 transporters found?

-Cortical neurons
-RBCs

26

Where are GLUT-2 transporters expressed?

Pancreatic Beta cells

27

What is the cause of alkaptonuria? Which amino acid is broken down by this pathway?

-Defect in homogentisate 1,2 dioxygenase
-Tyrosine

28

What is the molecular cause of CF?

defective processing from the ER to the golgi, because the protein is retained in the ER

29

What is the role of GP120 and GP41 on AIDS virus?

-CP120 = binds to CXCR4
-CP40 = causes fusion

30

What is the DOC for enterobius vermicularis?

Albendazole, mebendazole or pyrantel pamoate

31

What is the DOC for: Trypanosoma cruzi?

Benznidazole
Nifurtimox

32

What is the DOC for: Onchocerca volvulus

Ivermectin

33

What is the DOC for: dracunculus medinensis?

Niridazole

34

What four parts of the developing embryo eventually comprise the diaphragm?

-Septum transversum
-Pleuroperitoneal folds
-Body wall
-Dorsal mesentery of the esophagus

("Several Parts Build Diaphragm")

35

What is the function of the occipital pole in the brain?

Area where the nerve fibers from the macula go

36

What is the drug that is used to reverse 5FU?

Thymidine (since 5FU inhibits thymidylate synthase)

37

What is the treatment for strep pharyngitis in a patient with a PCN allergy?

Macrolide

38

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is PAD?

Type III

39

What is the formula for calculating tidal volume based on CO pressures?

Vd = Vt *([PaCO2 -PECO2] / PaCO2)

40

What happens to potassium levels with a VIPoma? HCl?

Hypokalemia
Achlorhydria

41

What is the other name for Bordet-Gengou agar?

Potato agar

42

What is the MOA and use of flucytosine?

Pyrimidine antimetabolite, similar to 5FU, used to treat fungal infections

43

What is the MOA of terbinafine?

Inhibits squalene epoxidase

44

Vincristine is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?

M phase

45

Bleomycin is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?

G2

46

Cisplatin is specific for which phase of the cell cycle?

Cycle non-specific

47

Etoposide is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?

G2 and late S

48

Methotrexate is specific for what phase of the cell cycle?

S phase

49

What is the heme enzyme that Pb inhibits? What, then, builds up in the serum?

ALA dehydratase
Delta Aminolevulinic acid

50

What type of collagen is defective in ehlers danlos syndrome?

3

51

Which type of beta blockers mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia?

Non-selective

52

What are the histological characteristics of mucor?

Broad, irregular nonseptate hyphae

53

What is the histological characteristics of small lymphocytic lymphoma?

Defacement of lymph node architecture, with small, cells with irregular nuclei

54

Which Vasopressin receptor mediates the increase in aquaporins in the collecting duct: V1 or V2?

V2

55

What chemo drug is used for a Wilms tumor?

Vincristine

56

Which antifungal drug can, when taken systemically, cause hyperpigmentation? Why?

Ketoconazole
-Inhibits 17alpha hydroxylase and cholesterol desmolase

57

Methotrexate acts during which phase of the cell cycle?

S phase

58

Bleomycin acts at which stage of the cell cycle?

G2

59

Cyclophosphamide acts during which phase of the cell cycle?

Nonspecific

60

Doxorubicin acts during which phase of the cell cycle?

Nonspecific

61

What is the function of the mesolimbic pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?

-Involved in reward system
-Responsible for schizophrenia

62

What is the function of the nigrostriatal pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?

-EP motor system
-PD

63

What is the function of the tuberoinfundibular pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?

-Prolactin regulation
-Galactorrhea

64

What is the function of the mesocortical pathway? What disease is thought to originate from dysfunctions in this area?

-Motivation, emotion
-Negative s/sx of schizophrenia

65

Which crystals are positively birefringent: sodium urate, or calcium pyrophosphate?

Calcium pyrophosphate

66

What is the MOA of TCAs?

Block reuptake of NE and 5HT

67

What is the MOA, ad use of mirtazapine?

-alpha2 antagonist that increases the release of NE and 5HT
-Antidepressant

68

What is the MOA of bupropion?

NE and dopamine reuptake inhibition

69

Match: V1, V2 | Gs, Gq

V1 = Gq
V2 = Gs

70

What is the DOC for community acquired pneumonia?

Macrolide (e.g azithromycin)

71

What is the DOC for klebsiella pneumoniae?

Gentamicin

72

Piperacillin-Tazobactam is used for pneumonia caused by what organism?

Pseudomonas

73

What is the function of the cells of Kulchitsky?

Enteroendocrine cells that contain granules of 5HT and other things which are secreted

74

What is the MOA of shiga toxin?

Causes glycosidase cleavage of rRNA to inactivate the 60s ribosome of mammalian cells

75

What is the MOA of E.coli stable toxin?

Stimulates guanylate cyclase to stimulate Cl secretion, and inhibit NaCl absorption

76

What happens to the tonicity of saliva as the rate of salivation increases?

Goes from hypotonic relative to the serum, to almost isotonic

77

What happens to bicarb concentration at higher salivation rates?

Increases

78

What is the major circular DNA virus?

Hepadnaviridae (Hep B)

79

WHat are the three major drugs that undergo zero order kinetic elimination?

-EtOH
-Phenytoin
-High dose ASA

80

What is endemic typhus, and what causes it?

-Rickettsia prowazekii infection causing a rash, causing a rash that starts on the trunk, and moves outward

81

How does the rash spread in endemic typhus as compared to RMSF?

Endemic typhus starts on the abdomen and goes outward, opposite that of RMSF

82

What does the Weil-Felix reaction test for?

Rickettsial antibodies

83

What embryological structure gives rise to the smooth parts of the ventricles?

Bulbus cordis

84

What is the function of Meissner's corpuscles?

Light tough
Position sense

85

What is the function of the organ of corti?

Senses movement of the cilia in the middle ear

86

What is the function of Krause's end bulbs?

Detecting pressure in the oropharynx

87

What is the function of Merkel cells?

pressure deep static touch (e.g. sharp edges)

88

What is the function of Pacinian corpuscles?

Pressure, coarse touch, vibration, and tension

"Pacinian packs a punch"

89

What is the function of C fibers? What about Adelta? Which is fast, and which slow?

Both for pain and temp
C = slow
A-delta = fast

90

What is the DOC for a UTI in a pregnant woman?

Cephalosporin

91

What is the inhaled anesthetic that is most likely to cause seizures?

Enflurane

92

What is the common adverse effect of halothane?

Hepatotoxic

93

What is the MOA and use of Zileuton?

Blocks leukotriene production to prevent asthma attacks

94

What is the MOA of zafirlukast?

Leukotriene receptor blocker

95

During which phase of meiosis does Down's syndrome arise?

Meiosis I anaphase

96

What is the MOA and use of theophylline?

-Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
-Asthma

97

What is the treatment for theophylline overdose?

beta blockers to decrease cAMP levels

98

What is the long-ish term sequale of CMV retinitis?

Retinal detachment

99

Which has nystagmus: PCP use or amphetamine use?

PCP

100

What is the gram stain and morphology of Haemophilus ducreyi?

Gram negative coccobacillus

101

What is Werdnig-Hoffmann disease, and what is the inheritance pattern?

-AR destruction of the anterior horns of the spinal cord, leading to paralysis
-Presents early (neonate)

102

Put in order of infectivity: Hep C, HIV, Hep B

Hep B, Hep C, HIV

103

Why is bone marrow contraindicated for the treatment of Bruton's agammaglobulinemia?

T cells are still functioning and effective

104

What are the side effects of ganciclovir?

Nephrotoxicity and myelosuppression

105

What is the DOC for tourette's?

Haldol or other antipsychotics

106

What is the MOA and use of exemestane?

-Aromatase inhibitor
-Estrogen positive breast CA

107

Which is more common: seminoma or a leydig cell tumor?

Seminoma

108

What is the drug used to treat CN poisoning? MOA?

-Na thiosulfate
-Converts CN into thiocyanate

109

What is the MOA of CN poisoning?

CN inhibits Cytochrome oxidase

110

What is the MOA of amantadine in the treatment of the flu?

Prevents viral uncoating by binding to the M2 protein on the influenza A virus

111

What is the difference in clinical presentation of ITP and TTP?

ITP presents solely with thrombocytopenia, whereas TTP have kidney failure, CNS issues etc

112

What is the role of demeclozine in DI?

Causes it, by inhibiting ADH receptor activity at V2

113

What is the DOC for leprosy?

Dapsone

114

What are the components of the ABVD regimens for hodgkin's lymphoma?

Adriamycin (doxorubicin)
Bleomycin
Dacarbazine
Vinblastine

115

What are the two TB drugs that require activation before they are effective?

INH
PZA

116

What is the MOA of clozapine?

Dopamine AND 5HT receptor blocker

117

What are the results of the quad screen for T21?

-Decreased AFP
-Increased beta-HCG
-DEcreased estriol
-Increased inhibin A

118

What are the results of the quad screen for T18?

-Decreased AFP
-Decreased beta-HCG
-Decreased estriol
-Normal inhibin A

119

What are the results of the quad screen for T13?

-Normal AFP
-Decreased beta-HCG
-Normal Estriol
-Normal inhibin A

120

What is the DOC for achalasia?

CCBs

121

What chromosome is ADPKD on?

16

122

What chromosome is ARPKD on?

6

123

What is the MOA and use of aldesleukin?

-IL-2 analog that is used to treat RCC and metastatic melanoma, by stimulating T cells

124

What is the genetic problem in Duchenne and Becker's muscular dystrophy respectively?

-BMD = In frame deletion
-DMD = Out of frame deletion

125

What is the function of phospholamban in cardiac muscles?

Dephosphorylation of phospholamban inhibits SERCA transporter for Ca back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

126

What is the protein that is defective with Dubin-Johnson syndrome? Inheritance pattern?

AR mutation in canalicular multispecific organic anion transporter

127

What are the two calcineurin inhibitors, and what is their common toxic effect?

-Tacrolimus
-Cyclosporine

-Nephrotoxic

128

What is the MOA of tacrolimus?

BInds FK506 to inhibit IL-2 production

129

What is the MOA of cyclosporine?

Binds cyclophilin to inhibit IL-2 production

130

What is the MOA of sirolimus?

mTOR inhibitor to inhibit IL-2 production

131

What are the three cephalosporins that can be used to treat pseudomonas infections?

-Cefoperazone
-Ceftazidime
-Cefepime

132

What is the function of topoisomerase?

To relieve supercoiling

133

What is the name of the enzyme that forms thiocyanate from CN? What is the function of thiosulfate on this?

-Rhodanese
-Donates a sulfur group

134

What is the treatment for strep throat if there is a PCN allergy?

Clindamycin

135

The CCA sequence on tRNA molecules is on the 3' or 5' end?

3'

136

What is the vaginal infection that persists at low, physiologic pH?

Candida

137

What is responsible for the infertility of Klinefelter's syndrome? What are the effects of this on hormone levels?

Lack of leydig cells means there's increased LH

138

What is the MOA Of daptomycin?

Depolarizes the bacterial cell membrane

139

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: c-myc

oncogene

140

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: APC

Oncogene

141

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: p53

Oncogene

142

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: PTEN

Oncogene

143

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: VHL

Oncogene

144

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: tyrosine kinase receptors

oncogene

145

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: ERK

oncogene

146

Tumor suppressor or oncogene: WNT

oncogene

147

What subset of class I antiarrhythmics increased both AP duration, and ERP? How?

-IA
-Block Na channels, (increased AP duration)
-BLock K channels (increase ERP)

148

What is the innervation of the brachioradialis?

Radial nerve

149

What is gentamicin generally used for? What is the classic side effect?

-Gram negative rod infections
-Tinnitus