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Flashcards in Sample Test A & B Deck (80)
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1

What types of changes are NOT usually included within the scope of change
management?

a) Changes to a mainframe computer
b) Changes to business strategy
c) Changes to a service level agreement (SLA)
d) The retirement of a service

b) Changes to business strategy

2

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of service operation?
a) To undertake testing to ensure services are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and manage IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes

a) To undertake testing to ensure services are designed to meet business needs

3

What does the term IT operations control refer to?
a) Managing the technical and applications management functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events
c) A set of tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT infrastructure and
applications

d) A service desk monitoring the status of the infrastructure when operators are
not available

b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events

4

Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service
components?

a) Service level management
b) Service portfolio management
c) Service asset and configuration management (SACM)
d) Incident management

c) Service asset and configuration management (SACM)

5

What is the RACI model used for?
a) Documenting the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders in a process or
activity

b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analysing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of service
management

a) Documenting the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders in a process or
activity

6

Which of the following is the BEST description of an operational level agreement
(OLA)?

a) An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same
organization that assists in the provision of services

b) A written agreement between the IT service provider and their customer(s)
defining key targets and responsibilities of both parties

c) An agreement between two service providers about the levels of service
required by the customer

d) An agreement between a third party service desk and the IT customer about fix
and response times

a) An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same
organization that assists in the provision of services

7

What is the MAIN purpose of availability management?
a) To monitor and report availability of components
b) To ensure that all targets in the service level agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability meets the agreed needs of the business

d) To ensure that service availability meets the agreed needs of the business

8

Which of the following does service transition provide guidance on?
1. Introducing new services
2. Decommissioning services
3. Transfer of services between service providers

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only

c) All of the above

9

Which one of the following is NOT a stage of the service lifecycle?
a) Service optimization
b) Service transition
c) Service design
d) Service strategy

a) Service optimization

10

Which one of the following statements about a configuration management system
(CMS) is CORRECT?

a) The CMS should not contain corporate data about customers and users
b) There may be more than one CMS
c) There should not be more than one configuration management database
(CMDB)

d) If an organization outsources its IT services there is still a need for a CMS

d) If an organization outsources its IT services there is still a need for a CMS

11

What are the three sub-processes of capacity management?
a) Business capacity management, service capacity management and component
capacity management

b) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and component
capacity management

c) Supplier capacity management, service capacity management and technology
capacity management

d) Business capacity management, technology capacity management and
component capacity management

a) Business capacity management, service capacity management and component
capacity management

12

Which of the following would be stored in the definitive media library (DML)?
1. Copies of purchased software
2. Copies of internally developed software
3. Relevant licence documentation
4. The change schedule

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 only

13

Which process is responsible for reviewing operational level agreements (OLAs) on
a regular basis?

a) Supplier management
b) Service level management
c) Service portfolio management
d) Demand management

b) Service level management

14

Which role should ensure that process documentation is current and available?
a) The service owner
b) The chief information officer
c) Knowledge management
d) The process owner

d) The process owner

15

Which of the following does the release and deployment management process
address?
1. Defining and agreeing release and deployment plans
2. Ensuring release packages can be tracked
3. Authorizing changes to support the process

a) 1 and 2 only
b) All of the above
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

a) 1 and 2 only

16

Which of the following are characteristics of every process?
1. It is measurable
2. It delivers a specific result
3. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above

d) All of the above

17

Which of the following are key ITIL characteristics that contribute to its success?
1. It is vendor-neutral
2. It is non-prescriptive
3. It is best practice
4. It is a standard

a) 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

18

Who should be granted access to the information security policy?
a) Senior business managers and IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the information security
manager

c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information security management staff only

c) All customers, users and IT staff

19

Which of the following are valid elements of a service design package (SDP)?
1. Agreed and documented business requirements
2. A plan for transition of the service
3. Requirements for new or changed processes
4. Metrics to measure the service

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) All of the above

d) All of the above

20

Which of the following are examples of tools that might support the service
transition stage of the service lifecycle?
1. A tool to store definitive versions of software
2. A workflow tool for managing changes
3. An automated software distribution tool
4. Testing and validation tools

a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) All of the above

21

Which of the following statements about problem management is/are
CORRECT?
1. It ensures that all resolutions or workarounds that require a change to a
configuration item (CI) are submitted through change management
2. It provides management information about the cost of resolving and
preventing problems

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

c) Both of the above

22

What is the purpose of the request fulfilment process?
a) Dealing with service requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT organization are fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfilment of change requests
d) Making sure the service level agreement (SLA) is met

a) Dealing with service requests from the users

23

Which statement about value creation through services is CORRECT?
a) The customer's perception of the service is an important factor in value
creation

b) The value of a service can only ever be measured in financial terms
c) Delivering service provider outcomes is important in the value of a service
d) Service provider preferences drive the value perception of a service

a) The customer's perception of the service is an important factor in value
creation

24

Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is
MOST correct?

a) External customers should receive better customer service because they pay
for their IT services

b) Internal customers should receive better customer service because they pay
employee salaries

c) The best customer service should be given to the customer that pays the
most money

d) Internal and external customers should receive the level of customer service
that has been agreed

d) Internal and external customers should receive the level of customer service
that has been agreed

25

Which one of the following should IT services deliver to customers?
a) Capabilities
b) Cost
c) Risk
d) Value

d) Value

26

Which one of the following activities is part of the service level management
(SLM) process?

a) Designing the configuration management system from a business
perspective

b) Creating technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Monitoring service performance against service level agreements (SLAs)
d) Training service desk staff how to deal with customer complaints about
service

c) Monitoring service performance against service level agreements (SLAs)

27

Which one of the following BEST summarizes the purpose of event management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate
control action

b) The ability to detect events, restore normal service as soon as possible and
minimize the adverse impact on business operations

c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the
uptime of infrastructure devices

a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate
control action

28

Which one of the following should a service catalogue contain?
a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services

d) Details of all operational services

29

What does "Warranty of a service" mean?
a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the
service

c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and
security

d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and
security

30

Which is the first activity of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?
a) Understand the business vision and objectives
b) Carry out a baseline assessment to understand the current situation
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan

a) Understand the business vision and objectives

31

Which one of the following is a benefit of using an incident model?
a) It will make problems easier to identify and diagnose
b) It means known incident types never recur
c) It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents
d) It ensures all incidents are easy to solve

c) It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents

32

Which one of the following is the CORRECT sequence of activities for handling an
incident?

a) identification, logging, categorization, prioritization, initial diagnosis, escalation,
investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure

b) prioritization, identification, logging, categorization, initial diagnosis, escalation,
investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure

c) identification, logging, initial diagnosis, categorization, prioritization, escalation,
resolution and recovery, investigation and diagnosis, closure

d) identification, initial diagnosis, investigation, logging, categorization, escalation,
prioritization, resolution and recovery, closure

a) identification, logging, categorization, prioritization, initial diagnosis, escalation,
investigation and diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure

33

Which service lifecycle stage ensures that measurement methods will provide the
required metrics for new or changed services?

a) Service design
b) Service operation
c) Service strategy
d) Service delivery

a) Service design

34

Which of the following processes are concerned with managing risks to services?
1. IT service continuity management
2. Information security management
3. Service catalogue management

a) All of the above
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only

d) 1 and 2 only

35

Which one of the following is NOT a type of metric described in continual service
improvement (CSI)?

a) Process metrics
b) Service metrics
c) Personnel metrics
d) Technology metrics

c) Personnel metrics

36

Which statement about the relationship between the configuration management
system (CMS) and the service knowledge management system (SKMS) is
CORRECT?

a) The SKMS is part of the CMS
b) The CMS is part of the SKMS
c) The CMS and SKMS are the same thing
d) There is no relationship between the CMS and the SKMS

b) The CMS is part of the SKMS

37

What is the role of the emergency change advisory board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the change manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made
during particularly volatile business periods

b) To assist the change manager by implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the change manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide
whether they should be authorized

d) To assist the change manager in speeding up the emergency change process so
that no unacceptable delays occur

c) To assist the change manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide
whether they should be authorized

38

Which of the following statements about the service desk is/are CORRECT?
1. The service desk is a function that provides a means of communication between
IT and its users for all operational issues
2. The service desk should be the owner of the problem management process

a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

b) 1 only

39

Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of the four Ps of service design?
a) Planning, products, position, processes
b) Planning, perspective, position, people
c) Perspective, partners, problems, people
d) People, partners, products, processes

d) People, partners, products, processes

40

Which one of the following represents the BEST course of action to take when a
problem workaround is found?

a) The problem record is closed
b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are
documented within it

c) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are
documented on all related incident records

d) The problem record is closed and details of the workaround are documented in a
request for change(RFC)

b) The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are
documented within it

41

Input from which processes could be considered by service level management when negotiating service level agreements (SLA)? a) All other ITIL processes b) Capacity management and availability management only c) Incident management and problem management only d) Change management and release and deployment management only

a) All other ITIL processes

42

Which one of the following statements about a standard change is INCORRECT?
a) They are pre-authorized by change management b) They follow a procedure or work instruction c) They are low risk d) They must be implemented as soon as possible

c) They are low risk

43

Which of the following statements about the service desk are CORRECT? 1. It provides a single point of contact between the service provider and users
2. It manages incidents and service requests
3. It is a service management process
4. Service desk staff try to restore service as quickly as possible
a) All of the above b) 1, 2, and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 2, and 4 only

44

Which of the following statements about functions are CORRECT?
1. They may include tools
2. They are groups that use resources to carry out one or more activities
3. One person or group may perform multiple functions
4. They are more costly to implement compared to processes
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) All of the above d) None of the above

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

45

Which one of the following is the BEST description of the activities carried out by facilities management?
a) The management of IT services that are viewed as "utilities", such as printers or network access
b) Advice and guidance to IT operations on methodology and tools for managing IT services
c) Management of the physical IT environment such as a data centre or computer room
d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to maintain the infrastructure

c) Management of the physical IT environment such as a data centre or computer room

46

Which process would assist with the identification and resolution of any incidents and problems associated with service or component performance?
a) Capacity management b) Supplier management c) Technology management d) Change management

a) Capacity management

47

Which one of the following statements about the known error database (KEDB) is MOST correct?
a) The KEDB is the same database as the service knowledge management system (SKMS)
b) The KEDB should be used during the incident diagnosis phase to try to speed up the resolution process
c) Care should be taken to avoid duplication of records in the KEDB. This can be done by giving access to as many technicians as possible to create new records
d) Access to the KEDB should be limited to the service desk

b) The KEDB should be used during the incident diagnosis phase to try to speed up the resolution process

48

Which of the following statements about key performance indicators (KPIs) and metrics are CORRECT?
1. Service metrics measure the end-to-end service
2. Each KPI should relate to a critical success factor
3. Metrics can be used to identify improvement opportunities
4. KPIs can be both qualitative and quantitative
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) All of the above

d) All of the above

49

Which one of the following maintains relationships between all service components?
a) The capacity plan b) The definitive media library c) The configuration management system d) A service level agreement

c) The configuration management system

50

Should a customer's request for a new service ALWAYS be fulfilled? a) Yes – if they are an external customer as they are paying for the service
b) No – if they are an internal customer as they are not always paying for the service
c) No – it is the responsibility of the service provider to carry out due diligence before requests are fulfilled
d) Yes – the service provider should ensure that all requests for new services are fulfilled

c) No – it is the responsibility of the service provider to carry out due diligence before requests are fulfilled

51

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
1. Problem management can support the service desk by providing known errors to speed up incident resolution
2. Problem management is the only source of information to service level management about the impact of changes
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both of the above d) Neither of the above

a) 1 only

52

A failure has occurred on a system and is detected by a monitoring tool. This system supports a live IT service. When should an incident be raised?
a) Only when users notice the failure b) An incident should not be raised if the technicians have seen this before and have a workaround
c) Only if the failure results in a service level being breached
d) Immediately, to limit or prevent impact on users

d) Immediately, to limit or prevent impact on users

53

Which of the following could be considered stakeholders in a service management project?
1. Users
2. Customers
3. Suppliers
4. Functions
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) All of the above

d) All of the above

54

Which of the following activities does service asset and configuration management ensure are performed?
1. Configuration items (CIs) are identified
2. CIs are baselined
3. Changes to CIs are controlled
a) All of the above b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 3 only

a) All of the above

55

Which of the following aspects of service design should be considered when designing a service solution?
1. Measurement methods and metrics
2. Management information systems and tools
3. Technology architectures
4. The processes required
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above

d) All of the above

56

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT for ALL processes?
a) They define functions as part of their design b) They deliver results to a customer or stakeholder
c) They are carried out by an external service provider in support of a customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes

b) They deliver results to a customer or stakeholder

57

Which process is primarily responsible for packaging, building, testing and deploying services?
a) Transition planning and support b) Release and deployment management c) Service asset and configuration management d) Service catalogue management

b) Release and deployment management

58

Which one of the following is the BEST example of a workaround?
a) A technician installs a script to temporarily divert prints to an alternative printer until a permanent fix is applied
b) A technician tries several ways to solve an incident. One of them works, although they do not know which one
c) After reporting the incident to the service desk, the user works on alternative tasks while the problem is identified and resolved
d) A device works intermittently, allowing the user to continue working at degraded levels of performance while the technician diagnoses the incident

a) A technician installs a script to temporarily divert prints to an alternative printer until a permanent fix is applied

59

Which of the following areas can be helped by technology?
1. Request management
2. Service catalogue management
3. Detection and monitoring
4. Design and modelling
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above

d) All of the above

60

Which one of the following is the CORRECT list of stages in the Deming Cycle?
a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

61

Which two processes will be involved the MOST in negotiating and agreeing contracts for the provision of recovery capability to support continuity plans?
a) Service level management and capacity management
b) Supplier management and service level management
c) IT service continuity management and service level management
d) IT service continuity management and supplier management

d) IT service continuity management and supplier management

62

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incident model? a) The template that defines the incident logging form used for reporting incidents
b) A type of incident involving a standard (or model) type of configuration item (CI)
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of incident
d) An incident that is easy to solve

c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of incident

63

What roles are defined in the RACI model? a) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed b) Responsible, Achievable, Consulted, Informed c) Realistic, Accountable, Consulted, Informed d) Responsible, Accountable, Corrected, Informed

a) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

64

Which stage of the service lifecycle decides what services should be offered and to whom they will be offered?
a) Continual service improvement b) Service operation c) Service design d) Service strategy

d) Service strategy

65

Which of the following does continual service improvement (CSI) provide guidance on?
1. How to improve process efficiency and effectiveness
2. How to improve services
3. Improvement of all stages of the service lifecycle
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above

d) All of the above

66

Which of the following is a type of service level agreement (SLA) described in the ITIL service design publication?
a) Priority-based SLA b) Technology-based SLA c) Location-based SLA d) Customer-based SLA

d) Customer-based SLA

67

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed service level has been impacted
b) A change of state that has significance for the management of an IT service
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement programme

b) A change of state that has significance for the management of an IT service

68

Which one of the following is the MOST appropriate stakeholder to define the value of a service?
a) Customers b) IT Senior management c) Financial management for IT services d) Suppliers

a) Customers

69

Which of the following should be treated as an incident?
1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3. A network component fails but the user is not aware of any disruption to service
4. A user contacts the service desk about the slow performance of an application
a) All of the above b) 1 and 4 only c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above

a) All of the above

70

Which one of the following statements about a change model is CORRECT?
a) A change model should NOT be used for emergency changes b) A change model should be constructed when a significant change is required
c) A change model defines the steps that should be taken to handle a particular type of change
d) Escalation procedures are outside the scope of a change model

c) A change model defines the steps that should be taken to handle a particular type of change

71

The CSI approach uses a number of techniques. Which one of the following techniques would BEST help a business understand "where are we now?"?
a) Reviewing critical success factors b) Understanding the business vision c) Performing a baseline assessment d) Checking the CSI register

c) Performing a baseline assessment

72

Which service operation processes are missing from the following list?
1. Incident management
2. Problem management
3. Access management
4. ?
5. ?
a) Event management and request fulfilment b) Event management and service desk c) Facilities management and event management d) Change management and service level management

a) Event management and request fulfilment

73

Which stage of the service lifecycle provides a framework for evaluating service capabilities and risk profiles before new or changed services are deployed?
a) Service strategy b) Continual service improvement c) Service transition d) Service operation

c) Service transition

74

Which of the following activities should a service owner undertake?
1. Representing a specific service across the organization
2. Updating the configuration management system (CMS) after a change
3. Helping to identify service improvements
4. Representing a specific service in change advisory board (CAB) meetings
a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) All of the above c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

75

Which one of the following is NOT a purpose or objective of availability management?
a) To monitor and report on the availability of components
b) To ensure that service availability matches the agreed needs of the business
c) To assess the impact of changes on the availability plan
d) To ensure that business continuity plans are aligned to business objectives

d) To ensure that business continuity plans are aligned to business objectives

76

Which one of the following is a CORRECT description of the “four Ps” of service design? a) A four-step process for the design of effective service management b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
d) Four major areas that need to be considered during service design

d) Four major areas that need to be considered during service design

77

Which one of the following BEST describes a major problem review? a) Facilitated by the problem manager, a major problem review is designed to apportion blame after a resolution to the problem has been found
b) A major problem review is run as part of the change advisory board (CAB) by the change manager. It is conducted after the request for change (RFC) to resolve the problem has been accepted
c) A major problem review is facilitated by the service desk manager so that lessons can be learned after a major problem has been resolved
d) Facilitated by the problem manager, the review is conducted so that lessons can be learned from the major problem, and to provide training and awareness for support staff

d) Facilitated by the problem manager, the review is conducted so that lessons can be learned from the major problem, and to provide training and awareness for support staff

78

Which one of the following statements about supplier management is INCORRECT? a) Supplier management negotiates operational level agreements (OLAs) b) Supplier management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
c) Supplier management maintains information in a supplier and contractor management information system
d) Supplier management negotiates external agreements to support the delivery of services

a) Supplier management negotiates operational level agreements (OLAs)

79

Which one of the following is a primary purpose of business relationship management?
a) Carrying out operational activities to support services b) Ensuring all targets within service level agreements are met c) Maximizing contract value and operational efficiency of the services that are delivered
d) Understanding the customer’s needs and ensuring they are met

d) Understanding the customer’s needs and ensuring they are met

80

Which one of the following statements is an objective of the design coordination process? a) To ensure that service availability targets are met
b) To define, document, agree, monitor, measure and review service levels
c) To provide and maintain a single source of consistent information on all operational services
d) To monitor and improve the performance of the service design lifecycle stage

d) To monitor and improve the performance of the service design lifecycle stage