Responding to Routine Emergencies Flashcards
(157 cards)
1
Q
When responding to an odor of smoke in a commercial occupancy, a telephone exchange, or a building that houses a transformer, what hazard may be present in the burning insulation?
A
Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC)
2
Q
At an odor of smoke call, a flickering, dim, or nonfunctioning fluorescent lamp can indicate that the __________ is heating up.
A
Ballast
3
Q
It is possible, in ballast devices manufactured before 1979, that the capacitor contains a small amount of __________-contaminated dielectric fluid.
A
PCB
4
Q
True or False:
Removing a fluorescent lamp smaller than 8 feet will stop the flow of electricity.
A
False
5
Q
Underwriters Laboratories didn’t require thermal protection for approved recessed lighting until what year?
A
1982
6
Q
Since the smell of overheating rubber mimics that of an electrical problem, you should consider checking __________ at an electrical odor call.
A
The belts of major appliances.
7
Q
If you suspect that ignited lint is the source of a smoke condition, you’ll have to check both the clothes dryer itself and the entire run of the __________.
A
Vent Duct
8
Q
True or False:
A loose wire in a junction box may cause overheating in another box, provoking a fire remote from the cause.
A
True
9
Q
A noninvasive way to check behind a wall for hot wires, smoldering beams, or active flaming is to use a __________.
A
Thermal Imaging Camera
10
Q
Should the fire department open sealed electrical boxes?
A
No. Curtail the power by using the main shutoff instead.
11
Q
In a residential building, will opening the main switch necessarily cut off all power to the home?
A
No. It’s possible that power is being pirated into the building, bypassing both the meter and the main shutoff.
12
Q
True or False:
Some new meters may be removed w/o interrupting the flow of electricity into the building.
A
True
13
Q
Does aluminum siding pose a threat of shock hazard?
A
Yes
14
Q
Name 4 dangers associated with spraying water on a burning pole-mounted transformer.
A
- Explosion
- PCB Contamination
- Downed Wires
- Electrocution
15
Q
Treat all wires as if they were __________.
A
Live
16
Q
Is it entirely safe to use a rope or wooden pike pole to remove a downed power line from a vehicle?
A
No. Even a seemingly dry rope or pike pole can contain contaminants that might conduct electricity.
17
Q
When power lines are down, the danger zone s/b at least __________ in either direction of the fault.
A
One Span
18
Q
If, at the request of the utility company, the decision is made to flood an electrical manhole, the proper procedure you should follow is to __________.
A
Tie off the open butt of a hoseline near the opening, then withdraw all personnel to a safe distance before turning on the water.
19
Q
The major problem experienced with electrical manholes in the Northeast is deterioration due to __________.
A
Salt
20
Q
The gases generated by burning wiring are not only noxious and deadly, they are also __________ and __________.
A
Flammable and Explosive.
21
Q
The author recommends that you routinely test for dangerous levels of __________ at every manhole incident.
A
CO
22
Q
Who should pull the cover off a smoking manhole?
A
Appropriately trained utility personnel.
23
Q
The most common home heating fuels are __________ and __________.
A
Oil and Natural Gas
24
Q
Based on its viscosity, fuel oil is separated into how many grades?
A
6
25
The capacity of a fuel tank in a private dwelling is typically __________ gallons.
275
26
To ignite the fuel oil in the combustion chamber of an oil burner, the fuel is __________, this increasing its surface area.
Atomized
27
Safety devices allow an oil burner pump to operate for no more than about __________ seconds if no flame is present.
90
28
This oil burner emergency occurs when unburned atomized fuel is ignited at the start of the burn cycle, resulting in an explosion.
Delayed Ignition (Puffback)
29
The burning of pooled oil in the combustion chamber after the burner has shut down is known as __________.
Afterfire
30
This condition occurs when the flame repeatedly jumps away from and then returns to the burner nose cone.
Pulsation
31
Since the White Ghost is a potentially explosive situation, you should treat it as a __________.
Gas Leak
32
On arrival at an oil burner emergency, should you close the furnace door if you find it open?
No. Closing the furnace door can cause severe pulsation.
33
After shutting down the power and the fuel supply valve, what is the proper way to extinguish a fire in the combustion chamber of an oil burner?
Let it burn out on its own.
34
If smoke is filling the burner room accompanied by an oily odor, suspect __________.
A blocked or disconnected flue or chimney.
35
The primary threat of an oil spill in a basement is that the vapors will __________.
Make the occupants of the building sick.
36
Typically, on residential water heaters, the temperature-pressure valve will function if the water reaches __________ or if the pressure exceeds __________.
210 Degrees
150 psi
37
Name 2 symptoms of a defective temperature-pressure valve.
Steam or hot water discharging from the temp-pressure valve, or steam rather than water discharging from an opened hot water faucet.
38
Name 2 symptoms of a defective low-water cutoff.
A red-hot water heater and the smell of hot metal.
39
When the homeowner reports having heard a loud whooshing sound prior to noticing fire near the gas water heater, what problem is usually indicated?
Delayed Ignition
40
The natural gas intended for domestic use contains 70 to 90 percent __________, with __________ making up most of the remainder.
Methane
Ethane
41
Although natural gas is nontoxic, it can cause death by __________.
Asphyxiation
42
Typically, the odorant added to natural gas is __________.
Mercaptan
43
Natural gas is about __________ as dense as air.
2/3
44
High pressure gas transmission lines can be pressurized to as much as __________.
350 psi
45
Each end user has a gas regulator installed to lower the pressure down to a usable pressure of about __________.
1/4 psi
46
The main danger of having water in a gas line is that it can __________ in the same way that an air slug would.
Cause flameout
47
For every increase in temperature of 459 degrees F, the volume of air __________.
Doubles
48
To some extent, odorants can be absorbed by iron gas pipe, but only when the pipe is __________.
New
49
What device enables you to determine not only that natural gas is present, but also its concentration and whether or not it is within its flammable range?
Digital Flammable Gas Detector
50
Name 2 probable results of excessive gas flow to an appliance.
1. The gas flame can either be blown out l, possibly resulting in a gas leak.
2. The flame may grow, possibly to dangerous heights.
51
Blocked burner ports, accumulated dirt, and low gas pressure can all result in __________.
Delayed Ignition
52
Don’t extinguish a gas fire until you __________.
Shit off the escaping gas
53
Could keying the mic on a potable radio be enough to set off an explosion at a response to an interior gas leak?
Yes
54
When responding to an interior gas leak, you should position apparatus defensively against __________ and __________.
Explosion and Structural Collapse
55
True or False:
The hazards associated with a propane gas leak are different from those of a natural gas leak.
True
56
In the case of a slight leak, is a gas indicator likely to give accurate results if you slip the probe underneath the door of a locked apartment? Why?
No, because the gas has probably accumulated near the ceiling.
57
The shutoff found on the supply side of a gas meter is known as a __________.
Meter Quarter-turn Wingcock
58
True or False:
Since metal pipe is conductive, gas leaking from a metal pipe poses a static electricity hazard.
False. Plastic pipe, specifically because it is non-conductive, will allow a static charge to build up as gas flows freely through a break in the pipe. No static charge will build up on a conductive metal pipe.
59
Is it possible to stop the flow of gas from a small plastic pipe by folding the pipe over on itself?
Yes, but you must consider static electricity as a possible source of ignition and take proper precautions.
60
Freshwater weighs approximately __________ pounds per cubic foot at 40 degrees F.
62.4 pounds
61
By weight, how much water will be on a 30- by 45-foot roof if the water level is 3” deep?
30’ x 45’ = 1350 sq. ft.
1350 x 0.25’ (depth) = 337.5 cubic ft.
337.5 x 62.4 lbs = 21,060 lbs.
62
When siphoning water off a roof, the author recommends that you use a length or two of 1” rubber booster line since it will __________.
Resist kinking
63
One disadvantage of using an eductor is that it requires that a __________ be left at the scene of a dewatering operation.
Pumper
64
Describe what may happen if rising water meets an electrical outlet.
It can cause a short that trips the circuit breaker, or it can start a fire. If the breaker doesn’t trip, the area near the submerged outlet can become electrically charged.
65
True or False:
Dewatering a flooded basement removes the threat of electrocution.
False. Water that is still in the ceiling, in walls, and on wire and appliances can cause switches, appliances, and even countertops and floors to become electrically charged.
66
True or False:
When looking at sagging plasterboard ceiling to relieve the buildup of water above it, you should use the handle of the pike pole.
True, since the handle of a pike pole is less likely than the hook-shaped head to cause the ceiling to collapse as you withdraw it.
67
When called to the scene of a reported water main break, what should your first action be?
Verify that the leak is from the main.
68
Is it possible to shut a hydrant too quickly? Why or why not?
Yes. Shutting a hydrant too quickly can create a water hammer, which may burst the water main.
69
Explain why, if the source of the street flooding isn’t obvious, you should search for the location of a broken water main on foot.
The possibility exists that the road has been undermined and that the weight of the apparatus will collapse it.
70
A FF should treat every vehicle fire as a potential __________.
HazMat Incident
71
To avoid the hazard of shock-absorbing bumpers, how should you approach a burning vehicle?
From the sides.
72
What 2 gases are formed within a battery as it charges?
Hydrogen and Oxygen
73
The explosive range of hydrogen is from __________ to __________.
4% lower to 71% upper
74
In some vehicles, particularly those with __________ engines, there may be more than one battery.
Diesel
75
What is the principle hazard associated with the fuel lines of modern fuel-injected vehicles?
The fuel line, which may convey gasoline at 30 psi, will retain its pressure even after the engine has been shut off.
76
Are power steering fluid and automatic transmission fluid flammable?
Yes, when released under pressure in the form of a spray.
77
A fire impinging on a propane cylinder may lead to what type of explosion?
BLEVE
78
Can the fuel tank of a vehicle powered by compressed natural gas experience the same type of explosion as a propane tank?
No. A CNG tank can’t experience a BLEVE since it contains a gas, not a liquid.
79
If, after a fire in a vehicle has been put out, a thorough search of the interior and trunk of the vehicle reveals no victims, is the search complete?
No. There may be a pedestrian pinned under the vehicle.
80
The author recommends thoroughly searching the trunk at every incident, but particularly under what condition?
When the vehicle is found in a remote area.
81
Normally, if the burning vehicle is on a slope, you should place the apparatus _________ of it.
Uphill
82
Name 2 ways to introduce water into the trunk besides opening or cutting the lid.
1. From the passenger compartment, if the backseat has been burned out or removed.
2. By breaking a taillight and inserting a nozzle into the hole.
83
Treat a car burning inside a garage as a __________.
Structure Fire
84
How can a vise grip be used to hold up a garage door?
By clamping it to the track below the doors rollers.
85
When setting out flares to warn traffic of an incident site, how should they be placed?
To beyond the estimated stopping range of oncoming traffic, and slanting to cover the farthest lane occupied by emergency personnel.
86
When responding to a food-on-the-stove call, the type of incident that you encounter depends in large degree on __________.
The type of food being cooked.
87
True or False:
The method of forcible entry used at a food on the stove incident should be in strict accordance with SOPs so as to protect the department against legal action.
False. The method s/b decoded on a case by case basis.
88
If you receive a number of calls for an odor of smoke at a multifamily residence, need you check out each one?
Yes.
89
Smoke from burning food probably contains nitrogen dioxide. Name some symptoms of NO2 poisoning.
Nausea, stomach pains, vomiting, oxygen deficiency in the blood, altered blood pressure, headaches, delayed onset of symptoms.
90
What is perhaps the best way to open a double-sash window to ventilate an apartment?
2/3 at the top, 1/3 at the bottom.
91
If a FF encounters heat while searching for victims and the source of the smoke, it is an indication that __________.
It’s no longer a food on the stove call, but a structure fire.
92
Is extension a possibility if you find a pot that is only smoking?
Yes, there may have been open flame before you arrived.
93
True or False:
Spraying water into a pan of burning cooking oil may cause the oil to splatter, but it will suppress the flames.
False. The hot oil can vaporize, ignite, and flare up even higher.
94
Is a glass of water enough to out out a fire in the oven?
Yes. The steam that’s generated after you close the door will probably smother the fire.
95
If the shutoff typically found before the flexible connector was involved in the fire or doesn’t work, then you should __________.
Shut off the gas at the meter.
96
After extinguishing a mattress fire in an apartment, where must you search?
The entire apartment, the adjoining apartments, and the apartment above, at minimum.
97
Even after dousing a mattress fire with an extinguisher, you should __________.
Thoroughly soak the mattress with a hand line.
98
To thoroughly extinguish a smoldering mattress, you should __________.
Cut open the mattress to extinguish fire at its core.
99
True or False:
Extinguishing the fire in a foam mattress will curtail the generation of combustible gases.
False. Foam mattresses and those with foam pads can continue to generate combustible gases even after the active flames have been extinguished.
100
To avoid an eruption of flames when pushing a mattress out a window, how should you prepare the mattress?
Fold the mattress in half so that the burned side is toward the fold, then tie it closed.
101
True or False:
It is advisable to use an elevator when that is the fastest way to get a burned mattress out of a building.
False
102
What is the best way to stay out of the smoke if, for whatever reason, you aren’t equipped with SCBA at a rubbish fire?
Use the reach of your line and attack the fire with the wind at your back.
103
Why isn’t the type of occupancy an adequate indication of the hazards associated with a fire in the dumpster out back?
Any dumpster is prone to the illegal dumping of hazardous materials.
104
True or False:
Because of the many void spaces in trash, it is better to overhaul a dumpster fire manually than hydraulically.
False
105
The primary life hazard at a dumpster fire is that of __________.
The FF
106
Perhaps the best way to overhaul a pile of automobiles at a junkyard fire is to use __________ in conjunction with hydraulic overhaul techniques.
Heavy Equipment
107
The author mentions a simple way of identifying holes in the floors and stairways of derelict buildings. What is it?
Shine bright lights up from below.
108
When directing a master stream into a derelict building, how can an IC judge whether too much water is collecting in or being absorbed by the structure?
By monitoring the runoff.
109
What is the purpose of marking a derelict building?
To warn FF at future incidents of the building’s relative stability at the time it was marked.
110
CO has more than __________ times the affinity for hemoglobin as oxygen.
200 times
111
True or False:
Although burning oil and propane are well known to produce CO, natural gas does not.
False
112
Underwriters Laboratories has set the minimums for CO detectors in its standard known as __________.
UL 2034
113
Why wasn’t CO poisoning in the home as much of a recognized problem prior to the 1970s as it is today? Give 2 reasons.
1. Improved energy efficiency has made modern homes more airtight.
2. Many CO-related deaths and illnesses in previous years weren’t attributed to CO.
114
By current statistics, how many deaths in the US are attributable to CO poisoning each year? How many illnesses?
About 1,500 deaths; 10,000 illnesses.
115
A hemoglobin molecule has how many binding sites for oxygen?
4
116
As the body is deprived of oxygen, the body tries to compensate by increasing the __________.
Breathing Rate
117
Given continuous exposure to carbon monoxide, a person’s COHb level will rise until equilibrium is established with __________.
The ambient level of CO.
118
A 3% COHb level at a mere 1,400 feet is equivalent to __________ % at sea level.
20%
119
The smaller the victim’s body mass, the __________ and __________ the effect of CO on his system.
Greater and faster.
120
What tissues of the body are the most quickly and most adversely affected by CO?
Those that require the most oxygen - e.g. the cardiovascular system and the brain.
121
Is cherry red coloration of a suspected victim a reliable indicator of CO poisoning?
No
122
Mild CO poisoning mimics the systems of __________.
The flu.
123
With 100% oxygen and a tight fitting mask, the half-life of bloodstream CO drops to about __________.
80 minutes
124
True or False:
Hyperbaric patients can later suffer a relapse as CO is slowly released from muscle tissue.
True
125
The vapor density of CO is __________.
0.96
126
The explosive range of CO is __________ to __________.
12.5% to 74%
127
__________ fuels create the most CO, __________ fuels general less, and __________ fuels produce the least.
Solid > Liquid > Gas
128
Why will a cold pot temporarily increase the formation of CO when it is placed on the burner of a gas stove?
Because it lowers the temperature of the flame.
129
Before reaching operating temperature, a gas oven can give off as much as __________ ppm of CO.
800
130
What is reverse stacking?
A mechanically induced downdraft.
131
According to the text, a car that hasn’t been warmed up can initially give off __________ ppm of CO.
30,000
132
In terms of percentages, approximately how many US homes are currently equipped with CO detectors?
6%
133
Who should determine exactly how many ambulances are needed when Dispatch receives a call for a CO emergency?
The officer of the first arriving company.
134
True or False:
The amount of CO that sets off an alarm would usually, given time, be lethal.
False
135
To detect low-level sources, it’s important that a FF use a CO meter capable of sensing gas levels from _________ ppm to at least __________ ppm, and preferably __________ ppm.
0 > 200 > 999
136
Which government agency sets the most stringent standards for acceptable levels of CO?
The EPA
137
When interviewing an occupant at a CO response, you should first take readings __________.
At the door.
138
If, after a thorough search of the house for CO and defective appliances, you find nothing, you should __________.
Set up a worst case scenario.
139
A CO meter that can record CO activity in a home over time and later download the info don’t a computer is called a __________.
Datalogger
140
A gas flame that isn’t properly adjusted and is giving off excess CO will be __________ or _________ in color.
Yellow or orange
141
What sort of detector absorbs ambient CO and is based on synthetic hemoglobin contained in a small gel cell?
Biomemetic
142
The more CO that a gel cell absorbs, the __________ it gets.
Darker
143
Is the color of the module a sufficient indicator to tell whether a CO detector is of an old or new design?
No
144
In a semiconductor CO detector, oxygen __________ the electrical resistance of the tin dioxide sensor, whereas CO __________ it.
Increases > Decreases
145
What is the power source used for a semiconductor detector?
110 volt house current.
146
As semiconductor detectors age, do them become more or less sensitive?
More Sensitive
147
Semiconductor CO detectors may react to high levels of __________ as if they’d been exposed to CO.
Natural Gas
148
This type of detector is composed of three electrodes in a paste-like electrolyte and a membrane that is porous only to gas.
Electrochemical
149
The typical lifespan of any CO detector is about __________.
5 Years
150
Originally published in April 1992, UL 2032 was revised in October of what year?
1995
151
The 1992 version of UL 2032 required that the detectors sound an alarm when the CO present in the air would cause the COHb in a healthy adult to reach _________ percent.
10
152
At 400 ppm, UL 2032 requires a CO detector to sound an alarm within what length of time?
15 Minutes
153
True or False:
UL requires that detectors remain silent for a specified period of exposure to specified amounts of CO.
True
154
The revised UL standard requires that a detector pass the rush hour test for how many days in a row?
Thirty
155
Does the revised UL standard require all CO detectors to have a reset button?
Yes
156
The International Approval Service (IAS) standard requires that an alarm not sound before the occupant’s COHb levels reach __________ percent.
5
157
True or False:
CO detectors may be triggered by a thermal inversion.
True
