SOG Flashcards
(294 cards)
1
Q
Formally defined as one who buys good or services and informally as any person with whom one has dealings
A
Customer
2
Q
Defined as the ability of an organization to consistently give their customers what they want
A
Customer service
3
Q
Occurs any time we go beyond our standard quick, effective, and positive service
A
Added value
4
Q
This means the organization delegates official authority and trusts its members to provide customer service
A
Empowerment
5
Q
Guidelines to create a positive public impression include
A
Follow SOG’s
Be professional
Undivided attention
Educate customer what we do
6
Q
What type of organization is BSO
A
Quasi military structured around chain of command
7
Q
Communication at the scene of an emergency will be conducted as per
A
Incident command system
8
Q
Worn or damaged articles must be
A
Turned in to get replacement along with FR 01 Form
9
Q
Class A uniform includes
A
White long sleeve shirt
Navy blue pant
Black tie and pin
Black leather belt
Black leather shoes
10
Q
What shall not be worn with Class A uniform
A
BDU type pants
11
Q
Class B uniform includes
A
Short sleeve uniform shirt
Black belt
Navy blue BDU pant
Department issued footwear
12
Q
What is the standard daily uniform for shift operations
A
Class C uniform
13
Q
When assigned to light duty or pub ed events the uniform shall be
A
Polo Shirt
Black tactical belt
Navy blue BDU pant
Department issued footwear
14
Q
Who has the discretion to require either the polo or t-shirt as part of the Class C uniform
A
Unit’s company officer
15
Q
All uniforms must be
A
Uniform in appearance and is unit specific
16
Q
Class D uniforms consist of? When can they be used
A
Approved T-shirt
Navy blue shorts
After 16:00 hours
17
Q
The only recognized vendor of Fire Chief authorized official/optional attire items shall be
A
Local 4321
18
Q
This is defined as any area that requires SCBA, or which a firefighter can become lost, trapped, or injured in the environment
A
Hazard zone
19
Q
A minimum crew size will be considered
A
2 members and a radio required
20
Q
If a radio fails while in the hazard zone, the crew will
A
exit unless there is another working radio with the crew
21
Q
This is used to track assignments and location or crews working in the hazard zone
A
PASSPORT system
22
Q
This is a confirmation that members assigned to a crew are accounted for
A
PAR
23
Q
When can a PAR be employed by the Incident Commander
A
-Missing/trapped FF
-Change from Offensive to Defensive
-Sudden hazardous events
-30 minutes of elapsed time
-Report of fire under control
-Crews reporting “all clear”
24
Q
These must be followed for the accountability system to function
A
-PASSPORTS never enter hazard zone
-PASSPORTS kept at command vehicle
-PASSPORTS only reflect crews presently in hazard zone
25
When will the PASSPORT system be implemented
Any incident requiring use of SCBA
26
For single company incidents, where do PASSPORTS remain and who takes responsibility
Remain on truck, driver takes responsibility
27
For any reports of missing FF, Incident Command shall
Request next greater alarm
28
What does an upside down passport mean
Any individual that is not with their crew in hazard zone, is leaving, or is reassigned
29
What does P.A.S.S. mean
Personal Alert Safety System
30
How many attempts until the incident commander activates RIT for missing FF
After 2 failed verbal or radio attempts
31
This is used to indicate a life threatening situation has developed
MAYDAY transmission
32
This is used to indicate that a serious injury has occurred but it not life threatening
Emergency Traffic transmission
33
What term shall never be used in place of a MAYDAY call
Emergency traffic
34
The primary task of this group is to respond to FF in distress
RIT group
35
Distress falls into what 3 categories per SOG
Trapped
Disoriented or lost
Low or out of air
36
When a MAYDAY is called the IC will initiate this sequence of events
-Deploy RIT
-FireCom dispatch another alarm
-IC confirms alarm
-TRT will be assigned if not already
-PAR will take place
-Second radio channel
-Another Chief Officer to respond
-Second RIT group
37
RIT crews will give what report to the IC upon locating downed FF? What does it mean
UCAN report
Unit number
Conditions
Actions
Needs
38
What does RICO stand for and who is it?
Rapid intervention crew officer
Team leader
39
What does LET Safe mean
-Location/extension of fire
-Entrances and exits
-Type of occupancy/construction
40
What percent of FF deaths and injuries are attributed to becoming lost or trapped
30%
41
The PASS alarm should be cleared and radio communication reestablished every
30 seconds
42
If the FF believes they will soon become incapacitated, the PASS should be
Activated and not reset
43
If the FF cannot locate an exit, what position should be taken on the floor and why
Horizontal, to maximize volume of PASS alarm
44
A fire that is in the initial or beginning stage is considered
Incipient stage fire
45
Interior structural firefighting ops will not begin until
2 FF are available outside the structure
46
When can half mask cartridge respirators be used
-If organic vapors are the only normal gas preset
-Oxygen levels are normal
47
Half mask cartridge respirators are useful for what scenarios
-Wildland fires
-D/E at the pump panel
-Operating as Incident Safety Officer
-Post fire activities
48
Primary eye protection shall meet at a minimum
ANSI Standard #Z87
49
What 3 categories do cleaning PPE fall into
Routine
Advanced
Specialized
50
According to NFPA, protective clothing should be washed/ cleaned
Every 6 months
ASAP after contamination or exposure
51
What type of machine should be used to wash PPE
Front loading extractor or front loading washing machine
52
Wash water temperatures for cleaning PPE should be
Between 110-120 degrees F
53
What is the iodine based disinfectant recommended by Scott
Wescodyne Plus
54
What type of cleaner should never be used on any Scott AV-3000 respirator
quaternary ammonium type cleaner
55
What level of carbon monoxide should a FF where an SCBA
Level exceeding 30 parts per million
56
The low air alarm is designed to activate when SCBA air supply reaches
1500 psi or 1/3 of total air supply.
57
Low air alarm should be considered
Emergency air supply left in SCBA
58
What psi is an air cylinder considered out of service and what should be done
Less than 4,000 psi, replaced with full cylinder
59
When visually inspecting an air cylinder, if any gouge ____ deep and ___ long is found what should be done
1/8" deep, 1" long
-should be taken out of service and sent to support services
60
If any deviation of more than ___ psi between the reading on the cylinder and the analog gauge, what should be done
100 psi, taken out of service
61
How long does it take the SCBA to go into pre alarm mode and full alarm mode
20 seconds pre alarm
10 seconds full alarm
30 seconds total
62
The only accepted deviation to the "two in, two out" rule is
an immediate need for rescue of trapped or threatened occupants
63
The size up for search and rescue ops shall include
-risk benefit analysis
-occupancy/building info
-scene observations
64
Bedroom are typically located where
adjacent to or across from bathrooms
65
What are the 3 types of searches conducted
Primary, secondary, and final
66
What areas in a structure fire are generally searched first
Areas most severely threatened
67
Studies indicate that a 2 1/2 gallon water extinguisher will produce
4,250 gallons of steam at 212 degrees F
68
Primary search teams should use what method
Oriented person search method
69
The systematic removal and replacement of heated air, smoke, and gases from a structure
Ventilation
70
What are the four types of ventilation that can be used
Natural
Horizontal
Vertical
Mechanical
71
Vertical ventilation is ideally done where
Directly over the seat of the fire
72
When ventilating a roof, what size should the hole be made
Minimum 4'x4'
73
How far should a PPV fan be placed away from the doorway
6'-10' away
74
Any time members are operating on an aerial ladder or in the bucket, where should the D/E be
Remain in the aerial turntable
75
The placement of aerial apparatus is dependent on what 4 conditions
-Immediate rescue
-Size of building to be covered
-Amount of smoke, heat, or fire
-Any street conditions that might hamper positioning
76
Where should aerial apparatus be positioned and why
Corner of the building, because it can reach 2 sides of the building
77
Where should the first, second, and third aerial appartus position on a fire
1st side A
2nd side C
3rd will be assigned
78
Where should the turntable be placed approximately and why
25'-35' away for a good climbing angle
79
Approximately how far should you position the ladder away from the objective
6"-8"
80
To avoid any stresses the ladder would experience if water flow was suddenly interrupted what should be done
Use 2 water sources for water supply
81
Aerial master streams should only be deployed into structures where
Interior crews have been withdrawn and confirmed by command
82
When supplying an aerial master stream with LDH, what should be done
Engine assigned to the supply end of the supply line to boost pressure
83
What is the maximum pressure to be aware of when operating with LDH
185 psi
84
What should be avoided when connecting to the truck during aerial master stream operations and why
Connecting LDH to the rear 5" intake due to the amount of friction loss generated
85
In order to overcome friction loss when supplying aerial master streams what should be done
LDH connected to the side intake, preferably the master intake
86
Aerial master stream operations will require
At least 2 D/E. One on the turntable, one for the pump panel
87
Aerial master streams should never be utilized for
Lifting material and people
88
What are the rated tip loads for Pierce and E-One platform apparatus
Pierce - 1,000 lbs.
E-One - 750 lbs.
89
How should the aerial device be operated
Smoothly, making sure to do one thing at time. Do not try to raise, rotate, and extend simultaneously
90
When should you avoid moving the ladder
When personnel are on it
91
Procedures that aid in reducing both the amount of primary and secondary damage that occurs during firefighting
Salvage operations
92
The identification and extinguishment of any hidden or remaining fire
Overhaul operations
93
When do salvage operations start
Usually at the same time of fire attack
94
When do overhaul operations start
Once a fire has been declared under control
95
When 2 engine companies arrive at approx. the same time but out of response what should be done
Zone engine company will guide the second engine
96
If the incident involves a working fire, the second due engine company will
Lay a supply line
97
When responding to a multiple alarm fire, engine companies should anticipate what
Long hose stretches, large caliber streams, and relieving the first due engine company
98
When an engine and ladder are responding to the same alarm who precedes first
Engine company
99
The officer of the first engine company should strive to enter how far ahead of the ladder company
A block ahead
100
What does S.L.I.C.E.R.S. stand for
Size up
Locate the fire
Identify flow path
Cool the space
Extinguish fire
Rescue
Salvage
101
What is the highest tactical priority on a fire
Life safety
102
General plan or course of action decided by IC
Strategy
103
Operations or actions required to carry out the strategy selected by the IC
Tactics
104
Quick defensive knockdown of main body of fire followed by an interior offensive final attack is known as
Transitional attack
105
Size up starts with...
Receipt of alarm and continues until fire under control
106
What are the first, second, and third stages of fire suppression
1 - locating fire
2 - confining/controlling fire
3 - extinguishment
107
One or two slaps on the back or shoulder means
Open or close the nozzle
108
Tug or pull on the arm or nozzle means
Direction of stream
109
Steady push on the back or SCBA means
Advance hose line
110
Pull back on shoulder, bunker coat, or SCBA means
Stop advance
111
4 strong slaps on the shoulder means
Emergency withdrawal
112
How will the announcement of a change to defensive mode be made
Call for emergency traffic and all personnel withdrawing from the structure
113
This means the forward progress of the fire has been stopped and the remaining fire can be extinguished, what does this not mean
Fire knocked down, does not mean the fire is completely out
114
Defined as the number of people one supervisor can manage effectively
Span of control
115
What are the 4 sections of the ICS
Operations
Planning
Logistics
Finance/Admin
116
Section where all activities are directed toward hazard reduction and control
Operations
117
Section that involves collection, evaluation, and dissemination of info
Planning
118
Section that provides support needs to incident
Logistics
119
Section that is responsible for all costs incurred at incident
Finance/Admin
120
In addition to the 4 sections of ICS, command staff may include
Safety officer
PIO
Liaison officer
IC aide
121
Standardized sequential thought process which enable IC to carry out the ICS
Command sequence
122
The command sequence consists of what 4 parts
Incident priorities
Size up
Goals/objectives
Tactical operations
123
Incident priorities include
Incident priorities
Incident stabilization
Property conservation
124
How many command posts are there for each incident
Only one
125
Set number of resources of the same kind and type
Strike team
126
These are assigned to specific geographic areas
Divisions
127
These are functional units that are identified by the function they perform
Groups
128
When an incident strategy goes offensive to defensive or vice versa what should be done
PAR conducted
129
This staging occurs automatically during the initial stages of an incident unless directed otherwise by IC
Level 1 Staging
130
This is a more formalized and organized staging
Level 2 staging
131
What type of stream is electrically conductive
Straight stream
132
LDH will elongate ____ when charged
3" to 7"
133
What are the only methods that may be used to control a loose line
Closing valve or hose clamp
134
What are the 2 types of decontamination
Emergency/Gross
Technical/Secondary
135
Gross decon shall take place in what zone
Warm zone
136
A high rise structure is defined as a building that is
50 feet or higher
137
Who is usually designated as the elevator control FF
D/E
138
Upon confirmation of a working fire at a high rise building, what should be done
Second alarm called immediately by FireCom
139
What should not be connected to a standpipe or used in high rise deployments
Gated wye or water thieves
140
How can a D/E check to see if they are moving water or if they are only pumping to the check valve
Temporarily close the discharges supplying the FDC , then opening again
141
If you close and open the discharges to the FDC and the discharge gauges don't drop and then spike up what does this mean
You are only pumping to the check valve
142
What are the general priorities for searching in a high rise
Immediate fire area
Fire floor
Floor above fire
Top floor
All remaining floors
143
What type of radio waves are less susceptible to the radio frequency interference experienced in high rise structures
Simplex (AM)
144
What is the purpose of equipping buildings with standpipe systems
To provide a means of water supply at sufficient pressure
145
Standpipe risers are classified as
Type I, II, III
146
Riser is equipped with 2 1/2" outlets for fire department use
Class I
147
Riser is equipped with 1 1/2" outlets
Class II
148
Riser is equipped with both 2 1/2" and 1 1/2" outlets
Class III
149
2 1/2" outlets must flow between what pressures
100 psi and 175 psi maximum
150
On a vehicle fire the apparatus should be
As far as practical with pump panel protected from traffic
151
Silver and blue diamond indicates
CNG
152
Black and silver diamond indicates
LPG
153
The EV battery package is most often located where
Under the vehicle, towards the rear in an inaccessible area
154
What should be done to electric vehicles that have been involved in an accident or fire
Chock wheels ASAP
155
If an amount of spilled fuel is greater than 5 gallons what should be done
Call HAZMAT
156
The integration of command personnel from each responding agency to a multijurisdictional or multi-agency operational event
Unified command
157
During active shooter incidents, fires should be
Allowed to burn until confirmation of scene secured
158
What is the sequence of processes to be performed during extrications
Scene stabilization
Vehicle stabilization
Patient stabilization
159
How far should smart keys be removed from the vehicle
15 feet
160
What are the benchmarks for an extrication
Extrication has begun
Patient removed
Extrication complete
161
Refers to the electrical current that remains inside of a battery even when it's completely disconnected
Stranded energy
162
When the stable state of batteries rapidly fails due to increased heat, the cell transitions from stable to unstable to failure of the cell
Thermal runaway
163
Vehicles consisting of a fully electric powertrain that is powered solely by an electric motor fueled by rechargeable batteries
Battery electric vehicles
164
Low voltage wire loops that emergency responders can cut safely to disconnect high voltage systems from an electric vehicle
Cut loops
165
Vehicles combining an internal combustion engine with an electric motor
Hybrid electric vehicles
166
This will have no impact on an HEV fire where the battery is involved
Foam
167
Venting/hissing sounds, electrolyte bubbling from battery, off-gassing battery vapors are all signs of what
Impending thermal runaway
168
How far should the keys of an electric vehicle be moved away from the vehicle
At least 16 feet
169
What can still be active after disconnecting the 12 volt batteries and for how long?
Safety restraints and airbags for up to 5 minutes
170
This makes it impossible for an electric vehicle to drive
Emergency plug
171
What is different about lithium-ion battery car fires
They require a large amount of water for extinguishment
172
How long after an EV fire should the vehicle be checked for thermal runaway and what temps should the vehicle be below
1 hour after
Temps below 260
173
If you need guidance to ensure the EV is safe to release out of your care who can you call? What is the number
Energy security agency
1-855-372-7233
174
How often will hydrants be routinely inspected per SOG
Twice a year
175
Who is responsible for communicating hydrant OOS info water purveyors and in service info to Fire Rescue
Fire marshal's office
176
What are the requirements for a fire hydrant
7'6" clearance in front and sides
4' clearance in rear
Center of steamer cap 18" from ground
177
What color road reflector indicates a hydrant or a fire well
Blue
178
Each hydrant number issued will be broken down as follows:
City ID - Fire zone - Fire grid - Map ID
179
What city only needs to service their hydrants once a year
Deerfield
180
In Deerfield who is responsible for running a crystal report at the end of each month
Captain of Platform 102 for each shift
181
All fire wells will be routinely inspected every
6 months
182
Who is responsible for communicating fire well OOS information
Fire prevention admin
183
All apparatus shall be washed and waxed on
First Tuesday of every month
184
This form allows for a detailed explanation of the problem or suspected problem of a vehicle
Vehicle repairs needed form
185
List the wind speed guidelines for response for:
Sustained wind speed < 50 mph
Sustained wind speed > 35 mph
Sustained wind speed > 50 but < 75 mph
Sustained wind speed > 75 mph
1 - normal response
2 - no aerial ladders
3 - response only to imminent life/property loss
4 - no responses
186
What radio channel should be used for units responding to the airport for an incident
JOPS 11
187
In the event of radio failure at the airport, all emergency vehicles shall be controlled by who
Air traffic control tower
188
What do these light signals mean at the airport:
Steady green
Steady red
Flashing red
Flashing white
1 - proceed
2 - stop clear of runway
3 - clear taxiway/runway
4 - turn around and return to originating location
189
For transitional attack, what angle is the stream directed into the window and for how long
65-80 degrees
15 seconds
190
Where would the placards be for CNG and LPG be on vehicles
Gas cap
Rear bumper
191
What color cables should we avoid for hybrid and electric vehicles
Black
Blue
Orange
Yellow
192
How much water is needed for hybrid, electric, and lithium ion/impending thermal runaway
1,000
2,500
Up to 30,000
193
What 2 people does a battalion notify for active shooter/hostile situations
Fire chief
Staff duty officer
194
How many inches does an airbag deploy for passenger, driver, and side
20
10
5-10
195
What is the psi in the canisters for airbags
3,000 psi
196
When would a fire well be out of service
Less than 500 gpm
Doesn't draft water in 60 seconds
Has to clear sand and debris within minutes
197
Greenish yellowish smoke indicates
Back draft
198
A less experienced FF is defined as
Probationary
<2 years on job
FF that requires remediation
199
Notification of an employee's evaluation will be sent via Target solutions how many days prior
30 and 14 days prior to due date
200
The body of an SOG will always begin with
The purpose
201
The remainder of a SOG body will include
General info
Definitions
Responsibilities
Procedures
202
What are the 4 moderated discussions for a PIA in order
Incident overview
Positive outcomes
Areas of improvement
Recommendations
203
Daily morning briefings will be conducted when
Between 8-9:30
204
This requires employers to provide reasonable break time for nursing mothers to pump. For how long?
Patient protection and Affordable care act
Up to 1 year
205
What group do we utilize for customer satisfaction review process
Baldridge group
206
Logistics has utilized a web-based ordering system since ____. When were uniforms able to be ordered online
2006
October of 2015
207
Station orders should be placed when
Prior to Monday morning of the delivery week
208
What is the benchmark for alarm handling
90 seconds
209
What is the benchmark for turnout time for EMS and Fire related incidents
60 sec for EMS
80 sec for Fire
210
What is the benchmark for total response time for EMS and Fire incidents
6 min for EMS
6 min 20 sec for Fire
211
What are the 3 phases of peer support
Pre-crisis preparation
Acute-crisis
Post-crisis
212
The goal is to get a peer support team out within _____ of request
2 hours
213
Leading cause of on duty deaths in fire service
Cardiovascular disease
214
The process of gathering information regarding performance measures
Quality management
215
BLS and ALS patients will require how many sets of vitals
BLS 2
ALS 3
216
What is the ESO acronym used for and what does it mean
Narrative for report
Events, scene, outcomes
217
All extended complex incidents will follow what format? What does it stand for
FIRES format
Found
Incident strategy
Resource allocation
Effect
Summary
218
What is the only approved leather fire helmet
TL-2 with phenix bend
219
Personnel in rehab shall rest for at least
15 minutes
220
If after ____ of rest and oxygen the heart rate does not decrease to below ____ of target rate what should be done
5 minutes
90%
Responder relieved of duty for remainder of shift
221
What steps should be followed when using a TIC
Scan ceiling
Scan floor for victims
Scan across for search/attack team members
222
Fire that is moving against wind or downslope
Backing fire
223
Fire that is carried from tree to tree above the ground
Crown fire
224
Long narrow strips extending out from the main fire
Fingers
225
The general area of a working wildland fire
Fire line
226
The leading part of the fire that is moving with the wind and does most damage
Head
227
Area of fire where it originated
Heel
228
What does LCES stand for
Lookout
Communication
Escape routes
Safety zones
229
Generally the hottest flank of the fire
Right flank
230
Effect of burning materials carried by the wind ahead of main body of fire
Spot fire
231
What are the 3 main influences of wild fire behavior
Weather
Fuel
Topography
232
Considered a road, terrain feature or waterway that would prevent fire from wrapping back around working crews
Anchor point
233
What are the different types of task force
Light
Medium
Heavy
Special
234
What areas can and can't we respond to during civil disturbances
Restricted area with DLE escort
Denied areas we will not respond at all
235
What incident types do we use to document severe weather and special incidents on FireRMS
800 - severe weather
900 - special
236
What area do we set up for triage, treatment, and transport
Casualty collection point
Cold zone
237
A rescue task force is comprised of
2 FR
4 DLE
238
What acronym do we use for active shooter and intentional mass casualty incidents
THREAT
Threat suppression
Hemorrhage control
Rapid Extraction
Assessment by EMS
Transport
239
If confined to an air conditioned vehicle, the canine shall not be left unattended for how long
Periods exceeding 20 minutes
240
How do you recognize the radio system is no longer working
Foghorn-like sound every 5-10 sec
Radio displays "out of range"
Verified on several other radios
241
What radio channel do we switch to if normal radio communications system is not working
8TAC91 (statewide mutual aid network)
242
Should an incident require a secondary tactical talk group what channel is highly recommended
VRSD
243
What are the default emergency failure channels for DLE
8TAC92
8TAC93
8TAC94
244
What are the primary and secondary station alerting systems
Primary - Station tones (Zetron alerting system)
Secondary - Pagers
245
What is the initial assignment for surface water rescues
1 engine
2 rescues
Battalion
Mutual aid dive team
TRT
246
What is a datum point in regards to surface water rescue
Last known point of entry
247
What is the cone of probability in regards to surface water rescue
Drift up to 3 feet in any direction per foot of depth
248
What are cross bearings in regards to surface water rescue
Fixed point used as a reference to create a sighting
249
This is used to anchor/mark a spot of interest
Pelican float
250
What is the expected service life of AutoPulse baterries
100 charge cycles or 2-4 years
251
What should be done if a black seal is inadvertently damaged or lost
Notify Battalion and EMS incident report generated
252
What are the seal colors for Etomidate, Fentanyl, Versed, and Ketamine
Etomidate - grey/blue
Fentanyl - brown
Versed - green
Ketamine - purple
253
When a controlled substance is set to expire who does the company officer notify and when
Battalion
seven days prior to expiration
254
Persons on scene who deny injury or illness shall be listed as ____ and have what information added to general narrative
Subjects
Name
DOB
Home address
Phone #
Statement person denies injury/illness
255
What is the only approved device for restraint
Posey T-A-T restraint system
256
All patients restrained shall be monitored continuously by what methods
4 or 12 lead
O2 sat
BP
Mental status
257
How many paramedics required to accompany restrained patient
At least 2
258
This is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof
Sentinel event
259
How far are we staging for DLE to notify "safe to enter"
1 to 2 blocks away
260
What is the pneumonic for start triage and what does it mean
RPM
Respirations
Perfusion
Mental status
261
When do we use JUMP Start triage
8 years or younger
262
For a MCI, command will designate what officers
Triage
Treatment
Transport
Staging
263
Upon notification of MCI what does MEDCOM do
Gather each hospital's capability and relay to transport officer
264
What are the different levels of MCI
Level 1 - 5-10
Level 2 - 11-20
Level 3 - 21-100
Level 4 - 101-1000
Level 5 - 1000+
265
This is a specified combination of the same kind and type of resources
Strike team
266
This is a group of resources with common communications and a leader
Task force
267
This is a team of personnel assigned to triage to move victims from incident
Litter bearer
268
Medications must be stored at temperatures between
55 to 85 degrees
269
Where are we not allowed to store medications
Food cooling devices (refrigerators, coolers, lunchbox)
270
Personnel shall record the minimum and maximum temperatures on the control log when
0800 and 1600 everyday
271
What is EMSTARS
Florida EMS Tracking and Reporting system
272
This is the measure of how quickly levels return to normal
Half life
273
What is the half life of carboxyhemoglobin
Approx. 5 hours
274
What is the type of CO monitor we use
Airspace AI-2000
275
The Airspace AI-2000 will alarm at what levels of CO
30ppm (flashing lights)
120 ppm (92 decibel audio alarm)
276
If an employee is exposed what form needs to be filled out and by when
DWC-1 Form
Within 24 hours of incident
277
The supervisor of the exposed employee needs to fill out what form and by when
AP 24 form
Within 24 hours of incident
278
Standard for ARFF operations and procedures
NFPA 402
279
Standard for ARFF minimum requirements
NFPA 403
280
Standard for minimum requirements for career and volunteer FF
NFPA 1001
281
Standard for live fire training
NFPA 1403
282
How many hours does ISO require for company training
16 hours per month
192 hours total per year
283
How many hours does ISO require for Officer training
12 hours per year
284
What are the different levels of training and who conducts them
Level 1 Training division
Level 2 Station level
Level 3 Online training
285
How often do we do air samples for all in service breathing air compressors
Quarterly
286
What type of air do we use to fill SCBA bottles
Grade E compressed air
287
What are the top middle and bottom portions for on the red tags
Top - remains with piece of equipment
Middle - used by logistics
Bottom - placed on cork board for all equipment sent in for repair
288
All personnel shall actively monitor the radio between
0700 and 2000 hours
289
What is our primary FireCom channel
BCF D2
290
What station is the Tender located
Station 21
Tender 21
291
M cylinders should be replaced when they reach
400psi or less
292
Where are the 2 emergency only oxygen cascade systems we use
Logistics
North Fire Training Annex
293
What must be communicated to to air rescue by on scene personnel
Patient status
Weight
Airway compromise/RSI
Patient combative/suicidal/prisoner
294
What is the optimal landing zone size
100ft x 100ft
