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Flashcards in Smarty PANCE Deck (33):
1

what is the earliest sign of compartment syndrome with someone who has a cast?

Loss of two-point discrimination can be the earliest sign of compartment syndrome.

2

what are sign and symptoms of rhabdomyolysis

triad of complaints in rhabdomyolysis is muscle pain, weakness, and dark urine

 

3

hallmark for rhabdomyolysis

elevation in CK 5x the normal limit

4

When do you transfer a patient to a burn clinic?

partial thickness burn covering greater than 10% of total body surface area. In addition, burns in patients with pre-existing medical conditions, such as diabetes, that could complicate their management, prolong recovery, or affect their outcome, is also a reason for transfer to a burn center

5

A 72 year-old female is being evaluated for recurrent kidney stones. PE reveals no abnormal findings. Laboratory findings show elevated calcium and decreased phosphate levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

hyperparathyroidism are asymptomatic. Recurrent nephrolithiasis may be one of the presentations of primary hyperparathyroidism

6

what prophylactically should you give burn patients?

Tetanus prophylaxis

7

A 40-year-old male is hit in the face with a baseball. There is nasal deformity with bleeding. The most appropriate initial management is to

 Maintain nasal patency until closed reduction can be attempted in 1 week

8

What is recommended for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism in low-risk, minor procedures when the patient is under 40 years of age and there are no clinical risk factors.

early ambulation

9

what is indicated in patients undergoing orthopedic surgery, neurosurgery, or trauma with an identifiable risk factor for thromboembolism.

LMWH

10

what is is indicated in patients undergoing a major operation plus an increased risk of bleeding

intermittent pneumatic compression

11

what is  indicated for patients at moderate risk of venous thromboembolism in ages 40-60 with minor procedures with additional thrombosis risk factor, or major operations for patients under age 40 without additional clinical risk factors.

early stockings

12

Which of the following beta-adrenergic blocking agents has cardioselectivity for primarily blocking beta-1

Metoprolol

13

an abnormal stress test shows what?

A 2 mm ST-segment depression is suggestive of cardiac ischemia and is considered to be an abnormal finding

14

what is treatment of choice in patients with pulmonary embolism with normal ventricular function and no absolute contraindications.

anticoagulant with LMWH or UFH --> warfarin or DOAC

15

Class I indications for CABG from the American College of Cardiology (ACC) and the American Heart Association (AHA) are as follows?

Over 50% left main coronary artery stenosis

Over 70% stenosis of the proximal left anterior descending (LAD) and proximal circumflex arteries

Three-vessel disease in asymptomatic patients or those with mild or stable angina

Three-vessel disease with proximal LAD stenosis in patients with poor left ventricular (LV) function

One- or two-Vessel disease and a large area of viable myocardium in high-risk area in patients with stable angina

Over 70% proximal LAD stenosis with either an ejection fraction (EF) below 50% or demonstrable ischemia on noninvasive testing

16

what is the most common cause of skin cancer usually occurring on sun-exposed areas.

basal cell carcinoma

17

hallmark signs of acute diverticulitis.

Acute abdominal pain, fever, left lower abdominal tenderness, and leukocytosis

18

A person presenting with bleeding esophageal varicies should be treated with which of the following while awaiting arrival of endoscopy?

Octreotide is a vasoacctive drug used in the treatment of GI bleeding as well as somatostatin, vasopressin, and terlipressin. Somatostatin and octreotide are preferred due to safety and less incidence of serious side effects.

19

Which of the following is better visualized with transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) than transthoracic echocardiogram?

left atrial appendage

 

TEE allows 2-D and Doppler imaging of the heart through the esophagus. Given the close proximity of the esophagus to the heart, high-resolution images can be obtained, especially of the left atrium, mitral valve apparatus, and aorta

20

Trousseau's sign is usually associated with which of the following?

hypocalcemia

21

what is common in patients with a smoking history and presents with a central mass, hilar adenopathy and mediastinal widening

Squamous cell cancer

22

A patient with hypovolemic shock would most likely exhibit which of the following signs?

decreased CVP; decreased BP; increased pulse rate

23

The most accurate method of diagnosing thrombophlebitis of the lower leg is?

 

venography

Doppler ultrasound are useful in diagnosing thrombophlebitis, venography is the most accurate method for diagnosis in the lower leg.

24

A decreased tactile fremitus and dullness to percussion would be found in ?

pleural effusion​

25

what is characterized by the loss of the popliteal and dorsalis pedis pulse?

Arterial thrombosis

 

This is a surgical emergency. Venous occlusion and thrombophlebitis do not result in loss of arterial pulse.

26

dults and intravenous drug abusers, which of the following bones is most commonly affected with acute osteomyelitis?

The bones of the vertebral spine are most commonly affected in a patient with osteomyelitis.

 

Long bones (tibia) are most commonly affected with osteomyelitis in children

27

 What is the imaging test of choice to initially evaluate this patient and clear his cervical c-spine?

Cervical spine x-rays are most commonly used as the initial screen for cervical spine injury. A cervical spine series consists of a lateral view, anteroposterior (AP) view, and an odontoid view. The lateral view detects up to 80% of traumatic spine injuries.

28

Which of the following is first-line treatment for a symptomatic bradyarrhythmia due to sick sinus syndrome?

pacemaker

29

clinical findings in thiamine deficiency?

Ataxia, mental deficits, horizontal nystagmus, muscle weakness and atrophy, and cardiomegaly

30

Which of the following would be consistent for a person who has a successful response to the hepatitis B immunization series?

HBsAg negative

anti-HBc negative

anti-HBs positive

31

Which of the following can be a very serious consequence of using antidiarrheals in a patient with inflammatory bowel disease?

toxic megacolon

32

what medication is indicated for the treatment of mild, intermittent symptoms of GERD?

H2 receptor blocker:

Ranitidine

nizatidine (Axid)

famotidine (Pepcid, Pepcid AC)

cimetidine 

33

Which of the following signs is indicative of a retrocecal location of the appendix?

Psoas sign