Scrub Out/Anatomy Flashcards

0
Q

Batista procedure

A

Partial left ventriculectomy

Treatment for heart failure after medical management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Procedure of choice for pyloric stenosis

A

Fredt-Ramstedt

Palpable olive in the midepigastrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adult remnants:

Ductus venosus
Foramen ovale
Ductus arteriosum
Umbilican vein
Left umbilical artery
Remnant of urachus
A
Ligamentum venosum
Fossa ovale
Ligamentum arteriosum
Ligamentum teres
Medical umbilical ligament
Medical umbilical ligament
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Procedure for bleeding esophageal varices

A

Segura procedure

Gold standard: endoscopic band ligation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Vein involved in esophageal varices

A

Left gastric vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most common sclerosing agent

A

Tetradecyl sulfate

Cheapest: alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Layer where sclerosing agent is injected

A

Submucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Type of gastric tube inserted for bleeding esophageal varices

A

Sengstaken-Blakemore tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the blood supply of the following segments of the esophagus:

1) Cervical (C6-T1)
2) Thoracic (T3-T10)
3) Abdomen

A

1) Inferior thyroid (5-6 cm)
2) Bronchial arteries (15 cm)
3) Left gastric, Inferior phrenic (5-6 cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Portal pressure to say that it is portal hypertension

A

> 12 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In refractory bleeding, what procedure is done in acute variceal bleeding

A

TIPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which vessels are blocked by the Sengstaken-blakemore tube

A

Left gastric
Esophageal
Vasa brevia (branch of splenic artery that supplies the greater curvature)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Largest branch of the celiac trunk

A

Splenic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of obstruction in schistosomiasis

A

Pre-sinusoidal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Whipple’s procedure is also known as a

A

Pancreatico-Duodeno-Jejunostomy

Procedure of choice for pancreatic CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Procedure for chronic pancreatitis

A

What is a Peustow procedure

Lateral pancreaticojejunostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chain of lakes appearance is seen in?

A

Chronic pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Surgical procedure of choice for biliary atresia

A

Kasai procedure

Hepato-porto-enterostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Bilroth I? Bilroth II?

A

I: Antrectomy + Gastroduodenostomy
II: Antrectomy + Gastrojejunostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Procedure of choice for duodenal atresia

A

Ladd’s procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Procedure of choice for Barette’s esophagus

A

Nissen’s fundoplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most common predisposing condition factor to a Barette’s esophagus

A

GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most common primary esophageal motility disorder

A

Nutcracker/supersqueezer esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Lichenstein herniorrhaphy

A

Tension free with mesh

Mesh has a low recurrence rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Pringle maneuver temporarily occludes which blood vessels?
Porta hepatis (hepatic artery + portal vein)
25
Portal veins supplies how many percent of blood to the liver
70%
26
Procedure of choice for a ruptured peptic ulcer
Graham omental patch
27
Bleeding of peptic ulcer is secondary to which artery?
Gastroduodenal artery
28
Procedure of choice for ascending aortic aneurysm
Bentall procedure
29
Most common cause of aortic aneurysm in pediatrics? adults?
Pedia: Kawasaki Adults: Marfan
30
Most common type of aortic aneurysm
DeBakey I or Standford A (Proximal)
31
Surgical procedure of choice for a full rectal prolapse
Thiersh procedure
32
Procedure of choice for achalasia
Heller's mymotomy Myotomoy +/- Partial fundoplication
33
Radiology: bird's beak appearance
Achalasia
34
Strongest layer of the esophagus
Submucosa
35
Most common site of squamous cell CA of the esophagus?
Middle third
36
Most common benign tumor of the esophagus?
Leiomyoma
37
Most common benign tumor of the stomach
Leiomyoma
38
What is the triad of Plummer-Vinson syndrome
Esophageal webs + atrophic glossitis + iron deficiency anemia
39
What type of CA is most commonly associated with Plummer-Vinson syndrome
Squamous cell CA
40
What is the other name of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?
Patterson-Brown-Kelly Syndrome
41
Most common esophageal hernia
Sliding esophageal hernia
42
Most common site of Mallory-Weiss Tear
Distal third of the esophagus (GEJ) Mallory-Weiss ~ alcoholic
43
What is Boerhaave's syndrome?
Pressure rupture of the esophagus
44
Most common site of perforation in the esophagus?
Killian's triangle
45
Most common site of Zenker's diverticulum
Killian's triangle
46
Pharyngoesophageal diverticulum
Zenker's diverticulum
47
Killian's triangle involves which 2 muscles?
Between the Inferior pharyngeal constrictor and cricopharyngeus
48
Surgical incision: low longitudinal incision of the uterus used to the deliver babies abdominally
Kronig incision Transverse: Kerr incision
49
Procedure of choice in Hirschsprung's disease
Rectal pullthrough
50
Best age to do a rectal pullthrough
6 months - 12 months (12 months is the best)
51
Mile's procedure is also known as an?
Abdominoperineal resection (APR) Done in colorectal CA
52
Surgical procedure of choice in colorectal CA
Mile's procedure Low Anterior Resection: the closer you are to the rectus
53
Procedure pertaining to a esphagectomy through a right thoracotomy
Ivor Lewis procedure To access squamous cell CA of the esophagus in the middle third
54
Heinz-Mikulicz procedure pertains to what?
Longitudinal pyloric incision
55
McIndoe procedure pertains to a
Vaginal reconstructive surgery "Mc-INDAY"
56
Brook ileostomy pertains to a
Brooke ileostomy Done in ulcerative colitis
57
Procedure of choice in refractory ascites
Denver shunt
58
Procedure of choice in a thyroglossal duct cyst
Sistrunk procedure
59
Procedure of choice in rectal CA less than 8cm from the anal verge
APR (Mile's procedure)
60
Stages of decubitus ulcer that extends into muscle and bone
Stage IV
61
Full thickness burns involves which layers?
3rd degree burn All layers of skin + entire dermis
62
Bochdalek's hernia
Left posterior diaphragmatic hernia Most common Morgagni: anterior diaphragmatic hernia
63
Gold standard for the diagnosis of glaucoma
Tonometry
64
Ideal pre-op bowel prep antibiotic
Netilmycin
65
What is Dakin solution
Dilute sodium hypochlorite (bleach) used in contaminated wounds
66
Amyand's hernia pertains to a?
Hernial sac that contains a ruptured appendix
67
Accepted sclerosant for pleural effusion?
TALC
68
Flap used in a deep pressure ulcer
Gluteus maximus flap
69
Best management for a 3cm basal cell CA of the nose?
Excision with 2-4 mm margin
70
A small thick antectubital scar from a 2nd degree flame burn is constricting movement. To relieve the constriction, the appropriate procedure of choice to refashion the scar?
Z-plasty (CONTRACTURE)
71
Radio: Coral reef appearance
Colonic angiodysplasia Common cause of lower GI bleed in the elderly
72
Most common site of rupture in the colon
Cecum (most dilated portion) Law of Laplace's: wall tension = pressure x radius
73
Most common cause of lower GI bleeds in adults? Pedia?
Adults: Diverticulosis Pedia: Meckel's diverticulum
74
Most common source of extra adrenal pheochromocytoma
Organs of Zuckerkandl Located near the abdominal aorta
75
Ecchymosis over the mastoid process pertaining to a basilar skull fracture
Battle's sign Never insert an NGT
76
Bilateral black eyes pertaining to a basilar skull fracture
Raccoon eyes
77
Blood vessel of choice for CABG
Left internal mammary artery Due to superior patency rates vs. greater saphenous vein
78
Most common site of a carcinoid tumor
Appendix
79
When is the best time to perform a surgery for undescended testis
6-12 months
80
Most common site of squamous cell CA in the esophagus
Middle third
82
Normal amount of pericardial fluid
30-50mL
84
Most commonly fractured in the body
Clavicle
85
Most commonly fractured facial bone
Nasal bone
86
Hangman's fracture involves
Fracture of C2
87
Jefferson fracture
Fracture of C1
88
Arrest of respiration occurs at which cervical level?
C2-C3
89
Clay Shoveller's fracture
Fracture of C7
90
Blue sclerae
Osteogenesis imperfecta Defect in type I collagen
91
Dangers of porcelain gallbladder
Risk of CA is 30-65%
92
In a thyroidectomy, if the inferior thyroid artery is injured, what is affected?
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
93
In a thyroidectomy, if the superior thyroid artery is injured, what is affected?
External laryngeal nerve
94
Most common site of a cholecysenteric fistula
Duodenum
95
Part of the male urethra that offers the greatest resistance
Membranous urethra Prostatic urethra will only cause resistance if there is BPH/enlargement
96
Most dilatable portion of the male urethra
Prostatic urethra
97
Widest part of the Fallopian tube
Ampulla
98
Narrowest part of the Fallopian tube
Isthmus
99
Where is lumbar tap done
L4-L5 | L3-L4
100
Where does the spinal cord end in adults? Children?
Adults: L1 Children: L2-L3
101
Platelet level for OR in emergency situation? In elective surgery?
Stat: 50,000 Elective: 100,000
102
Only motor innervation of the diaphragm
Phrenic nerve | C3, C4, C5
103
Origin of the diphargm
Septum transversum or Pleuroperitoneal fold/membrane C3, C4, C5
104
Nerve responsible for erection
Pudendal | S2, S3, S4
105
Winging of the scapula
Long thoracic nerve C5, C6, C7 Serratus anterior muscle
106
Most allergenic fluid
Dextran
107
Hartmann's solution
Compound sodium lactate that is isotonic with blood, intended for IV administration
108
Most common severe complication of liver abscess
Amoebic pericarditis (rupture into the pericardium)
109
How is Hirschsprung disease diagnosed?
Proctosigmoidoscopy + deep rectal biopsy
110
When is meconium passed?
24-48 hours of life
111
Management of a pregnant patient at 7 months AOG + Grade III hemorrhoids
Hot sitz bath
112
Hemorrhoids that can be manually reduced
Grade III
113
How to manage acute cholecystitis in pregnant patients
20 weeks: open cholecystectomy
114
Most common site of metastasis in Wilm's tumor
Lungs
115
Wilms tumor + macroglossia
Beckwidth-Wiedemann syndrome
116
Macroglossia is seen in 2 conditions:
Hypothyroidism | Beckwidth-Weidemann syndrome
117
Most common site of metastases for neuroblastoma
Bone
118
Stratum basale is also known as
Stratum germinativum
119
Most common benign parotid mass
Pleomorhpic adenoma
120
Most common malignant parotid mass
Mucoepidermoid
121
Most common presenting sign of anal fissures
Pain > bleeding
122
Most common sign of Meckel's diverticulum
Bleeding
123
Most common source or primary tumor that leads to malignant pleural effusion
Lung CA
124
Intraaortic ballon pump is inserted where?
Distal to brachiocephalic
125
Most common site of rupture of colonic obstruction
Cecum Law of Laplace: rupture occurs in areas with the greatest diameter
126
Most common organism in acute appendicitis
E. coli > Klebsiella and Bacteroides
127
Veins of Retzius and Sappey are found in which condition?
Portal hypertension
128
In facial nerve injury, which graft is used?
Sural nerve It is accessible, long, with low rejection
129
Least foreign body reaction in closing a surgical wound in the face
Staples (titanium-based) Cotton, nylon, and prolene are not used
130
Chronic lesion from a wound
Marjolin's ulcer
131
Nerve responsible for recurrent ulcers
Criminal nerve of Grassi From proximal branch of the posterior vagus nerve
132
Psoas sign is
Pain on extending the hip with knee in full extension Detects retrocecal appendicitis
133
Most common manifestation of appendicitis
Anorexia (hamburger sign)
134
Most posterior cavity in the peritoneal cavity
Morrison's pouch Hepatorenal recess
135
During normal breathing, what is the position of the vocal cords
Wide open (to allow easy passage of air) Seen in laryngoscope
136
Most common artery hit in pericardiocentesis
Internal thoracic artery
137
Best access in performing pericardiocentesis
Subxiphoid approach
138
Most common level of tracheal stenosis
Tracheal ring 1 (C1)
139
Tracheostomy is placed at what cervical level?
C2-C4
140
Longest portion of the fallopian tube
Ampulla
141
Site of the major papilla in the second part of the duodenum
Posteromedial wall
142
Zone of the neck where most traumatic injury occurs
Zone II
143
Most common site of abdominal aortic aneurysm?
Infrarenal
144
Most common type of thoracic aneurysm
DeBakey 1
145
Left gastric vein drains to the
Portal vein Portal vein = splenic vein + IMV
146
Where is the site of weakness in a diaphragmatic hernia
Septum transversarium or pleuroperioneal membrane
147
Least painful agent for pleurodesis
TALC (poweder)
148
Most commonly involved cranial nerve in NPCA
CN V
149
Causes dilatation of vessels for erection
Nitric oxide
160
Gluteus maximus is innervated by which nerve?
Inferior gluteal nerve
196
Undescended thesis
Cryptorchidism