Random Topics Flashcards

1
Q

Which MD presents with sx age 2-3, proximal muscle weakness, Gower sign, calf pseudohypertrophy, dilated cardiomyopathy, elevated CK, and treated with glucocorticoids?

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (absent dystrophin)

XLR inheritance

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2
Q

Which MD presents with milder weakness than Duchenne, cardiomyopathy, and presents age 5-15?

A

Becker Muscular Dystrophy

XLR inheritance

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3
Q

Which MD presents age 12-30, facial weakness, grip myotonia, dysphagia, arrhythmias, cataracts, excessive daytime sleepiness, and testicular atrophy?

A

Classic Myotonic Dystrophy

AD inheritance
Trinucleotide repeat in DMPK gene

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4
Q

What dx presents with parathyroid adenomas, pituitary adenomas, and pancreatic/GI tumors?

A

MEN1

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5
Q

What dx presents with medullary thyroid cancer and pheochromocytoma?

A

MEN2

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6
Q

How do you differentiate MEN2A from MEN2B?

A

MEN2A has parathyroid hyperplasia and MEN2B has mucosal neuromas and marfanoid habitus

Neuromas kind of look like B shape, and marfanoid habitus is a B-male

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7
Q

What dx presents with massive amounts of watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, episodic flushing, mass in the pancreatic tail, and can sometimes correspond with MEN1?

A

VIPoma

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8
Q

What dx presents with multiple ulcers in the stomach, duodenum, and small intestine, severe diarrhea, and thickened gastric folds on endoscopy?

A

Gastrinoma

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9
Q

Which dx causes bone pain and deformity, osteolytic or mixed lytic/sclerotic bone lesions, can cause hearing loss and radiculopathy, giant cell tumor or osteosarcoma, has elevated alk phos but normal calcium and phosphate, is a dysfunction of osteoclasts, and is treated with bisphosphonates?

A

Paget disease

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10
Q

Which dx causes bone pain and presents with elevated alk phos, elevated PTH, normal/decreased calcium, decreased phospate, and decreased Vit D?

A

Osteomalacia/Rickets

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11
Q

What’s the most common cause of unilateral nipple bleeding?

A

Intraductal papilloma

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12
Q

What tumor marker is elevated in hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

AFP

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13
Q

What 3 fetal conditions cause elevated maternal serum AFP?

A
  1. Open neural tube defects
  2. Ventral wall defects
  3. Multiple gestations
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14
Q

What 2 fetal conditions cause decreased maternal serum AFP?

A
  1. Trisomy 18

2. Trisomy 21

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15
Q

How do you differentiate between Trisomy 18 and Trisomy 21 on second-trimester quad screen?

A

Both:

  • Decreased AFP
  • Decreased estriol

Trisomy 18:

  • Decreased B-hCG
  • Normal Inhibin A

Trisomy 21:

  • Increased B-hCG
  • Increased Inhibin A
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16
Q

What tumor marker is elevated in non-seminomatous germ cell testicular tumors?

A

AFP

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17
Q

What 2 tumor markers are elevated in malignant biliary obstruction?

A
  1. AFP

2. Alk phos

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18
Q

What might a low level of PAPPA at 8-14 weeks gestation mean?

A

Increased risk of IUGR, premature delivery, preeclampsia, and stillbirth

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19
Q

Do seminomas have elevated AFP?

A

No

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20
Q

Do mixed germ cell tumors have elevated AFP?

A

Yes

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21
Q

Can mixed germ cell tumors metastasize to the anterior mediastinum?

A

Yes

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22
Q

Which testicular tumor has elevated hCG and LDH?

A

Seminoma

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23
Q

Which testicular tumor has elevated AFP and hCG?

A

Mixed germ cell tumor

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24
Q

Which testicular tumor can cause increased estradiol in a man?

A

Leydig

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25
Which tumor can cause increased testosterone production in a female?
Sertoli-Leydig
26
Which ovarian tumor has elevated hCG and LDH?
Dysgerminoma
27
Which ovarian tumor in females grows quickly, often presenting with pelvic pain, and secretes AFP?
Yolk sac
28
Which ovarian tumor has elevated AFP and LDH?
Endodermal sinus tumor
29
Which ovarian tumor has elevated AFP only?
Immature teratoma
30
Which ovarian tumor has elevated AFP and hCG?
Embryonal carcinoma
31
Which ovarian tumor has elevated hCG only?
Choriocarcinoma
32
Which testicular tumor has elevated hCG and LDH?
Seminoma
33
Which testicular tumor has elevated AFP, hCG, and LDH?
Yolk sac
34
Which testicular tumor has VERY elevated hCG and elevated LDH?
Choriocarcinoma | Follows a pregnancy
35
Which testicular tumor has elevated AFP, hCG, and LDH?
Embryonal carcinoma
36
Which testicular tumor has just elevated AFP but doesn't have to?
Teratoma
37
Which 2 ovarian tumors can cause increased estrogen in a female?
Granulosa (malignant) & thecoma (benign)
38
Polymyositis vs. Polymyalgia Rheumatica?
Polymyositis: proximal muscle weakness, elevated ANA & CK Polymyalgia Rheumatica: Pain in shoulders, hip girdle, elevated ESR & CRP
39
What are the conditions that require an x-ray of the ankle?
Pain at the malleolar zone and 1 of the following: - Tender at posterior margin/tip of medial malleolus - Tender at posterior margin/tip of lateral malleolus - Unable to take 2 steps on each foot
40
What are the conditions that require an x-ray of the foot?
Pain at the midfoot zone and 1 of the following: - Tender at the navicular - Tender at the base of the 5th metatarsal - Unable to take 2 steps on each foot
41
What category of dx presents with oliguria, hematuria, HTN, RBC casts, and edema?
Nephritic syndrome
42
What dx presents with cola colored urine, edema, HTN, and occurs after GAS infex?
Post-infectious glomerulonephritis
43
What dx presents with episodic gross hematuria after URI or GI infex, often seen in young males?
IgA nephropathy (Berger's disease)
44
What dx presents with fever, WL, hematuria, respiratory, and sinus sx, and hemoptysis?
Wegener's granulomatosis
45
What dx presents with hematuria, hemoptysis, dyspnea, respiratory failure in males in their mid-20s?
Goodpasture's syndrome
46
What dx presents with hematuria, deafness, and eye disorders?
Alport's syndrome
47
What are the 5 nephritic syndromes?
"Nephritic WIG AP" Wegener's IgA Goodpasture's Alport Post-infectious
48
What category of dx presents with edema, HLD, proteinuria, and hypoalbuminemia?
Nephrotic syndrome
49
What dx presents with sudden onset of edema in kids?
Minimal change disease
50
What dx presents with edema, HLD, proteinuria, in a young African American male with uncontrolled HTN?
FSGS
51
What dx presents with edema, HLD, proteinuria, and is associated with HBV, syphilis, malaria, and gold?
Membranous nephropathy
52
What dx presents in a diabetic patient with edema, HLD, and proteinuria?
Diabetic nephropathy
53
What dx presents with proteinuria, edema, in a patient with lupus?
Lupus nephritis
54
What dx presents with proteinuria, edema, in a patient with multiple myeloma or RA?
Renal amyloidosis
55
What dx presents with proteinuria, edema, and may be associated with HCV, cryoglobulinemia, and subacute bacterial endocarditis?
Membranoproliferative nephropathy
56
What are the 7 types of nephrotic syndrome?
"MMM FRLD" Membranoprolif Membranous Minimal change FSGS Renal Amyloid Lupus Nephritis (weird yes) Diabetic
57
Which type of kidney stone is associated with calciuria and alkaline urine?
Calcium
58
Which type of kidney stone is associated with staghorn calculi and urease-producing organisms?
Struvite
59
Which type of kidney stone is associated with gout and acidic urine?
Uric acid
60
Which type of kidney stone is associated with a genetic disorder of transport of COLA aa's?
Cystine
61
What's the first step in suspected Cushing syndrome?
Low dose dexamethasone suppression test
62
After the low dose dex, what are the 2 options?
If ACTH is suppressed, this means it's an ectopic source If ACTH is elevated, then do either a high-dose dex test OR a CRH test
63
What does the following result mean?: Low dose dex: ACTH elevated High dose dex: ACTH suppressed
Cushing disease (pituitary)
64
What does the following result mean?: Low dose dex: ACTH elevated High dose dex: ACTH not suppressed
Ectopic ACTH secretion
65
What does the following result mean?: Low dose dex: ACTH elevated CRH stimulation test: ACTH and cortisol elevated
Cushing disease (pituitary)
66
What does the following result mean?: Low dose dex: ACTH elevated CRH stimulation test: ACTH and cortisol not elevated
Ectopic
67
What does the following result mean?: | Low dose dex: ACTH suppressed
Exogenous glucocorticoids or adrenal tumor
68
What are the 3 options for initial steps to diagnose Cushing syndrome?
1. Low dose dex 2. Late night salivary cortisol 3. 24-hour urinary cortisol
69
What is a normal anion gap?
8-12
70
What is an elevated anion gap?
Above 12
71
CO2 is an ____?
Acid
72
Bicarb is a ____?
Base
73
What does the mnemonic "MUDPILES" stand for in elevated anion gap metabolic acidosis?
Methanol Uremia DKA ``` Propylene glycol Iron tablets Lactic acidosis Ethylene glycol Salicylates ```
74
What does the mnemonic "HARDASS" stand for in normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?
Hyperalimentation Addison disease RTA Diarrhea Acetazolamide Spironolactone Saline infusion
75
What is the equation for anion gap?
Na - (Cl+HCO3)
76
What are the 4 causes of metabolic alkalosis?
1. Loop diuretics 2. Vomiting 3. Antacid use 4. Hyperaldosteronism
77
What's the BUN:Creatinine ratio in prerenal azotemia?
>20:1
78
What's the BUN:Creatinine ratio in ATN?
<20:1
79
What's the FENa in prerenal azotemia?
<1%
80
What's the FENa in ATN?
>1%
81
What's the urine sodium in prerenal azotemia?
<20
82
What's the urine sodium in ATN?
>20
83
What's the urine osmolality in prerenal azotemia?
>500
84
What's the urine osmolality in ATN?
<300
85
What knee injury results from a noncontact twisting mechanism, forced hyperextension, or impact to an extended knee?
ACL
86
What knee injury has a positive valgus stress test?
MCL
87
What knee injury has a positive varus stress test?
LCL
88
What knee injury results from directed force to the front of the flexed knee?
PCL
89
What knee injury has a positive McMurray test and may have clicking or locking?
Meniscal
90
The OS is ___?
MS
91
Which condition is fixed splitting heard in?
ASD
92
What causes pulsus alternans?
Cardiac tamponade
93
What causes pulsus parvus et tardus?
Aortic stenosis
94
What's the FEV1/FVC ratio in asthma?
Low
95
What's the FEV1/FVC ratio in COPD?
Low
96
What are the 5 causes of low MCV anemia?
1. Iron deficiency 2. Thalassemia 3. Sideroblastic 4. Anemia of chronic dz 5. Spherocytosis
97
What are the 4 causes of normocytic anemia?
1. Blood loss 2. Hemolysis 3. Anemia of chronic dz 4. Aplasia
98
What are the 6 causes of macrocytic anemia?
1. Vit B12 & folate deficiency 2. Alcoholism 3. Liver disease 4. Drugs 5. Mydelodysplastic syndrome 6. Sideroblastic
99
If reticulocytes are high, what type of anemia is it (only 2 options)?
Hemolytic or chronic blood loss (both normocytic)
100
How do you calculate NNT?
NNT = 1/ARR
101
How do you calculate ARR?
Percent 1 - percent 2 | in decimal forms
102
How do you calculate ARP?
ARP = (RR-1)/RR
103
What is this question asking:? "What percent of colorectal carcinoma in women with high fat consumption could be attributable to diet?"
ARP
104
What is the following asking:? "How many patients with diabetes undergoing PCI need to be treated with efrenzia to prevent 1 additional event, as compared with clopidogrel?"
NNT
105
What is the definition of Hazard Ratio?
If it's <1, the treatment group had a lower event rate If it's >1, the treatment group had a higher event rate
106
Sensitivity =
Sensitivity = A/(A+C)
107
Specificity =
Specificity = D(B+D)
108
What does a cross-sectional study measure?
Disease prevalence
109
What does a case-control study measure?
Odds ratio
110
What does a cohort study measure?
Relative risk
111
What does a cohort study measure?
Relative risk
112
What are the percents for the bell curve for the first, second, and third SD's?
68% 95% 99.7%
113
Which test checks for differences between means of 2 groups?
t-test
114
Which test checks for differences between means of 3+ groups?
ANOVA
115
Which test checks for differences between 2 or more percentages of categorical outcomes? Eg: comparing the percentage of members of 3 diff ethnic groups who have HTN?
Chi-square