Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 1 > Small Animal > Flashcards

Small Animal Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main antidote for acetaminophen-induced methemoglobinemia in cats?

A

N-acetylcysteine (mucomyst). S-adenosyl methionine (SAMe) also may be strongly beneficial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most effective treatment for resolving idiopathic vestibular disease affecting older dogs?

A

Nothing! Most cases resolve spontaneously in 1-2 weeks. Some clinicians advocate antiemetic drugs and/or anxiolytics or sedatives but these are usually unnecessary.
(Oh yeah cuz making the animal more comfortable is so damn unnecessary -.- So not fear free these people).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In an 8 month-old Yorkshire terrier with intermittent mental dullness, recent urethral obstruction caused by urate uroliths, and markedly prolonged anesthetic recovery, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Portosystemic shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the primary differential for a 1 month-old puppy with a dome shaped head and bilateral ventrolateral strabismus?

A

Congenital hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cytology from a cutaneous draining tract in an adult hunting dog shows broad-based budding yeast forms. By which route was the disorder acquired?

A

Inhalation (blastomycosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A male dog has a contagious neoplasm on the penis. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the curative treatment?

A

Transmissible venereal tumor; vincristine (IV injection(s))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the vector and the causative organism of salmon poisoning in dogs?

A

Vector: Nanophyteus salmincola
Organism: Neorickettsia helminthoeca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A 9 year-old golden retriever presents recumbent with white mucous membranes, tachypnea, tachycardia, and hemorrhagic abdominal effusion. The owner says, ‘‘She was fine this morning and just collapsed!’’. There was no exposure to toxins. Your top differential diagnosis is:

A

Ruptured splenic hemangiosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lack of which protein, encoded by which gene, is associated with multiple adverse drug reactions in dogs (especially ivermectin in herding breeds)?

A

P-glycoprotein encoded by the multidrug resistance (MDR) - 1 gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which 2 life-threatening serum biochemical abnormalities can occur if cats or small dogs receive phosphate-based enemas?

A

Hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia causes the more severe (potentially life-threatening) clinical signs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Physaloptera spp., Ollulanus tricuspis. Both these gastrointestinal parasites can affect cats; which one can also affect dogs?

A

Physaloptera spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is feline immunodeficiency virus most commonly transmitted?

A

Bite wounds and scratches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A Siberian husky presents with photophobia, blepharospasm, conjunctivitis, and skin lesions consisting of depigmentation, erythema and crusting of the dorsal muzzle, periorbital region, planum nasale and lips. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Uveodermatologic syndrome (Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada-like syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which embryologic defect is likely if the lateral thoracic radiograph of a dog shows evidence of a persistent dorsal mesothelial remnant?

A

Peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In dogs, lead toxicosis, hypoadrenocorticism, and myasthenia gravis are all associated with which gastrointestinal disturbance?

A

Megaesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common post-operative complication associated with unilateral arytenoid lateralization for treatment of idiopathic laryngeal paralysis in dogs and cats?

A

Aspiration pneumonia; surgical failure (larynx fracture, suture breakdown) also is a well-recognized adverse consequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common type of primary bone tumor in dogs? Is this also true for cats?

A

Osteosarcoma is the most commonly encountered primary bone tumor in both dogs and cats, but it is less prevalent in cats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Evans’ syndrome?

A

Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia with concurrent immune-mediated thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are dermoid sinuses, and which breed of dog is strongly predisposed to having them?

A

Embryonic defects presenting as focal invaginations of the skin on the dorsal midline; the deepest ones are continuous with the subarachnoid space/spinal cord. They are also called pilonidal cysts, as they occur almost exclusively in Rhodesian ridgebacks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Soft-coated wheaten terriers have a familial predisposition for which renal disease?

A

Protein losing nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In addition to medications and physical therapy (including exercise restriction as needed), this is a critical component of medical management of osteoarthritis in dogs:

A

Weight control/weight loss in overweight or obese patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How should all bite wounds be classified?

A) Contaminated
B) Clean-contaminated
C) Clean

A

A) Contaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In canine patients with gallbladder mucoceles, what are the two most common clinical signs on physical exam?

A

Abdominal pain and icterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

70% of feline hyperthyroid disease is unilateral or bilateral?

A

Bilateral (both thyroid glands are usually affected- hence the limited efficacy of unilateral thyroidectomy for treatment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tibial plateau leveling osteotomy is most likely indicated for treatment of:

A) Patellar luxation
B) Cranial cruciate ligament injury
C) Fragmented medial coronoid process

A

B) Cranial cruciate ligament injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In dogs but not cats, an enzyme in the corneal stroma converts glucose to sorbitol causing diabetic dogs to be at risk for irreversible cataract formation. What is this enzyme?

A

Aldose reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The chemotherapeutic drug cisplatin and the heartworm adulticide thiacetarsemide are both contraindicated in cats for the same reason. What is it?

A

Both can cause acute life-threatening pulmonary edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In the female dog, what does greenish or brown, moderate-to-large volume, non-malodorous lochia suggest during the postpartum period?

A

Normal process (infection unlikely when vaginal discharge has no odor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many teeth does the adult cat have?

A

30 (upper: 3 incisors, 1 canine, 3 premolars, 1 molar on each side; lower: same except 2 premolars instead of 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A 7 month-old beagle has acute-onset guarding of the neck suggesting cervical pain; generalized hyperesthesia; and anorexia, which resolve within 24 hours of treatment with corticosteroids. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Juvenile polyarthritis (‘‘Beagle pain syndrome’’)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most common cause of chylothorax in the feline patient?

A

Idiopathic chylothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Acquired renal dysfunction: heartworm disease, ehrlichiosis, and severe pyoderma may all cause damage to which part of the nephron?

A

Glomerulus (Glomerulonephritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When performing incisional gastropexy after gastric dilation volvulus (GDV) in the dog, to which side of the body wall is the stomach sutured?

A

Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which joint is now the most common location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) in the dog?

A

Elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An overweight, mature, neutered male cat with an acute onset pelvic limb lameness has no history of trauma. Radiographs reveal a unilateral femoral capital physeal fracture. The most likely underlying disorder is:

A

Feline capital physeal dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

During a routine ventral midline celiotomy, the aim is to incise this structure, thus avoiding the highly vascular rectus abdominis muscles on either side.

A

Linea alba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In a dog or cat, in which direction should the hindlimb be manipulated to minimize the risk of sciatic nerve damage when placing an intraosseous needle in the proximal femur?

A

The hindlimb is rotated internally and adducted, to widen the access to the trochanteric fossa and reduce risk of sciatic nerve damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the most common dermatophyte in dogs and cats?

A

Microsporum canis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why is a patient placed in left lateral recumbency to perform a pericardiocentesis?

A

Entering the chest wall and pericardial space from the right side (left recumbency) minimizes risk of coronary artery laceration, since the largest coronary arteries course on the epicardial surface of the left side of the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tremors and facial rubbing in a female dog that whelped 3 weeks earlier are likely caused by which disorder?

A

Hypocalcemia (Eclampsia, puerperal tetany)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the best treatment for gallbladder mucoceles in dogs?

A

Surgical removal; medical therapy is ineffective.

42
Q

Which organism is most likely to be cultured from canine pyometra?

A

Escherichia Coli

43
Q

4-methylpyrazole is the antidote for which toxin?

A

Ethylene glycol

44
Q

What are 2 complications to be aware of - and warn owners about - when performing surgery to treat a nasopharyngeal polyp in a cat?

A

Horner’s syndrome and peripheral vestibular disease (both due to bulla osteotomy)

45
Q

Which endocrine disorder occurs secondary to acromegaly in cats?

A

Diabetes mellitus due to the insulin antagonistic effects of growth hormone

46
Q

At which site in the canine elbow does osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) most commonly occur?

A

Distomedial humeral trochlea

47
Q

What is the oral antibiotic of choice for treating toxoplasmosis in a cat?

A

Clindamycin

48
Q

Feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions are most commonly found on which 2 groups of teeth:
Incisors, Canines, Premolars, molars?

A

Premolars and molars.

49
Q

A dog presents bright, alert, and responsive, seemingly not painful, but unable to close the mouth or prehend food. Jaw tone is lax; the mouth is easily closed manually. This is most likely a case of:

A

Trigeminal neuritis - resolves spontaneously in 2-3 weeks.

50
Q

Name the four components of brachycephalic syndrome.

A

1) Stenotic nares
2) Elongated soft palate
3) Hypoplastic trachea
4) Everted laryngeal saccules
Some consider a fifth disorder, laryngeal collapse, as part of the syndrome as well.

51
Q

Which common feline virus causes keratitis?

A

Feline herpesvirus type 1 (feline viral rhinotracheitis)

52
Q

What are 3 anatomical sites of predilection for hemangiosarcoma in the dog?

A

Spleen, right atrium, skin; liver and/or lung (metastases); rarely kidney, other sites.

53
Q

The incidence of dilated cardiomyopathy in cats decreased dramatically after the 1987 discovery that a significant cause was a dietary deficiency in which nutrient?

A

Taurine

54
Q

Which chronic and severe cutaneous disorder is a recognized adverse effect of vaccination in cats?

A

Vaccine-associated sarcoma

55
Q

In a young, large-breed dog, which type of congenital portosystemic shunt would you expect (based on signalment alone)?

A) Intrahepatic
B) Extrahepatic
C) Neither

A

A) Intrahepatic

56
Q

What is meant by the term ‘‘intramural’’ in reference to ectopic ureters?

A

The ureter courses within the bladder wall but inserts in an excessively caudal location.

57
Q

What is the most common embryologic defect responsible for causing a vascular ring anomaly in the dog?

A

Persistent right aortic arch

58
Q

What is the Triadan number for the permanent left maxillary canine tooth?

A

204

59
Q

A 4 year-old Dachshund is acutely unable to voluntarily move her hindlimbs. A firm pinch of a toe on the affected limb reveals withdrawal of the limb (flexion). What information does this response provide you regarding pain sensation?

A

None. Withdrawal of the limb is only part of the flexor reflex arc, and is independent of conscious proprioception.

60
Q

One dog has glomerulonephritis and another dog has glomerulonephritis + the nephrotic syndrome. The second dog is at increased risk of which complication?

A

Thromboembolic disease (nephrotic syndrome creates hypercoagulable state via loss of antithrombin III)

61
Q

A dog has a cervical salivary mucocele that requires excision, but the lesion hangs on the ventral midline of the neck. What is the easiest way to find on which side the mucocele is (i.e. which side to operate on)?

A

Placement of the dog in dorsal recumbency (mucocele will roll/fall to the affected side)

62
Q

Cats with wet feline infectious peritonitis (FIP) typically have which type of abdominal effusion?

A

Exudate, occasionally modified transudate.

63
Q

Which of these abnormalities is most common in the CBC of dogs with lead toxicosis: Nucleated red blood cells, basophilic stippling, or anemia?

A

Nucleated red blood cells (54% of cases)
(Basophilic stippling = 25% of cases, Anemia = 8% of cases)

64
Q

Anterior uveitis and corneal edema (‘‘blue eye’’) are hallmarks of which canine viral disease?

A

Infectious canine hepatitis - Canine adenovirus -1 infection

65
Q

Bone marrow hypoplasia has been described in dogs receiving which types of dewormers?

A

Benzimidazoles (notably albendazole and fenbendazole)

66
Q

Surgical treatment options for a mature dog with hindlimb lameness attributed to chronic osteoarthritis of the coxofemoral joint do NOT include:

A) Total hip arthroplasty
B) Triple pelvic osteotomy
C) Femoral head and neck excision arthroplasty

A

B) Triple pelvic osteotomy
This is not indicated. It is appropriate only in younger, growing dogs.

67
Q

What are the treatment options for fibrosarcoma in a dog?

A

Surgical resection, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy may all be appropriate, depending on the location of the tumor, presence or absence of metastasis, availability of treatment modalities and client wishes and finances.

68
Q

What are the 2 most common locations for canine appendicular osteosarcoma?

A

Distal radius and proximal humerus

69
Q

Which sweetener used in sugar free gum has been associated with hepatic dysfunction and acute liver failure in some dogs?

A

Xylitol

70
Q

During recovery from general anesthesia for a spay, you notice that your feline patient has signs of severe subcutaneous emphysema. What was the likely cause?

A

Tracheal perforation. Likely during intubation (stylet perforated), cuff inflation (excessive), or venipuncture (if blood was drawn from a jugular).

71
Q

Hyperkeratosis and crusting of the footpads are possible clinical signs associated with this morbilivirus of dogs.

A

Canine distemper virus

72
Q

Name 3 different treatments that can be used for treating canine hyperadrenocorticism.

A

1) Mitotane (o,p’-DDD, Lysodren)
2) Trilostane
3) Ketoconazole
4) L-deprenyl (selegeline, Anipryl)
5) Surgery (Adrenalectomy if primary adrenal source; rarely hypophysectomy for pituitary-based disease)

73
Q

What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the adult dog?

A

Malignancy

74
Q

In dogs, almost all documented tears of the meniscus following cranial cruciate ligament rupture involve which portion of the meniscus?

A

Caudal horn of the medial meniscus

75
Q

What is the causative agent of canine scabies, and what is the most common synonym for this disorder?

A

Sarcoptes scabei; Sarcoptic mange

76
Q

A 1 year-old Great Dane has gradual, progressive hindlimb proprioceptive deficits. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Cervical vertebral malformation/malarticulation (‘‘Wobbler’’ syndrome)

77
Q

An older white cat has an erosive lesion that has been expanding on the rostralmost nasal planum for several months. What neoplasm is of greatest concern?

A

Squamous cell cacinoma

78
Q

Which dog breed is most predisposed to perianal fistulas?

A

German shepherds (and possibly Irish setters)

79
Q

A 9 month-old Labrador dog has shifting-leg lameness and radiopacities in the medullary cavities of both ulnae and radii bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Panosteitis

80
Q

A dog with acute, non-productive retching, abdominal distension, and tympanic gas on auscultation of the abdomen (positive ‘‘ping’’ on abdominal percussion) should have at least one radiograph taken of its abdomen. Which view is most useful for your suspected diagnosis?

A

Right lateral (gastric dilation-volvulus)

81
Q

A dog has a Schirmer tear test result of 6mm/minute in both eyes. What is the most accurate interpretation - inadequate, adequate, or excessive tear production?

A

Inadequate (normal is superior or equal to 15 mm/minute)

82
Q

What is the name of the procedure that involves pressing on the closed eyelids or over the carotid sinus to try to slow the heart rate?

A

Vagal maneuver (ocular pressure, carotid sinus massage)

83
Q

North American tick paralysis (Dermacentor ticks) affects:

A) Dogs but not cats
B) Cats but not dogs
C) Both dogs and cats

A

A) Dogs but not cats

84
Q

Which valve is least likely to be affected in a dog with bacterial endocarditis: Aortic, pulmonic, or mitral?

A

Pulmonic

85
Q

A dog has a high serum ionized calcium level and a normal serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) level. The results are accurate and repeatable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism (PTH should be low in the face of hypercalcemia)

86
Q

The primary differential for sudden onset of pain, paralysis, pulselessness, and coolness of the hindlimbs in a cat is:

A

Saddle thrombus (aortic thromboembolism)

87
Q

What is the most common cause of cervical ventroflexion in the cat?

A

Hypokalemia, Organophosphate intoxication, thiamine-responsive disease, and hyperthyroidism are other moderately common causes of this syndrome.

88
Q

Fractures that affect the growth plate or physis are a concern because they may lead to angular limb deformities. What is the most common type of Salter-Harris fracture seen in the dog?

A

Salter-Harris type II (Involving the physis and metaphysis)

89
Q

Which blood test is preferred for screening cats for feline leukemia virus and when the result is positive, which second test is used for confirmation?

A

Screening: ELISA (high Se, Low Sp)

Confirmation: Immunofluorescent antibody (IFA) (Low Se, High Sp)

90
Q

Calcinosis cutis is a possible clinical sign of which endocrine disease?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

91
Q

In order to determine whether a dog’s second-degree AV block is physiologic (vagal) or pathologic, which drug is administered as a diagnostic test?

A

Atropine (Physiologic: AV block disappears; pathological: it remains)

92
Q

The most common clinical signs in dogs and cats with portosystemic shunts reflect dysfunction of which body system secondary to poor liver function?

A

Central Nervous System (CNS) (Dullness, seizures)

93
Q

How long will it take for anti-erythrocyte antibodies to form when a dog receives an incompatible blood transfusion?

A

4-14 days

94
Q

Middle ear infection in the cat or dog can cause which autonomic disorder?

A

Horner’s Syndrome

95
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for initial screening of dogs for brucellosis?

A

Rapid slide agglutination test (RSAT); Agar-gel immunodiffusion (AGID) is confirmatory

96
Q

What are 2 examples of arrhythmias that commonly develop in dogs with dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Premature ventricular complexes (PVCs), Ventricular tachycardia, Sinus tachycardia, Atrial fibrillation, asystole…

97
Q

What is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder of dogs?

A

von Willebrand disease

98
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism is commonly called?

A

Addison’s Disease

99
Q

Azotemia associated with chronic renal disease typically is seen after a loss of function of which percentage of nephrons?

A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%

A

C) 75%

100
Q

Which test is done after mitotane induction to evaluate the efficacy of therapy in dogs with hyperadrenocorticism?

A

ACTH stimulation test

Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 1 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions