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REPRODUCTIVE > REPRODUCTIVE- Embryology > Flashcards

REPRODUCTIVE- Embryology Flashcards

1
Q

Where is Sonic Hedgehog gene produced?

A

At base of limbs in zone of polarizing acitvity

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2
Q

In what is Sonic Hedgehog gene involved?

A

In patterning along anterior-posterior axis

In CNS development

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3
Q

What can Sonic Hedgehog gene mutation lead to?

A

Holoprosencephaly

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4
Q

Where is Wnt-7 gene produced?

A

At apical ectodermal ridge (thickened ectoderm at distal end of each developing limb)

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5
Q

What is the function of Wnt-7 gene?

A

Necessary for proper organization along dorsal ventral axis

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6
Q

Where is FGF gene produced?

A

At apical ectodermal ridge

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7
Q

What is the function of FGF gene?

A

Stimulates mitosis of underlying mesoderm, providing for lenghthening of limbs

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8
Q

What is the function of Homebox (Hox) genes?

A

Involved in segmental organization of embryo in a craniocaudal direction

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9
Q

What does Homebox (Hox) gene mutations lead to?

A

Appendages in wrong locations

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10
Q

During this day of early fetal development the fertilization by sperm is made, forming zygote, initiating embryogenesis

A

Day 0

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11
Q

When does hCG secretion begins?

A

Within week 1

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12
Q

What else happens during week 1 of fetal development when hCG begins?

A

Implnatation of blastocyst

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13
Q

What happens in fetal development during week 2?

A

Bilaminar disc (epiblast, hypoblast)

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14
Q

What happens in fetal development during week 3?

A

Trilaminar disc

Gastrulation

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15
Q

When do primitive streak, notochordm mesoderm and its organization, and neural plate begin to form?

A

Week 3 of fetal development

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16
Q

When does the embryonic period starts?

A

Weeks 3-8

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17
Q

What forms neural tube?

A

By neuroectoderm

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18
Q

When does the neural tube close?

A

By week 4

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19
Q

What happens during embryigenic period?

A

Closure of neural tube

Organogenesis

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20
Q

In which fetal development period is extremely susceptible to teratogens?

A

During week 3-8

Embryogenic period

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21
Q

When does the heart begin to to beat?

A

By week 4

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22
Q

When do upper and lower limb bud begin to form?

A

By 4th week

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23
Q

When is the fetal cardiac activity visible by transvaginal ultrasound?

A

By week 6

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24
Q

At this week Genitalia have mal/female characteristics

A

Week 10

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25
Q

Process that forms the trilaminar embryonic disc

A

Gastrulation

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26
Q

What is establish during Gastrulation?

A

Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm germ layers

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27
Q

How is the evolution of Gastrulation?

A

Starts with the epiblast invagination to form the primitive streak

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28
Q

How is ectoderm classified?

A

Surface ectoderm
Neuroectoderm
Neural crest

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29
Q

From which structure does Adenohypophysis come forme?

A

From Rathke pounch

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30
Q

Derivates of surface ectoderm

A

Adenohypophysis, lens of eye, ephithelial linings of oral cavitym sensory organs of ear, and olfactory epithelium, epidermis, anal canal below the pectinate line, parotid, sweat and mammary glands

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31
Q

Characteristics of Craneopharyngioma

A

Benign Rathke pounch tumor with cholesterol crystals, calcifications

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32
Q

What derivates from Neuroectoderm?

A

Brain (neurohypophysis, CNS neuronsm oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells, pineal gland), retina and optic nerve, spinal cord

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33
Q

What you should think of Neuroectoderm?

A

CNS

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34
Q

What derivates from Neural crest?

A

PNS (dorsal root ganglia, cranial nerves, celiacganglion, Schwann cells, ANS), melanocytes, chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla, parafollicular (C) cells of thyroid, pia and arachnoid, bones of the skull, odontoblasts, aporicopulmonary septum

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35
Q

What you should thibk of Neural crest derivates?

A

Think PNS and non neural structures nearby

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36
Q

Derivates of Mesoderm

A

Muscle, bone, connective tissue, serous linings of body cavities (peritoneum), spleen (derived from foregut mesentery), cardiovascular structures, lymphatics, blood, wall of gut tube, vaginam kidneys, adrenal cortex, dermis, testes, ovaries

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37
Q

What does Notochord induces?

A

Induces ectoderm to form neuroectoderm (neural plate). Its only postnatal derivative is the nucleus pulposus of the invertebral disc

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38
Q

Mesodermal defects

A 
Vertebral defects
Anal atresia
Cardiac defects
Tracheo Esophageal fistula
Renal defects
Limb defects (bone and muscle)
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39
Q

Endoderm derivates

A

Gut tube epithelium (including anal canal above the pectinate line), most of urethra (derived from urogenital sinus), luminal epithelial derivates (eg. lungs, liver, gallbladder, pancreasm eustachain tube, thymus, parathyroid , thyroid follicular cells)

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40
Q

Absent organ due to absent primordial tissue

A

Agenesis

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41
Q

Absent organ despite presence of primordial tissue

A

Aplasia

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42
Q

Incomplete organ development; primordial tissue present

A

Hypoplasia

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43
Q

What is a deformation?

A

Extrinsic disruption

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44
Q

When do deformation occur?

A

After the embryonic period

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45
Q

Secondary breakdown of a previously normal tissue or structure

A

Disruption

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46
Q

What is an example of Disruption?

A

Amniotic band syndrome

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47
Q

What is a malformation?

A

Intrinsic disruption

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48
Q

When do malformations occur?

A

During the embryonic period (week 3-8)

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49
Q

What is Sequence?

A

Abnormalities result from a single primary embryological event

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50
Q

Example of sequence

A

Oligohydramnios → Potter sequence

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51
Q

When is more susceptible for Teratogens?

A

In 3rd- 8th weeks (embryonic period- organogenesis) of pregnancy

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52
Q

Before week 3 of pregnacy do teratogen effects happen?

A

All-or-non effects

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53
Q

What could be affected by teratogens after week 8 of pregnancy?

A

Growth and function affected

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54
Q

Teratogen effect of ACE inhibitors

A

Renal damage

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55
Q

What is the teratogen effect of Alkylating agents?

A

Absence of digits, multiple anomalies

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56
Q

Which drugs can cause CN VIII toxicity?

A

Aminoglycosides

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57
Q

Teratogen effect Carbamazepine

A

Neural tube defects, craniofacial defects, fingernail hypoplasia, developmental delay, IUGR

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58
Q

Which drug can cause Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma, congenital Mullerian anomalies?

A

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

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59
Q

Which drugs can cause Neural tube defects?

A

Folate antagonists

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60
Q

What is the teratogen effect of Lithium?

A

Ebstein anomaly (atrialized right ventricle)

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61
Q

Which drug may cause Aplasia cutis congneita?

A

Methimazole

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62
Q

Teratogen effects of Phenytoin

A

Fetal hydantoin syndrome

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63
Q

What is the Fetal hydantoin syndrome?

A

Microcephaly, dismorphic craniofacial features, hypoplastic nails and distal phalanges, cardiac defects, IUGR, intellectual disability

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64
Q

Which drugs have the effect of Discolored teeth?

A

Tetracyclines

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65
Q

What is the teratogen effect of Thalidomide?

A

Limb defects (phocomelia, micromelia- flipper limbs

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66
Q

What is the teratogen effect of Valproate?

A

Inhibition of maternal folate absorption → neural tube defects

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67
Q

Teratogen effects of Warfarin

A

Bone deformities, fetal hemorrhage, abortion, ophthalmologic abnormalities

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68
Q

Can heparin be used during pregnancy?

A

Yes, because it does not cross placenta

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69
Q

Teratogen effect of Alcohol

A

Common cause of birth defects and intellectual disability; fetal alcohol syndrome

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70
Q

Which are the teratogen effects of Cocaine?

A

Abnormal fetal growth and fetal addiction; placental abruption

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71
Q

Important effects of Smoker (nicotine, CO) pregnant women

A

A leading cause of low birth weight in developed countries; associated with preterm labor, placental problems, IUGR, ADHD

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72
Q

This teratogen agent can cause Congenital goiter or hypothyroidism (creatinism)

A

Iodine (lack or excess)

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73
Q

Teratogen effects of Maternal diabetes

A

Caudal regression syndrome (anal atresia to sirenomelia) congenital heart defects, neural tube defects

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74
Q

What are the risks of Vitamin A (excess) in pregnant women?

A

Extremely high risk for spontaneous abortionsand birth defects (cleft palate, cardiac, abnormalities)

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75
Q

What are the teratogen risk of X ray exposure?

A

Microcephaly, intellectual disability

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76
Q

Which is one of the leading causes of congenital malformations in the USA?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

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77
Q

What is the risk for newborns of mothers who consumed significant amounts of alcohol during pregnancy?

A

Have increase incidence of congenital abnormalities, including intellectual disability, pre and postnatal developmental retardation, microcephaly , holoprosencephaly, facial abnormalities (smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, small palpebral fissures, hypertelorism), limb dislocation and heart defects

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78
Q

How do dizygotic twins arise?

A

From 2 eggs that are separately fertilized by 2 different sperm (always 2 zygotes)

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79
Q

Characteristics of dizygotic twins during the pregnancy

A

Have 2 separate amniotic sacs and 2 separate placentas (chorions)

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80
Q

From where do monozygotic arise?

A

From 1 fertilized egg (1 egg+ 1 sperm) that splits into 2 zygotes in early pregnancy

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81
Q

In what depends the degree of separation between monozygotic twins?

A

On when the fertilized egg splits into 2 zygotes

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82
Q

In monozygotic twins what does the timing of separation determines?

A

The number of chorions and the number of amnions

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83
Q

Percentage of monocygotic twins

A

20 %

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84
Q

Percentage of Dizygotic twins

A

80%

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85
Q

What is the most common result of Dizygotic twins?

A

Dichorionic diamniotic

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86
Q

Which is the most common result of cleavage in monocygotic twins?

A

75% Monochorionic, diamniotic

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87
Q

During the Monochorionic diamniotic in monocygotic twins… When and in which phase does this happen?

A

4-8 days in Morula to Blastocyst phase

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88
Q

Possible result of cleavage in monocygotic twins during 0- 4 days

A

Dichorionic diamniotic

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89
Q

Percentage of Dichorionic diamniotic in monocygotic twins

A

25%

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90
Q

In monocygotic twins what could be the result of cleavage during 8-12 days?

A

Monochorionic monoamniotic

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91
Q

What is the risk if monocygotic twins cleavege after day 13?

A

Monochorionic monoamniotic conjoined twins

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92
Q

What happens during day 0-4 of pregnancy?

A

2 cell stage to Morula

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93
Q

What happens during day 4-8 of pregnancy?

A

Morula to Blastocyst

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94
Q

What happens during day 8-12 of pregnancy?

A

Blastocyst to Formed disc

95
Q

Percentage of Monochorionic monoamniotic

A
96
Q

Primary site of nutrient and gas exchange between mother and fetus

A

Placenta

97
Q

Fetal components of Placenta

A

Cytotrophoblast

Syncytiothrophoblast

98
Q

What is the cytotrophoblast?

A

Inner layer of chorionic villi

99
Q

What does the cytotrophoblast make?

A

make cells

100
Q

What is the Syncytiothrophoblast?

A

Outer layer of chorionic villi

101
Q

What does Syncytiothrophoblast secretes?

A

hCG

102
Q

Who secretes hCG?

A

Syncytiothrophoblast

103
Q

From whom is hCG structurally similar?

A

LH

104
Q

What is the function of hCG?

A

Stimulates corpusluteum to secrete progesterone during first semester

105
Q

Maternal components of Placenta

A

Decidua basalis

106
Q

From where does Decidua basalis derived from?

A

From endometrium

107
Q

Characteristics of Decidua basalis

A

Maternal blood in lacunae

108
Q

How many arteries are contained in Umbilical cord?

A

Two

109
Q

How many veins are contained in Umbilical cord?

A

One

110
Q

What is the function of Umbilical arteries?

A

Return deoxygenated blood from fetal internal iliac arteries to placenta

111
Q

Function of Umbilical vein

A

Supplies oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus

112
Q

From where do umbilical vein drains?

A

Drains into IVC via liver or via ductus venosus

113
Q

Structures of Umbilical cord

A 
Allantoic duct
Amniotic epithelium
Warton jelly
Umbilical vein
Umbilical arteries
114
Q

What is associated to single umbilical artery?

A

With congenital and chromosomal anomalies

115
Q

From where do Umbilical vein and arteries derive?

A

From allantois

116
Q

How is the urachus formed?

A

In the 3rd week the yolk sac forms the allantois, which extends into the urogenital sinus. Allantois becomes the urachus

117
Q

What is the urachus?

A

A duct between fetal bladder and yolk salc

118
Q

Which are the main problems when the urachus failures to oblitarate?

A

Patent urachus
Urachal cyst
Vesicourachal diverticulum

119
Q

What is the result of patent urachus?

A

Urine discharge from umbilicus

120
Q

What does a partial failure of urachus to obliterate leads to?

A

Urachal cyst

121
Q

Findings of Urachal cyst

A

Fluid filled cavity lined with uroepithelium, between umbilicus and bladder

122
Q

What can urachal cyst lead to?

A

Infection

Adenocarcinoma

123
Q

When is the obliteration of vitelline duct made?

A

7th week

124
Q

Alternative name for the obliterated Vitelline duct?

A

Omphalo-mesenteric duct

125
Q

What does Vitelline duct connects?

A

Connects Yolk sac to midgut lumen

126
Q

What could be the results of failure of vitelline duct to close?

A

Viteline fistula

Meckel diverticulum

127
Q

Findings of Vitelline fistula

A

Meconium discharge from umbilicus

128
Q

Partial closure of Vitelline duct, with patent portion atached to illeum (true diverticulum)

A

Meckel diverticulum

129
Q

What can Meckel diverticulum have?

A

Ectopic gastric mucosa and/or pancreatic tissue

130
Q

Possible findings of Meckel diverticulum

A

Melena, periumbilical pain, and ulcers

131
Q

Develop into the arterial system

A

Aortic arch derivates

132
Q

Derivative of 1st aortic arch

A

Part of maxillary artery (branch of external carotid)

133
Q

Derivative of 2nd aortic arch

A

Stapedial artery and hyoid artery

134
Q

Who are derivative of 3rd Aortic arch?

A

Common carotid artery and proximal part of internal internal carotid

135
Q

Derivatives of 4th aortic arch

A

On left, aortic arch; on right, proximal part of right subclavian artery

136
Q

Who are derivative of 6th Aortic arch?

A

Proximal part of pulmonary arteries and (on left only) ductus arteriosus

137
Q

Where does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around?

A

Between 3rd and 4th Aortic arch derivatives

138
Q

Where does left recurrent laryngeal nerve gets caught?

A

By the ductus arteriosus

139
Q

What happens to the ductus arteriosus?

A

Turns into the ligamentum arteriosum shortly after birth

140
Q

How else branchial aparatus is known?

A

Also called pharyngeal apparatus

141
Q

How is the branchial aparatus composed?

A

Of branchial clefts, arches and pouches

142
Q

From where does Branchial clefts derived?

A

From ectoderm

143
Q

How else are branchial clefts known?

A

Branchial grooves

144
Q

From where do Branchial arches derived?

A

From mesoderm (muscles, arteries) and neural crest (bones, cartilage)

145
Q

From where do Branchial pouches dereive?

A

From endoderm

146
Q

Who derives into external auditory meatus?

A

1st branchial cleft

147
Q

What do 2nd through 4th branchial clefts form?

A

Temporal cervical sinuses

148
Q

What happen to the temporal cervical sinuses formed by 2nd through 4th branchial clefts?

A

They are obliterated by 2nd Branchial arch mesenchyme proliferation

149
Q

What do persistent cervical sinus lead to?

A

Branchial cleft cyst within lateral neck

150
Q

Cartilage derivatives of 1st branchial arch

A

Meckel cartilage: Mandible, Malleus, incus, spheno Mandibular ligament

151
Q

Muscles derivatives of 1st branchial arch

A

Muscles of Mastication (temporalis, Masseter, lateral and Medial pterygoids), Mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini

152
Q

Nerves derivatives of 1st branchial arch

A

CN V2 and V3 chew

153
Q

What causes Treacher Collins syndrome?

A

1st arch neural crest fails to migrate

154
Q

Findings of Treacher Collins syndrome

A

Mandibular hypoplasia, facial abnormalities

155
Q

Cartilage derivatives of 2nd branchial arch

A

Reichert cartilage: Stapes, Styloid process, lesser horn of hyoid, Stylhyoid ligament

156
Q

Muscles derivatives of 2nd branchial arch

A

Muscles of Facial expression, Stapedius, Stylohyoid, plastysma, belly digastric

157
Q

Nerves derivatives of 2nd branchial arch

A

CN VII (facial expression) smile

158
Q

What is the cause of Congenital pharyngocutaneous fistula?

A

Persistance of branchial cleft and pounch

159
Q

Results of Congenital pharyngocutaneous fistula

A

Fistula between tonsillar area and lateral neck

160
Q

Cartillage derivatives of 3rd branchial arch

A

Cartilage: greater horn of hyoid

161
Q

Muscle derivatives of 3rd branchial arch

A

Stylopharyngeus (Swallow stylishly)

162
Q

Who innervates Stylopharyngeus?

A

CN IX

163
Q

Nerve derivatives of 3rd branchial arch

A

CN IX

164
Q

Cartilage derivatives of 4th- 6th branchial arch

A

Cartilages: Thyroid, cricoid, arytenoids, corniculate, cuneiform

165
Q

Muscles derivatives of 4th branchial arch

A

Most pharyngeal constrictors; cricothyroid, levator veli palatini

166
Q

Muscles derivatives of 6th branchial arch

A

All intrinsic muscles of larynx except cricothyroid

167
Q

Nerves derivatives of 4th branchial arch

A

CN X (superior laryngeal branch) simply swallow

168
Q

Nerves derivatives of 6th branchial arch

A

CN X (recurrent laryngeal branch) speak

169
Q

Who forms posterior 1/3 of tongue?

A

Brnachial arches 3 and 4

170
Q

What developmental contributions are made by 5th branchial arch?

A

Makes no major developmental contributions

171
Q

Develops into middle ear cavity, eustachian tube, mastoid air cells

A

1st branchial pounch derivate

172
Q

In What does 1st branchial pounch contribute?

A

To endoderm-lined structures of ear

173
Q

Develops into epithelial lining of palatine tonsil

A

2nd branchial pounch

174
Q

What derivates from dorsal wings of 3rd pounch?

A

Develops into inferior parathyroids

175
Q

What derivates from ventral wings of 3rd pounch?

A

Develops into thymus

176
Q

In What does 3rd branchial pounch contribute?

A

To 3 structures (thymus, left and right inferior parathyroids)

177
Q

Which structures are below between 3rd branchial pouch and 4th branchial pounch?

A

3rd branchial pounch

178
Q

Who develops into superior parathyroid?

A

Dorsal wings of 4th pounch

179
Q

Aberrant development of 3rd and 4th branchial pounches

A

DiGeorge syndrome

180
Q

What is the cause of DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Aberrant development of 3rd and 4th branchial pounches

181
Q

What is the result of DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Aberrant development of 3rd and 4th branchial pounches→ T cell deficiency (thymic aplasia) and hypocaclemia (failure of parathyroid development)

182
Q

What is associated with DiGeorge syndrome?

A

With cardiac defects (conotruncal anomalies)

183
Q

Mutation of germline RET (neural crest cells)

A

MEN 2A

184
Q

Pathologies caused by MEN 2A

A 
Adrenal medulla (pheochromocytoma)
Parathyroid (tumor): 3rd/4th pharyngeal pounch
Parafollicular cells (medullary thyroid cancer): derived from neural crest cells; associated with the 4th/5th pharyngeal pounches
185
Q

What is the cause of Cleft lip?

A

Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes (formation of primary palate)

186
Q

What causes Cleft palate?

A

Failure of fusion of the two lateral palatine processes or failure of fusion of lateral palatine processes with the nasal septum and/ or median palatine process (formation of secondary palate)

187
Q

Relationship between Cleft palate and cleft lip

A

Cleft palate and cleft lip have two distinct etiologies, but often occur together

188
Q

Which gender has default development?

A

Female

189
Q

Structures of Female development, which one degenerate and which one develops?

A

Mesonephric duct degenerates and paramesonephric duct develops

190
Q

Who produces testis determining factor (testes development)?

A

SRY gene on Y chromosome

191
Q

What is the function of Sertoli cells in Male development?

A

Sertoli cells secrete Mullerian inhibitory factor (MIF) that supresses development of paramesonephric ducts

192
Q

What is the function of Leydig cells in male development?

A

Secrete androgens that stimulate the development of mesonephric ducts

193
Q

Alternative for Paramesonephric duct

A

Mullerian duct

194
Q

Structures develop by Paramesonephric duct

A

Into female internal structures- fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper portion of vagina

195
Q

Who forms the lower portion of vagina?

A

Urogenital sinus

196
Q

What is the result of Mullerian duct abnormalities?

A

Anatomical defects

197
Q

How are Mullerian duct abnormalities manifested?

A 
Primary amenorrhea in females with fully developed
Secondary characteristics (indicator of functional ovaries)
198
Q

What develops from Mesonephric duct?

A

Into male internal structures

199
Q

Alternative name for Mesonephric duct

A

Wolffian duct

200
Q

Which is the only male internal structure that is not formed by Mesonephric duct?

A

Prostate

201
Q

Structes formed by Mesonephric duct

A 
SEED
Seminal vesicles
Epiddymis
Ejaculatory duct
Ductus deferens
202
Q

What causes Bicornuate uterus?

A

Result from incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts

203
Q

Result of complete failure of fusion of paramesonephric duct

A

Resulting in double uterus and vagina

204
Q

What can be the results of Bicornuate uterus?

A

Can lead to anatomic defects → recurrent miscarriages

205
Q

Main cells in Testes

A

Sertoli cell

Leydig cell

206
Q

Who produces Testosterone in testes?

A

Leydig cells

207
Q

What is the result of No sertoli cells or lack of Mullerian inhibitory factor?

A

Develop both male and female internal genitalia and male external genitalia

208
Q

How is the prostate formed?

A

By Genital tubercle, urogenital sinus Thanks to Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) Male external genitalia and prostate are formed

209
Q

How is Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) produced?

A

By Testosterone conversion thanks to 5 α reductase

210
Q

Main function of Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in male development

A

Conversion of Genital tubercle, urogenital sinus to Male external genitalia and prostate

211
Q

Main funtion of Sertolli cell in male development

A

Mullerian inhibitory factor

212
Q

What happens if there is a deficiency of 5 α reductase?

A

Inability to convert testoreno into DHT (Dihydrotestosterone )

213
Q

Findings of 5 α reductase deficiency

A

Male internal genitalia, ambigous external genitalia until puberty (when ↑ testosterone levels cause masculinization)

214
Q

Main hormones that stimulate male/female genital structures differentiation

A

Dihydrotestosterone for masculinization

Estrogen for feminization

215
Q

Which male/female genital homologs derive from Genital tubercle?

A

Glans penis for male

Glans clitoris for female

216
Q

Which male/female genital homologs derive from genital tubercle?

A

Corpus cavernosum and spingiosum in male

Vestibular bulbs in female

217
Q

Which male/female genital homologs derive from Urogenital sinus?

A 
Bulbourethral glands (of Cowper) for male
Greater vestibular glands (of Bartholin) for female
218
Q

Which male/female genital homologs derive from Urogenital sinus?

A

Prostate gland for male

Urethral and paraurethral glands (of Skene) for female

219
Q

Which male/female genital homologs derive from Urogenital folds?

A

Ventral shaft of penis (penile urethra) for male

Labia minora for female

220
Q

Which male/female genital homologs derive from Labioscrotal sweelling?

A

Scrotum for male

Labia majora for female

221
Q

Congenital penile abnormalities

A

Hypospadias

Epispadias

222
Q

What is Hypospadias?

A

Abnormal opening of penile urethra on inferior (ventral) side of penis due to failure of urethral folds to clse`

223
Q

What is Epispadias?

A

Abnormal opening of penile urethra on superior (dorsal) side of penis due to faulty positioning of genital tubercle

224
Q

Which is more common Epispadis or Hypospadias?

A

Hypospadias is more common

225
Q

Why does Hypospadias need to be fixed?

A

To prevent UTIs

226
Q

What is associated with Epispadias?

A

Exstrophy of the bladder

227
Q

Mnemonic for epispadias

A

When you have Epispadias, you hit your Eye when you pEE

228
Q

What is the Gubernaculum?

A

Band of fibrous tissue

229
Q

Male remnant of Gubernaculum

A

Anchors testes within scrotum

230
Q

Female remnant of Gubernaculum

A

Ovarian ligament + round ligament of uterus

231
Q

What is the Processus vaginalis?

A

Evagination of peritoneum

232
Q

Male remnant of Processus vaginalis

A

Forms tunica vaginalis

233
Q

Female remnant of Processus vaginalis

A

Obliterated

REPRODUCTIVE (5 decks)

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