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Flashcards in Speech and Language Disorders in Children Deck (459)
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1
Q

What is nonegocentrism?

A

a stage of pragmatic development when a child learns to take someone else’s perspective; ch can consider what the listener knows about the context of the situation

2
Q

What is decentration?

A

step in pragmatic development when the ch moves from one-dimensional descriptions to descriptions that involve more than one attribute (a pencil is not only yellow, but also thin, long, made of wood, etc.)

3
Q

What are the three levels of culture?

A

concrete, behavioral, and symbolic

4
Q

What is the concrete level of culture?

A

surface level features (e.g. clothes, food, games, music, etc.); cultural “festivals” based on this level

5
Q

What is the behavioral level of culture?

A

deals with social rules, language, communication; sign language is the foundation of deaf culture; proximity during conversation; behaviors which reflect our values, such as lang, gender roles (genderlects), family structure, and political affiliation

6
Q

What is the symbolic level of culture?

A

the most abstract level (e.g. value system, customs, religion, beliefs, worldview)

7
Q

What does professional cultural competence include? 3

A

1 awareness of one’s own values and ideas, 2 active attempts to understand the values and ideas of the families we serve (read about specific lang and cultural groups, team up with members of cultural groups who can act as interpreters and informants)
3 developing assessment and treatment protocols that address individual client needs

8
Q

What is culture?

A

a dynamic set of values and beliefs that shape the behaviors of individuals

9
Q

What is an ethnic group?

A

is a group of individuals who share a common language, heritage, religion, or nationality

10
Q

How many ethnicities are in the the US? What are they?

A

5: European American, Black American, Latino American, Asian American, and Native American

11
Q

What are cultural frameworks?

A

beliefs and values individuals within a group use to develop social interaction practices: includes the way lang is used; lang is used to pass down those beliefs and values that are shared by the group

12
Q

What is cultural pluralism?

A

exists when people from different cultural groups all live together, while perserving and valuing their distinguishing characteristics

13
Q

What is cultural sensitivity?

A

demonstrating an awareness that cultural practices are different from your own; not judging cultural practices that are different from your own

14
Q

What are 3 challenges associate with multicultural sensitivity?

A
  1. client-therapists ethnic mismatch (over 50% of kids in US receiving services from SLP’s are minority; over 90% of SLP’s in US are white females)
  2. practitioners raised in this country operate from a European cultural framework , regardless of ethnicity; 3. a lg # of SLP are not properly trained to diagnose and treat children from culturally and linguistically diverse backgrounds
15
Q

What is balanced bilingualism?

A

equal proficiency in two languages (rare)

16
Q

What is nonbalanced bilingualism?

A

higher proficiency in one language than language than another (more common)

17
Q

What is semiproficient and semibilingualism?

A

mixed input/output of languages; considered a language disorder

18
Q

What is simultaneous acquisition

A

the development of both languages prior to the age of three

19
Q

what is successive acquisition?

A

developm one lang (l1) usually at home, then a secondary lang (l2) usually at school after age 3

20
Q

What is a dialect?

A

a mutually intelligible forms of a language associated w/ a particular region, social class, or ethnic group; variations of a particular language and are spoken by a large group of people who share ethnic, regional, or national similarities. There are ethnic and regional dialects, but all are variations of a parent language: Standard or Mainstream American English (SAE or MAE)

21
Q

What assessment considerations w/ ethnic minority populations?

A

if the assessment is done in the native language; used dynamic assessments rather than normed references when possible; improved retest scores

22
Q

Why do we assess phonology and syntax in the native language?

A

because these areas produce the most differences

23
Q

Why do we use dynamic assessments rather than normed references?

A

evals ch ability to learn rather than output product;

24
Q

What method do we use in dynamic assessments?

A

uses test, teach, retest approach

25
Q

Why can’t we always use dynamic assessments?

A

public schools require standardized tests (insurance companies want to see standardized #s); but it’s always good to supplement a standardized test with some kind of other test

26
Q

What are 3 behaviors that could be attributed to pragmatic differences?

A

-proximity; eye contact; topic initiation w/ an adult/topic maintenance w/ an adult

27
Q

What is an indication that cultural differences may have been the explanation behind the original low baseline score in a standardized assessment?

A

improved retest scores

28
Q

What can you do for ch from some Asian cultures may not be used to interacting one-on-one w/ adults?

A

bring in another ch

29
Q

What can you do to help ch from some Native American cultures who may not be used to the question answer format or timed responses? 2

A

take a language sample or give a parent questionaire/test

30
Q

What can you do to help ch from some afro-american cultures who will not respond typically to “known” questions in which the answer is obvious?

A

provide better instruction (some of these will be really easy, but you need to help me out)

31
Q

What can you do to help some Latino, African, and Asian cultures that consider it disrespectful to make direct eye contact w/ an adult?

A

don’t require eyecontact if this is suspect (or take a language sample)

32
Q

How do we differentiate dialect from disorder?

A

determine if the ch’s phonological system is w/in normal limits for his linguistic community

33
Q

How long has ASHA formally acknowledged dialectical difference vs. disorder?

A

since 1983

34
Q

What can you do to minimize misdiagnoses based on dialectical differences? 7

A
  1. sample the adult speakers in the community;
  2. use interpreters and community support people as resources
  3. learn as much as you can about the dialectical features
  4. use minimal competency core as a screener (Stockman, 1996)
  5. be aware of your own dialect
  6. if ch is bilingual assess in L1 & L2 and compare qualitativ differences
  7. use formal assesment tools as well as informal
35
Q

What is minimal core competency?

A

“the least amt of knowledge one must exhibit in order to be judged in a given age range”; using developmental criteria; if a ch’s phonological skills aren’t comparable to the minimum; you’re likely leaning towards a disorder

36
Q

What are intervention considerations for ethnic minority pops? 2

A
  1. consider the family dynamics- some cultures have the family’s nucleus is more than just parents and children; 2. consider the family values for communication- some cult don’t value a lot of talking
37
Q

What are some phonological considerations for treatment?

A

1 doing perceptual training, 2 be aware of the ch’s home language could be impacting your treatment, 3. adapt training procedures to individual cases (consider culture but also how that individual family operates in that culture

38
Q

What is the best way to avoid cultural conflicts?

A

talk to the family prior to beginning intervention

39
Q

What assessment process question need to be considered and answered? 5

A

1 does a child have a speech or language disorder? (just b/c there are errors doesn’t mean an error exists)
2 how severe is it? (mild, moderate, severe)
3 what kinds of error patterns does the child demonstrate? (consonant cluster reduction, lack of eye contact, etc.)
4 What aspects of speech or language are affected? (form, morphology, syntax, semantics, pragmatics, speech production)
5 is the child demonstrating a disorder or a difference?

40
Q

What are the components of language assessment? 5

A

screening, case history/influencing variables, standardized tests, informal assessments, and responsiveness to intervention

41
Q

The first step in assessment is a ___, which is _____

A

screening, a quickly obtained general view of skills.

42
Q

What are some examples of a screening?

A

DIAL-3, Fluharty, DELV, Hearing

43
Q

A quick snapshot of the child’s abilities is ____.

A

a screening

44
Q

The actual evaluation of the skills to arrive at a diagnosis and potential plan of action is _____

A

an assessment

45
Q

Describing and understanding the problem, and/or identifying a disorder category or cause for the problem is _____.

A

a diagnosis

46
Q

What are some examples of assessments? 4

A

CELF (or CELF5 - 5th edition or CELF-P for presch age), PLS, GFTA, Arizona

47
Q

What does CELF stand for?

A

Clinical Evaluation of Language Fundamentals

48
Q

____ is the way we reach diagnosis.

A

assessment

49
Q

How do we get pts?

A

through referrals from: pediatricians (too few words, stuttering)/neurologists/ENTs (ch w/ surgery, tubes in ears/freq ear inf, cranial-facial abnormalities); Dieticians (swallowing strategies); Teachers (comprehension/ production errors, pragmatic issues); School Nurses; Psychologists

50
Q

What are the two possible outcomes from a language screening?

A

pass/fail, different screenings have different thresholds, results do NOT determine the presence of a disorder

51
Q

What is a developmental screening?

A

a screening done during key dv. times (automatically done during presch)

52
Q

What is a injury-related screening?

A

a screening done when we know there is a particular need to do it more often (chronic otitis media)

53
Q

What does an assessment hope to acheive by observing speech and receptive and expressive lang skills? 3

A
  1. whether a problem exists, 2 the nature of the problem, 3 what action should be taken
54
Q

What are the steps in designing the assessment protocol? 4

A
  1. individualized for that ch; 2. sensitive, but not oversensitive AND accurately determines severity, 3. comprehensive (asses all aspects of the problem), 4. unbiased (accurate regardless of race, culture, SES, etc.)
55
Q

What does chart review/case history allow you to do?

A

view the case history/get a description of a ch’s skills from a parent and teacher pov; get info about prior assessments and treatments; get insight into fam hist of comm skills; educational history; home and school lang use; medical/dev history

56
Q

What does the GFTA stand for?

A

Goldman Fristoe Test of Articulation

57
Q

What does the PLS stand for?

A

Preschool Language Scale

58
Q

What does interview allow you to do?

A

if you spend more time on this phase will help with cultural competency: allows you to ask relevant questions: what do YOU want to get out of therapy? do you read to your child? can you give me an example of ____? (blank comes from the form); gives you an opportunity to ask about specific questions rel to cultural practices, family, traditions, beliefs and values: Quality of the questions may have to outweigh the quantity if you are pressed for time

59
Q

What are the two main genres of assessments?

A

formal and informal; ideally you should be able to give some combo

60
Q

What are formal assessments? 2 definition types

A

traditional standardized tests that utilize norms for comparison to peers with strict administration guidelines; 1 norm referenced; 2 criterion-referenced

61
Q

What are some examples of informal assessments?

A
  1. Speech and Language sample analysis
  2. Curriculum-based assessments
  3. Portfolio assessment
  4. Dynamic assessment (test, teach, retest)
62
Q

What can be accomplished with speech and language sample analysis?

A

uses spontaneous or elicited lang samples to analyze different skills

63
Q

What can be accomplished with curriculum-based assessments?

A

examines skills that are expected to be obtain via the curriculum, for curriculum-based lang assessments, the goal is to use samples of the real curriculum to analyze the student’s curriculum-based lang processing abilities - more useful for language as opposed to speech

64
Q

What can be accomplished with a portfolio assessment?

A

a systematic purposeful collection of student work that provides insight into the student efforts progress or acheivement in certain curriculum areas - also more suited to language as opposed to speech

65
Q

What can be accomplished with a dynamic assessment?

A

it examines a child’s ability to learn rather than their skills; often uses a test, teach, retest format, to look at improvement w/ teaching; for the teaching phase information, it is important to keep tract of examiner effort on dynamic assessment outcomes (8 prompts is a lot, conscious of # of cues)

66
Q

What are high and low linguistic demand assessment tasks?

A

low: yes or no questions; high: re-telling a story

67
Q

What are low and high naturalness assessments tasks?

A

low: flashcards; high: role playing

68
Q

What are the characteristics of norm-referenced tests? 3

A

1 performance is compared to a group of standard performance (norms)
2 scores refer to relative standing in relation to group norms (std. dev from the norm)
3 provides insight into the child’s abilities on that day

69
Q

What are advantages to norm-referenced assessments? 2

A

1 clear admin guidelines
2 yields standard scores (easily understood by SLPs, teachers, funding agencies, universal, qualifying services and insurance)

70
Q

What are disadvantages to norm-referenced assessments? 4

A

context is not natural
often misdiagnosed child from difference culturally background
guidelines may not allow for modifications
not sensitive to subtle changes in skills

71
Q

What are the characteristics of criterion-referenced assessments? 2 What is an example?

A

1 performance is interpreted based on a predetermined standard such as % correct
2 absolute std for performance
A hearing tests is an example of this.

72
Q

What are advantages of criterion referenced assessments? 3

A

1 better to assist with functional goal writing
2 yield raw scores (# of correct responses, which is scoring simplicity)
3 good tool for tracking subtle progress

73
Q

What are disadvantages of criterion referenced assessments? 1

A

guidelines are usually not as uniform (different clinicians administer differently and even the same clinician may vary on retest)

74
Q

Why is it important to review the technical manual of a standardized test? 5

A
1 understand the purpose
2 evaluate the norming population
3 understand CORRECT administration
4 ages
5 theoretical perspective of the developers
75
Q

What are the 2 types of scores that we see?

A

1 raw scores

2 standard scores

76
Q

What is a raw score?

A

indicates the actual number of items students answer correctly; advantage: comparable if students take the same test; and is easy to calc; are good to determine student gains in acheivement on the same test; disadvantage: can’t be used to compare one subject to another; or from 1 test to the next even of the same topic; doesn’t provide a fram of reference for how well a student is doing (teaching to the test, doesn’t say anything about lang)

77
Q

What is a standard score? 4

A

indicates how much a stud’s score deviates from the mean; provides an equal interval unit of measurement (mean of 100, Std deviation 15); can be used to be indicate gains in terms of overall development; since std scores are consistent across tests a person’s scores can be compared across tests

78
Q

What are advantages of standard scores? 2

A

1 are linearly related to raw scores

2 display relative student performance w/in a group

79
Q

What are disadvantages of standard scores?

A

1 may be confusing to parents and teachers

2 require an understanding of the scale being used

80
Q

____ standard deviations is the limit for normal limits for standard scores.

A

1.5

81
Q

A score of ____ is the limit for normal limits for standard scores.

A

77.5

82
Q

What is test validity?

A

the extent to which the test measures what it purports to measure

83
Q

What are test psychometrics?

A

measures of tests

84
Q

What are categories of validity?

A

content validity and construct validity

85
Q

What is content validity?

A

experts eval each item and judge if the test targets what it is supposed to

86
Q

What is construct validity?

A

the degree to which scores are consistent w/ theoretical constructs; test should conform w/ theories on dev

87
Q

What is criterion validity?

A

correlation w/ existing measure

88
Q

What is predictive validity?

A

how well a test predicts performance on future tasks in the same domain

89
Q

What is reliability validity?

A

the consistency of measurement on repeated observations; possible sources of error in measurement if not consistent

90
Q

What are types of reliability?

A
interjudge/interexaminer (who gives the test shouldn't be a factor)
internal consistency (degree to which items meas the same beh)
split-half-reliability (scores on 1st 1/2 same as scoring on 2nd 1/2)
test retest (stability of the scores over time)
91
Q

Two sets of scores perfectly correlated will have a correlation of ____. (norm ref tests should be at least ____ reliability)

A

1.00 (.900)

92
Q

What are pros of formal testing? 2

A

less time consuming than descriptive measure; provides scores often req by schools

93
Q

What are cons of formal testing? 4

A

1 do not explore learning potential (no strengths)
2 do not provide info about comm competence in real-life situations (artificial info)
3 do not provide info about discourse skills
4 may be biased against Culturally Linguistically Diverse (CLD) bg students

94
Q

What is language sample analysis?

A

has been proposed by some as the best means to identify language disorders in ch; used to provide more in depth info along w/ the norm ref test (use of MLU most commonly used); a form of informal testing

95
Q

What are two forms of informal testing?

A

speech and language sample analysis

dynamic assessment

96
Q

What specific skills can language sample analysis address? 2

A

1 use of pl morphemes

2 use of interaction strategies (topic maintenance)

97
Q

How can speech and language sample analysis work qualitatively and quantitatively?

A

Qual: look at sentence complexity, interaction strategies (pragmatics)
Quan: can look at MLU

98
Q

What different scenarios can language samples be gathered in?

A

spontaneous conversation, narrative productive, shared story book interactions, daily routines; can provide an individual context

99
Q

What are the drawbacks of speech and language sample analysis?

A

has some subjectivity; very time consuming

100
Q

What is a dynamic assessment?

A

can be used to ID learning potential by examing change over time, useful in helping decide the “difference v. disorder” in ch (procedure: test, teach re-test)

101
Q

What are the pros of informal testing? 7

A

1 explore learning potential
2 provides info about comm competence in real-life situations
3 provides info about discourse skills
4 may be less biased against CLD students
5 can target the ch’s individual needs
6 flexible assessment options
7 use of software such as Salt can reduce analysis errors

102
Q

What are the cons of informal testing? 4

A

1 more time consuming than formal structured measures
2 interpretation of results may vary from person to person
3 may not provide scores often req by schools (cannot qualify a ch for services)
4 ch may not produce the target skill in order to determine if there is a deficit

103
Q

What settings do you work with infants, toddlers, preschoolers? 6

A

homes, preschools, daycares, schools, hospital, rehabilitation facilities

104
Q

What programs are associated with infant /child assessments? 2

A

1 Early Childhood Intervention (birth - 3 years)(IFSP - Individual Family Service Plan - speech goals have their own section)
2 Preschool Program for Children with Disabilities (3-5) (IEP - Individual Education Plan, same idea, older children)

105
Q

What are the general principles for assessment w/ infant, toddlers & preschoolers? 10

A

1 procedures should be family centered
2 start early monitoring (the sooner the beter)
3 include other professionals (more comprehensive assessment)
4 include family members
5 conduct interviews and case history
6 observe child-caregiver interactions
7 test hearing (screen, rule out hearing as the cause first!)
8 use multiple measures
9 use non-discriminatory measures
10 prevent future problems with oral language and literacy

106
Q

What are 3 assessment strategies for infants, toddlers, and preschoolers?

A

1 observe play (communicative temptations)
2 have parents list words that their chs understand & use (may over/underestimate at times, but they are at the best as estimating)
3 use a spontaneous play sample or a narrative assessment (for preschoolers)

107
Q

What do we want from a spontaneous language sample? Why? 3

A

representative (real world) communication (often play based)
- samples permit insight into functional communicative competence
samples allow a variety of skills to be assessed
samples can be taken under many conditions

108
Q

How do we obtain and analyze a representative sample from a infant, toddler, or preschooler?

A

1 caregiver, sibling, nanny should be involved to gather it naturally. SLP could do it, but may hamper naturallyness
2 Activities could be pretend play, bath time, routines
3 SLP or person who does transcription can analyze

109
Q

What analyses should you run on a language sample? 4

A
1 form (morpho-syntax & pragmatics)
2 semantic analysis (content)
3 communicative intent/pragmatic functions (use)
4 narrative structure (some early elements of narrative structure are present for preschoolers such as anticipated format and simple sentence elements - obj. verbs, subj)
110
Q

What is MLU?

A

mean length of utterance ( the average number of morphemes per utterance (ttl morphemes produced/total utterances produced)

111
Q

What is morphosyntactic analysis?

A

an evaluation of morphological and syntactic structures relative to developmental stage.

112
Q

What are Brown’s 5 stages of development?

A
I 12-26 months (MLU 1-2)
II 27-30 months (MLU 2-2.5)
III 31-34 months (MLU 2.5-3))
IV 35-40 months (MLU 3-3.75)
V  41-46 months (MLU 3.75-4.5)
113
Q

What is done in semantic analysis?

A

how do ch express meaning and combine words thru incr complex utterances

114
Q

What are 3 measures of complexity of semantics?

A

number of different words (NDW)
total number of words (TNW)
type token ratio is NDW/TNW
TTR of ½ (.5) is average for child 3-8 years old

115
Q

A child with TTR of 1 and a MLU of 1 has a ____ vocabulary and ___ complexity

A

low; low (child is only using one word utterances, only repeating, we would not expect them to have a higher vocab)

116
Q

A child with a TTR of 1 and a MLU of 6.3 has a ____ vocabulary and a ___ complexity.

A

high; high

117
Q

A child with a TTR of .56 and a MLU of 4.5 has a ____ vocabulary and a ___ complexity.

A

typical/average for both

118
Q

When we look a pragmatic analysis what else to we want to look at?

A

positive or negative assertiveness and responsiveness (either/or both/and, neither/nor), will they initiate and will they respond

119
Q

What are the developmental ages of speech?

A

I 0-12 months
II 12-24 months
III 24 months - 5 years
IV 5 years - adolescence

120
Q

What is a screening like for speech disorders?

A

determines if the client’s skill are appropriate for their age (or not); pass/fail, quickly performed

121
Q

What are the types of screenings (screeners)? 3

A

1 primary function to assess speech
2 speech screening embedded w/in a language test
3 nonstandard screenings (asking parent specific questions to determine if the described skills are age appropriate: thumb sucking, PE tubes, dental work

122
Q

What are the goals for pure speech samples in preschoolers?

A

1 Trying to get the child to talk

2 Try to get any type of vocalization, the younger the chidl is.

123
Q

What is articulation assessments?

A

assessments that focus on the production of each sound (rabbit -> wabbit)

124
Q

What is phonological assessments?

A

assessments that focus on the productions of patterns of sounds; (top -> kop; do -> go both backing)

125
Q

What are the 3 primary steps in phonological/articulation assessments?

A

1 initial observation
2 collection of speech sample
3 hypothesis testing (more appropriate with school age children)

126
Q

Why do we do artic and phon assessments? 3

A

1 to find current level of functioning
2 determine if therapy is needed
3 if needed, what goals are appropriate

127
Q

What are the characteristics of the initial observation? 3

A

1 brief in length (3-5 minutes)
2 eval of the child’s spontaneous speech, gives you a sense of the ch’s functional intelligibility
3 depending on the child, it may be interaction with parent (or an ice breaker game) or may be causal conversation or play

128
Q

What are options in initial observations? 5

A

1 answer questions
2 show them a picture and ask them to tell a story about it
3 talk about their dog, cat, or other pets
4 tell about a past experience
5 explain a movie

129
Q

Why is a speech sample collected during the initial observation?

A

to find out how widespread the problem is

130
Q

Which speech measure do we use for which age?

A

1 Standardized measures (for older kids (stage IV) - salient sounds emphasized, e.g. Goldman Fristo)
2 Speech Sample (for younger kids (stage I-II)
3 Both (for kids in btw older and younger (stage III))

131
Q

What are the pros of nonstandard assessments? 4

A

1 flexible and adapts to clients learning style
2 any age/development level
3 use when client can’t be tested by other measures
4 can be more in-depth than standard assessments

132
Q

What are the cons of nonstandard assessments? 3

A

1 req more clinician knowledge
2 less reliable (less structured procedures)
3 time consuming

133
Q

What is intelligibility?

A

how easily a person’s speech can be understood by unfamiliar adults

134
Q

3 y.o. speech should be at least ____ intelligible to unfamiliar adults.

A

70%

135
Q

What are 3 ways to assess intelligibility?

A

1 Clinical Judgement Scales
2 Frequency Occurrence Analyses
3 Error Pattern Analyses

136
Q

What are Clinical Judgement scales?

A

used by ch in stages 2-4; SLP compares the target ch’s speech to a ch of similar age & ranks them

137
Q

What are Frequency Occurrence Analyses?

A

used w/ ch in stages 2-4; determining intelligibility by analyzing the most frequently occurring sounds; efficient won’t notice less frequently occurring words

138
Q

What are error pattern analysis?

A

used w/ ch in stage 3; SLP classifies the ch’s error by types of errors (fronting, stopping, etc.)

139
Q

What are 3 rules for collecting a speech sample?

A

1 use a high quality audio and/or video recorder (point the mic to the ch, set the device on a towel or something that will absorb atmospheric sounds)
2 repeat the ch’s utterance to help remember later (glossing)
3 transcribe soon (use consistent notation, if you’re not sure how to mark something, just be consistent and make corrections later; use only clinically relevant diacritics - too many can become complicated)

140
Q

______ measures the degree of the ch’s articulation and phonological disorder?

A

severity

141
Q

What is the clinical judgement scale for severity?

A

1 familiar listeners judge and rank artic and phonological ability
2 ranking basis on comparative w/ other ch the same age
3 use w/ all clients - most appropriate w/ stage 3-4

142
Q

What is the Percent of Consonants Correct (PCC)?

A

measure of severity based on a percent of consonants produced and the toal attempted; generally around 50-65% for a referral (Stage 3)

143
Q

A Percent of Consonants Correct of ____ or below is generally required for a referral.

A

50-65%

144
Q

A PCC of ____ or above is considered normal development for preschool aged (18 months to 5 years).

A

85%

145
Q

A PCC of ____ is considered mild to moderate disorder development for preschool aged (18 months to 5 years).

A

65-85%

146
Q

A PCC of ____ is considered moderate to severe disorder development for preschool aged (18 months to 5 years).

A

50-65%

147
Q

A PCC of ____ or below is considered severe disorder development for preschool aged (18 months to 5 years).

A

<50%

148
Q

Intelligibility analysis is done for clients in stages __ to ___

A

2 to 4

149
Q

How do you assess intelligibility? 2

A

1 Clinical Judgement Scale (sim. to clinical judgement scale for severity)
2 Error pattern analysis (assess the effects of error patterns on intelligibility; increases in error patterns usually decrease intelligibility; especially with assimilation, atypical patterns, multiple errors and variable errors)

150
Q

_____ is done for clients in stages 2-4, uses clinical judgement scale and error pattern analysis to see the effects of error patterns.

A

Intelligibility analysis

151
Q

___ are base assessments on average age at which the child without developmental delays acquire sounds.

A

Age norms

152
Q

Age norms help to select ____ ___, by picking the targets that are most delayed (but also looking at error patterns).

A

therapy goals

153
Q

What are 2 limitations of age norms?

A

1 ages such as those in the book are averages
2 norms may not be the same from culturally or linguistically diverse backgrounds (i.e. English as a second language kids)

154
Q

What 4 aspects of the speech sample are most often analyzed with Age Norms?

A

1 pre-speech vocalizations (eval the existence of prespeech vocalizations such as cooing and babbling - relevant 18 month olds)
2 Phonetic inventories (eval which sounds are represented in the child’s inventory)
3 Error Patterns (eval phonological and artic errors)
4 consonants and consonant clusters (eval the ch’s production of consonants)

155
Q

As a starting point for therapy, it’s best to start with the error patterns that are ____ % successful. Frequent sounds will often progress w/o intervention. What is this level of success called?

A

25-49%; present

156
Q

What else should we look for in error patterns in the speech sample w/r/t age norms? 1

A

make note of atypical error patterns (also known as phonological process analysis)

157
Q

What are the external elements of the oral motor screening? 3

A

1 facial symmetry
2 muscle tone
3 movement

158
Q

What are the internal elements of the oral motor screening? 3

A

1 Teeth (condition & alignment)
2 Tongue movement & strength
3 Palate/pharynx - closure, movement (velum); tonsils

159
Q

What are 3 related assessments to oral motor and speech screenings?

A

1 Case history
2 hearing screening
3 language screening

160
Q

What settings do we complete school aged children? 3

A

1 schools
2 hospitals
3 rehabilitation facilities

161
Q

Once children are told they are too old for ECI; their IFSP is replaced with ___

A

IEP (individual education plan)

162
Q

What are the positives of standardized testing for school aged children language? 4

A
  1. tests are normed on a given pop
    2 can test some higher-level skills (inference, multiple meanings, story completion)
    3 complete tests as described in the manual
    4 use charts to determine score
163
Q

What should you remember when taking a language sample? 3

A

1 have a high qual recording device
2 keep mic aimed at the ch
3 say what they say to help understand better later (glossing)

164
Q

____ is repeating what the child says after the child, to help with transcription.

A

glossing

165
Q

What is different in a school aged child assessment?

A

inclusion of a narrative sample

166
Q

What are the different types of narrative samples? 3

A

1 personal narrative (story that happened to them or a movie they saw) - easiest
2 re-tell story (ch retells a story that was told to them)
3 tell (ch tells a story from a book) (hardest) (wordless picture books)

167
Q

What is difficult about wordless picture books telling?

A

1 picking the salient features of the story (ASD will focus non-salient features)
2 maintaining the sequence

168
Q

What are language sample types? 3

A

1 narrative
2 spontaneous play
3 picture descriptions

169
Q

What are some different picture descriptions? 2

A

1 problem solving: “what can she say to her friend to make things better?”
2 goal oriented: “how can she get the cookies if she can’t reach them?”

170
Q

How do you analyze your sample? 4

A
1 MLU (form, morpho-syntax, phonology)
2 TTR (semantic analysis and content)
3 communicative intent/pragmatic functions (use, proximity, eye contact, topic maintainence)- assertiveness, responsiveness
4 narrative structure
171
Q

What are aspects of a story that we look for? 8

A

1 Setting - info about people, place, imp things
2 initiating event - occurrence that influences the main characters
3 internal response - to the initiating event
4 plan - strategy to solve problem/obtain goal
5 attempt - action to solve problem/obtain goal
6 consequence - result of attempt
7 resolution - character’s feelings, thoughts or actions in response to the consequence
8 ending - close of the story

172
Q

Older children with more than just residual errors will be _____.

A

in the lower stages

173
Q

Older children in the lower stages, will frequently still have ____ ____.

A

error patterns

174
Q

Older kids in the lower stages can be assessed with ____ and ___ for speech.

A

non-standardized and standardized measures.

175
Q

____ are accuracy in producing sound patterns.

A

Error patterns

176
Q

Older kids in lower stages are primarily assessed with ___.

A

standardized measures

177
Q

Older kids error patterns frequently are chronic. True or false.

A

true

178
Q

Some error patterns ____ with maturation. By what age?

A

dissipate; 5

179
Q

Error patterns associated with maturation including __ & ___ (____)

A

[l] and [r] (glides); {also lateralized [s])

180
Q

Generally error patterns that linger are considered ___, b/c the client’s speech resembles a younger child (not age appropriate).

A

delayed

181
Q

At times ___ is a description that used after age 9.

A

disordered

182
Q

Disordered speech is often linked with ___ error patterns or extreme (severe) impact on intelligibility and functionality.

A

atypical

183
Q

___ ___ ___ exist where, for example, fronting and devoicing coexist.

A

multiple error patterns

184
Q

In stage 4, client may have ____ errors (single word errors)

A

residual

185
Q

In stage 4, speech eval is primarily ____, with ___.

A

standard measures; non-standard measures for support.

186
Q

What are the pros of standardized tests? (older kids) 4

A

1 promotes reliability (at least .9 reliability)
2 gives an overview of the key speech assessment topics
3 gen. time efficient
4 freq accepted by insurance companies and others

187
Q

What are the cons of standardized instruments? 2 (older kids)

A

1 not all clients have the cognitive capacity for test

2 may not have a complete analysis for severely disordered speech

188
Q

What is the third step of older kid assessments?

A

hypothesis testing

189
Q

What is the goal for hypothesis testing?

A

to obtain more in-depth information about the child’s speech disorder (error sounds)( (a ch subs /p/ for /f/ and you want to test if this is the case for all situations) (use word probes for error patterns)

190
Q

____ are predetermined lists of words with certain sounds in certain positions.

A

word probes

191
Q

___ is determined by what other sounds the individual can produce. (used to help select treatment targets)

A

stimulability

192
Q

What are different areas we ID for stimulability? 5

A
1 imitation
2 key environments
3 key words
4 phonetic placement
5 shaping
193
Q

___ is checking to see if a ch can say a target correctly when provided a direct model such as a word probe list.

A

Imitation (may be immediate or delayed)

194
Q

If the child is successful in imitating he/she is said to be ____ for that sound.

A

stimulable

195
Q

___ is targeting word positions, syllable positions, or in conjunction with other sounds to find stimulability.

A

key environment

196
Q

____ is a particular word that the child naturally produces correctly, often a word that is special to the child.

A

key words

197
Q

___ are nonsense words that address the child’s ability to produce new words correctly.

A

new/novel vocabulary

198
Q

___ help a child understand how to physically produce the sound (may describe/demonstrate what to do with the articulators to make a sound). (more for older children). Also can involve instructions like “turn on your voice.”

A

phonetic placement

199
Q

___ is taking a sound that they can already produce and getting them to move to another position (target sound).

A

Shaping

200
Q

What actions should be taken after assessment? 3

A

1 Intervention (type and quantity)
2 Set goals
3 Measure progress

201
Q

____ is what you hope to acheive in treatment.

A

Intervention goals

202
Q

___ is how you get to your intervention goals.

A

Intervention procedure

203
Q

What do all treatment goals have in common? 3

A

1 functional - make sure the goals will actually help them in real life
2 Measureable - how will you know if they completed the goals?
3 Attainable - should be realistic

204
Q

Long term (range) goals look at __.

A

overall outcome, big picture (very broad goals) (Lauren will incr her expressive lang skills to a more age appropriate level)

205
Q

___ is a step you take to achieve long term goal.

A

short term objective

206
Q

___ is another term for short term objectives.

A

Semester objectives

207
Q

How are short term objectives different than long term goals? 3

A

1 what you can acheive over the course of a semester
2 more specific than long term goal
3 a stepping stone to the long term goal

208
Q

____ are related to one of the semester objectives, but on an even shorter time frame.

A

daily objectives

209
Q

What are the 4 parts to a daily objective?

A

1 Condition
2 Learning
3 How the learning will be demonstrated (behavior)
4 the criteria

210
Q

What is the condition in a daily objective?

A

the circumstances (during a story, when on the floor, when given multiple cues, when given auditory cues, while in the kitchen)

211
Q

What is the learning in a daily objective?

A

the language skill (while reading a story, B will improve his ability to answer y/n questions; B will increase his MLU, B will increase his topic initiation skills)

212
Q

What is the behavior in a daily objective?

A

how the learning will be demonstrated (usually indicated by the word “by”; by reducing his rate of speech; by telling a story, by correctly producing [r])

213
Q

What is the criteria in a daily objective?

A

how you will measure the skill (w/ 80% accuracy; from 1.5 to 2.5, with fewer than 4 prompts)

214
Q

How do you monitor progress and outcomes?

A

data collection (different skills are collected differently; everyone does it differently and it is determine in lg part by the objective; determines whether or not progress is being made)

215
Q

Why should assessments should be given during certain intervals? 3

A

1 determine if progress is being made
2 deter mine if any changes need to be made to the treatment plan
3 determine if client needs to be discharged
GOALS: TOO HIGH, TOO LOW?

216
Q

What are the two different methods for IDing students with Learning Disabilities (LD)? 3

A
  1. Traditional Discrepancy Model

2 Responsiveness-to-Intervention Model

217
Q

____ (1975) defined “undersachievement” as discrepancy btw IQ and achievement.

A

Education of All Handicapped Children Act

218
Q

Why was the discrepancy model criticized? 3

A

1 IQ tests don’t meas intelligence nece
2 Discrepancy btw IQ and achievement maybe inaccurate
3 Wait to fail paradigm (often results in delayed response to problems)

219
Q

What is the RTI?

A

responsiveness to intervention is a systematic process of intervention to prevent school failure (intro’d in 2004); type of dynamic assessment

220
Q

What is the one constant in the traditional model of intervention?

A

comparison to peers

221
Q

What does RTI take into consideration that traditional model did not?

A

look at the students exposure to skills/instructional methods

222
Q

The ___ philosophy believes that children may not do well while being assessed for certain skills b/c of lack of exposure or inadequate teaching.

A

RTI

223
Q

What are 3 principles of RTI?

A

1 Evidenced based instruction should guide classroom teaching
2 Prevention is better than waiting
3 All children in a classroom will benefit from high quality instruction

224
Q

RTI is for students who possess a profile of ____.

A

strengths and weaknesses (LD)

225
Q

What are 3 advantages of RTI?

A

students ID’d w/ a LD only after effective instruction is not beneficial

  • stud provided w/ intervention early
  • stud assessment data informs teachers about appropriate instruction
226
Q

What are the basic levels of RTI?

A

1 Primary Prevention Level
2 Secondary Prevention Level
3 Tertiary Prevention Level

227
Q

What happens in primary prevention RTI?

A

all studs screened to determine present levels of performancy; rhyming is taught to all ch (w/ Evidence Based method) students who demo deficits remain in Tier 1, with progress monitoring; some students will not improve and must move to Tier 2

228
Q

What happens in secondary prevention RTI?

A

in tier 2, focus on the target skill is more intense (provided in sm groups, w/ evidence based, ex. sm group shared story reading); at the end of tutorial trial progress monitoring is used to determine if students are improving (move to Tier 1) or determine further intervention in Tier 2 is necessary or or more intensive intervention needed (Tier 3)

229
Q

What happens in tertiary prevention RTI?

A

1 individualized services (intensive, systematic, “pull out”); based on data; multidisciplinary eval preceds placement or ID of LD (reqs parental permission); progress monitoring is used to set goals for IEP; design individualized pgms, monitor student responsiveness; can move back down Tiers w/ significant progress

230
Q

How do we determine which Tier a child should be moved to in RTI?

A

by viewing the individual progress monitoring

231
Q

What is role of SLPs in Tier 1? 3

A

1: SLP provides “best practice” info a staff mtgs or other global sources; may give a teacher some gen suggestions for class or home activities; begin documenting intervention

232
Q

What is the role of SLPs in Tier 2? 3

A

1 collaborate (Share roles, share all our best ideas w/ examples), give teacher specific instruction to target a specific ch (and help them keep the data); 2 include direct work in sm groups in class; 3 document change

233
Q

What is the role of SLPs in Tier 3? 3

A

1: w/ permission, in-depth testing;
2 enter into special education w/ a formal IEP;
3 meet w/ all concerned parties and document progress

234
Q

What should intervention techniques be based on?

A

Evidence based practice: external or internal

235
Q

What are the two levels of evidence?

A

external and internal

236
Q

What is external evidence?

A

research studies that used certain techniques

237
Q

What is internal evidence?

A

considering why an intervention might be successful (based on language theory)

238
Q

____ are methods which lack the external evidence, but are still promoted as evidence based therapy.

A

Fringe therapies

239
Q

____ theory intervention may have adults model the appropriate behvavior in functional contexts.

A

social interaction

240
Q

___ is adult’s description of what he/she is doing, thinking or feeling while playing with child. This is good for children with low verbal output to increase MLU.

A

self talk a.k.a. play by play announcing

241
Q

____ is an adult’s description of what the child is doing, using the child’s name repeatedly.

A

parallel talk

242
Q

___ is showing the child what to do.

A

modeling

243
Q

Language during self/parallel talk and modeling should be in the _____ (not too far above or below the child’s lang level.

A

zone of proximal development

244
Q

____ are two word utterances which are not grammatically correct (some believe it should never be used, others believe it is appropriate for ch w/ MLU of 2 or below.

A

telegraphic speech

245
Q

____ is repetition of child’s utterance while adding semantic content.

A

extensions

246
Q

____ is repetition of child’s utterance using correct adult grammar.

A

expansions

247
Q

Extensions and expansion are used for children ____ (old).

A

18-24 months

248
Q

____ intervention is based on the idea that language is learned through higher-order cognitive processes such as memory and problem solving.

A

cognitive theory based

249
Q

___ is modelling the target behavior and requiring the child to repeat.

A

Imitation

250
Q

___ is the often viewed as the first step in teaching behavior (highest level of prompting/cuing). Eventually the clinician can scale back to less involved intervention. Provides more opportunities for the behavior to occur.

A

imitation

251
Q

____ is an aspect of imitation in which the child repeats the learned behavior over and over. It increases cognitive development.

A

practice

252
Q

Scripting is an example of ____ in which written dialogue is rehearsed until they understand the target.

A

practice

253
Q

Interventions are generally either ___ -directed or _____-directed

A

child; adult

254
Q

What are the criteria for determining child or adult-directed therapy? 3

A

1 age & personality of the child
2 goal of therapy
3 specific goal & objectives (daily)

255
Q

During the adult directed therapy the adult (4)

A

1 Plans game: chooses the activity
2 Plans ch role: determines what types of responses the child
3 Plans adult feedback: let’s the child know how s/he is doing on the task
4 Plans structure of the session: utilizes the discrete trial format

256
Q

During the child directed therapy the adult (5)

A

1 DOESN’T CONTROL follows the child’s lead
2 RESPONDS responds appropriately, but waits for the child to engage before responding again
3 MODELS provides a lot of modeling through the natural interactions
4 FOLLOWS acts as facilitator rather than leading
5 reinforcements are natural consequences

257
Q

_____ is a hybrid type of therapy in which the clinician exposes the child to a language target (form, content or use) in natural situation using a variety of examples.

A

focused stimulation

258
Q

What is the purpose for infants/toddlers of intervention?

A

maximize expressive and receptive communicative competence in and social situations

259
Q

How do we succeed in intervention in infants/toddlers? 4

A

1 eliminate the underlying problem (uncommon in language situations)
2 change specific disordered behavior (incr expressive vocab)
3 teach compensatory strategies (strategies for improving sequencing deficits)
4 change the environment (restructuring the environment to make it more conducive to learning)

260
Q

_____ is based on developmental norms using what they should have and picking targets from that list. Usually morphosyntax are common language targets.

A

Developmental-normative approach

261
Q

_____ is based on the observation of an individual need for specific skills in specific situations.

A

Functional approach

262
Q

_____ often benefit from a focus on developmental skillls.

A

Young children

263
Q

_____ often benefit from a functional/pragmatic approach.

A

Older children

264
Q

____ is when the SLP provides the intervention services.

A

direct intervention

265
Q

___ is when the SLP trains the parent or teacher on intervention techniques (modelling, imitation).

A

indirect intervention

266
Q

___ is a strategy used in direct and indirect teach which use an enhanced environment (books, words on wall).

A

incidental teaching or Milieu Teaching

267
Q

____ is a way to encourage the child to have natural ways to communicate through intentional errors. This can be taught to parents in indirect intervention.

A

Sabotage

268
Q

What are incidental teaching techniques? 6

A

1 enhancing the environment/language rich
2 asking open ended questions (less yes/no)
3 allowing silences to occur in convos
4 providing choices
5 prompting peer interactions
6 sabotage

269
Q

___ could involve Print Referencing or Vocabulary Elaboration and is a form of direct intervention.

A

Increasing Emergent Literacy

270
Q

____ is when an adult uses cues to direct a child’s attention 2 the functions, features, and forms of written language during shared storybook reading. It is a form of Increasing Emergent Literacy

A

Print Referencing

271
Q

____ is when the adult focuses on semantic aspects of words as pointing out multiple meanings. It is a form of Increasing Emergent Literacy.

A

Vocabulary Elaboration

272
Q

___ is the building blocks to learning word attack skills and can include rhyming, blending, segmenting, and elision.

A

Phonological Awareness

273
Q

____ is a natural approach where the adults work language goals into a functional communication context.

A

Incidental Teaching or Milieu Teaching

274
Q

Modelling “more snack please” after giving only one cracker is an example of ___

A

Incidental Teaching

275
Q

____ is repeated modeling of a targeted language structure in hopes that the child will use it.

A

Focused Stimulation

276
Q

_____ is a clinician’s monologue about what s/he is doing.

A

Self-talk

277
Q

___ is a clinician’s running commentary describing what the child is doing.

A

Parallel talk

278
Q

____ are setting where language is used in the same way each time and increases the predictability of the situation.

A

Joint action routines

279
Q

____ is demonstrating errors so that children correct them.

A

Sabotage

280
Q

___ is demonstration of skills outside of the initial intervention setting.

A

Generalization

281
Q

What changes need to be made to promote generalization? 3

A
1 stimuli (materials)
2 settings/contexts
3 interlocutors (peoples)
282
Q

What are the 4 guiding principles of speech intervention (ITPS)?

A

1 purpose of intervention
2 goals for therapy
3 target sounds
4 administrative decisions

283
Q

The speech stages purpose is to address the client’s stage of ___ rather than their ____.

A

phonological development; chronological age

284
Q

In Stage ____, the purpose is to facilitate the development of vocal skills that underlie later speech development

A

I

285
Q

In Stage 1, the purpose in treatment is to facilitate development of vocal skills that underlie _____.

A

later speech development

286
Q

In Stage 2, the purpose of treatment is to facilitate development of a _____ _____for communication.

A

functional vocabulary

287
Q

In stage ___, the purpose of treatment is to facilitate acquisition of major speech elements.

A

III

288
Q

Stage ___, the purpose of treatment is to facilitate development of a functional vocabulary for purpose of communication.

A

II

289
Q

In Stage 3, the purpose of facilitate the acquisition of ____ ___ ___.

A

major speech elements

290
Q

Before the child develops functional speech, in stage 1, it will have to develop ____.

A

basic vocal skills

291
Q

What is the common long term goal for ch stage 1-3 in speech treatment?

A

ch to have the artic and phonol dev appropriate compared to others with the same chornological or developmental age

292
Q

What are the short term goals in stage 1? 3

A

1 initial awareness of sounds and using vocalization
2 ensure adequate changes to vocalize
3 functional work

293
Q

What are the short term goals in stage 2? 4

A

1 word level acquisition
2 deficits in articulation and phonology limit expressive vocabulary
3 encouraging speech
4 incr the accuracy of sp and then gaining consistency in speech

294
Q

How can you attack the deficits in artic and phono (b/c they limit expressive vocab)? 5

A
1 ID current vocab (be sure to include misarticulated words)
2 complete a phonetic inventory analysis
3 select target words
4 teach the words
5 monitor progress
295
Q

How do you select target words in speech? 3

A

based on what the ch can already produce; based on emerging phonetic inventory; based on ch motivation

296
Q

What is a way you can teach the words in speech?

A

use of and bombardment w/ occasional requests for the child to produce the target

297
Q

___ is heavy repetition of the target sound.

A

auditory bombardment/auditory training

298
Q

Accepting vocalizations that are close to encourage and reinforce speech in stage 2 treatment is an example of ___.

A

encouraging speech

299
Q

___ are common in young children, because of limited accuracy in speech. “Muh” is truck, juice, and train.

A

Homonyms

300
Q

In stage 3, the ch will focus on ___ ___ ___ and expanding speech through longer utterances and generalization.

A

error pattern reduction

301
Q

____ is working with sounds that are w/in a class in stage 3 of speech treatment (i.e. velars, alveolars)

A

distinctive features

302
Q

____ focusing on elimination of mispronunciations of a sound class.

A

error patterns

303
Q

What are strategies we can use as speech targets that the child is likely to produce? 5

A
1 imitation
2 emerging sounds
3 key words
4 phonetic placement
5 shaping
304
Q

___ is demonstrating tongue placement for a sound.

A

imitation/phonetic placement

305
Q

____ is using sounds that are close to correct as targets.

A

emerging sounds

306
Q

___ is using words that ch is targeting naturally (like their name) as speech targets.

A

key words

307
Q

_____ is using one sound to show how to do another.

A

shaping

308
Q

The __ method of speech targets selects treatment targets that have a minimal difference from the sound that the child can already make. (child can already produce ng & n; target m).

A

most knowledge

309
Q

___ is targeting sounds that are very different from what the ch can already do.

A

least knowledge

310
Q

If the ch has [p] and the target [z] is selected this is an example of ____ method.

A

least knowledge

311
Q

In stage 1, it is recommended to use ____ for speech targets.

A

most knowledge

312
Q

If the ch can make a stop (p), some possible goals for ___would be [b].

A

most knowledge

313
Q

In stage 2, it is recommended to use ____ for speech targets.

A

combo of least and most knowledge

314
Q

In stage 3 it is recommended to use ___ for speech targets

A

a combo of least and most knowledge (more least knowledge at the end)

315
Q

With all treatments, we must make administrative decisions as to session type, which means ___ or ____.

A

individual; group

316
Q

_____ sessions are best in beginning therapy.

A

Individual

317
Q

In Group Sessions, ____ (#) of clients is ideal. (age and goal matched)

A

3-5

318
Q

___ sessions are best in the late stages of therapy. Helps with working on generalization.

A

Group

319
Q

____ (frequency) is customary for speech intervention (ITPS).

A

one or more times per week

320
Q

In terms of duration, ___ to ____ is common, but the time in therapy (____) is individualized.

A

brief (15m); longer (1hr); months

321
Q

___ is when the clnician presents the material for mass practice (stage 4).

A

drill

322
Q

____ is the usage of a drill in the context of a game (get a shot at the hoop w/ a certain # of productions). (Stages 3-4)

A

Drill play

323
Q

_____ is drill play in child centered activities (load the activity with the target sound) (e.g. scavenger hunt). (Stage 2-3)

A

structured play

324
Q

___ is a very child oriented activity working on targets as they naturally happen (using a toy kitchen set) (Stages 1-2)

A

play

325
Q

____ is an example of a complete intervention program, which are better suited for younger children and those w/ error patterns rather than articulation problems. They address both distinctive features and phonological processes.

A

Phonological programs

326
Q

____ address the individual errors rather than patterns.

A

Articulation patterns

327
Q

____ or ____ tell you exactly what to do for your intervention.

A

Complete Intervention or Comprehensive Intervention programs

328
Q

___ is a threapy based comprehensive program on a specific timed cycle of activity with each error pattern addressed individually.

A

cycles program

329
Q

Technically ____ are where complete programs are packaged and bought.

A

comprehensive programs

330
Q

In ___, included is auditory bombardment, therapeutic play (drill structured), and drill. It ends w/ stimulability testing for the next sounds.

A

Cycles program

331
Q

_____ combines multiple procedures from many phonological programs in 4 steps.

A

Easy Does It for Phonology

332
Q

In Easy Does it for Phonology, the child is
1. ___ to bring attention to their error
2. Made aware of ____ an how that can change the meaning (hop v. hot)
3 Produce target in _____.
4. produce target correctly and ____.

A

1 bombardment
2 distinctive features
3 various activities
4 contrast with their incorrect production

333
Q

____ assume that speech problems are largely motoric (stage 4).

A

Articulation programs

334
Q

Articulation problems assume that speech problems are largely ___.

A

motoric

335
Q

____ or ____ attacks isolated sounds, then syllables, then words (one word per session)

A

Traditional Approach/VanRiper Approach

336
Q

_______ or ____ is when you put a key word (one they can do like their name) next to a target word.

A

Paired Stimuli; Key Word

337
Q

_____ uses syllable structures with target words.

A

Sensory-motor program

338
Q

____ is the same as Van Riper, but with multiple phonemes per session.

A

Multiple Phoneme Program

339
Q

In all intervention techniques, if the child produces the sound incorrectly, the SLP will ___ the sound.

A

stop and teach

340
Q

____ is using the contrastive nature of the sounds to reach a target (used later in stage 3 and stage 4)

A

word pairs

341
Q

___ are two words which different by only 1 distinctive feature. tap/tab; ding/zing

A

minimal pairs

342
Q

____ are two words which differ by multiple distinguishing features. set/bet; ham/hat

A

maximal pairs

343
Q

Depending on the context, clinician may use ___ pairs first and ___ pairs at the end.

A

maximal; minimal

344
Q

With school-age children language intervention, the purpose is to maximize ___ and __ competence in academic and social situations.

A

expressive; receptive

345
Q

What are the 4 parts of intervention with school aged kids? Which one is emphasized?

A

1 eliminate the underlying problem
2 change the specific disordered beh
3 teach compensatory strategies (emphasis!)
4 change the environment

346
Q

Young children often benefit from working on specific developmental skills, but older children often benefit from working on ____.

A

pragmatic skills

347
Q

An example of pragmatic skills, is ____, which works on discourse skills.

A

scripts

348
Q

What are the delivery model (size setting) options for school aged interactions (administrative decisions)? 6

A
1 individualized intervention
2 group intervention (2-3 ch of like age and disorder)
3 pull-out (taking the ch out of the classroom & going to the therapy room)
4 classroom
5 consultation (a type of indirect therapy)
6 collaborative/team (working w/ teachers and parents)
349
Q

What are the benefits and drawbacks of the pull-out approach?

A
\+ child less distracted, low threat environment;
- decontextualized setting; missing class time; stigmatizing
350
Q

What are the benefits and drawbacks of the classroom approach?

A

+ see difficulties as they happen

- distracting to other students/teacher; stigmatizing

351
Q

What are the benefits and drawbacks of the consultation approach?

A

+ intervention strategies taught to teacher or parent (primary intervention agent)
- teacher or parent may perceive SLP as language expert to deliver intervention services; teacher may be too busy

352
Q

What are the benefits and drawbacks of the collaborative approach?

A

+ teacher or parent and SLP share mutual responsibility for child’s program
- teacher or parent may perceive SLP as language expert to deliver intervention services; teacher may be too busy

353
Q

___ is an efficient and structured to elicit maximal response which target specific goals.

A

drill

354
Q

____ is a structured intervention to elicit maximal response to target sounds w/ a greater student motivation compentent to target specific goals.

A

drill-play

355
Q

What are the most important techniques and strategies for implenting intervention? 6

A
1 reinforcers
2 expansion
3 extension
4 recasting
5 mand-model/elicited imitation
6 modify linguistic input
356
Q

___ is syntactic expansion of child’s production to reflect an adult version (does not go beyond semantic boundaries of ch’s utterance, e.g. “baby drink” -> “the baby drinks”)

A

Expansion

357
Q

“Baby drink” -> “the baby drinks milk” is an example of ____

A

recast

358
Q

___ is a semantically related utterance that goes beyond the ch’s utterance’s boundaries (e.g. “baby drink” -> “the baby is thirsty”)

A

Extension

359
Q

____ is a response to ch’s utterances in a new linguistic structure produced immediately after ch’s production as it would naturally occur (not too much emphasis) (e.g.”the cat eat that food” -> “what kind of food is she eating?”)

A

recasting

360
Q

____ is not a imitation of the child’s utterance, but a clarifying statement or question with new linguistic structure not an imitation of the child’s utterance. It can facilitate the development of new language structures.

A

recasting

361
Q

_____ is making statements that require the child to respond. The adult models the language for the child and the child is expected to imitate.

A

mand-model/elicited imitation

362
Q

____ is a statement that specifies a reinforcer.

A

Mand

363
Q

____ is a technique that we do automatically based on what the client needs.

A

Modifying Language Input

364
Q

What are examples of modifying language input? 8

A
1 slower speaking rate w/ longer pauses
2 repetition
3 rephrase information (not the best w/ all disabilities)
4 present info multi-modally
5 Produce shorter sentences
6 emphasize words w/ stress and loudness
7 enunciate
8 create favorable listening conditions
365
Q

Older children who are in therapy in ____ speech stages. Those with more limited skills and those with better skills.

A

different

366
Q

Older children with more limited skills will be treated ___.

A

with techniques from levels 1-3 like traditional or cycles approach or minimal pairs

367
Q

What is the purpose of stage 4 speech treatment?

A

facilitate dev of literacy and eliminate errors affecting late acquiring speech sounds

368
Q

What is the long-term goals of stage 4 speech treatment?

A

1 artic and phono dev appropriate compared to chronological development age
2 artic and phono skills satisfactory for personal satisfaction and educational development (child’s satisfaction)

369
Q

Odler children w/ better skills will be treated __.

A

with mroe advanced techniques that require higher cognitive levels and treat specific needs rather than global error patterns

370
Q

Children in stage 4, can begin with sounds with some knowledge like ___ , ___ or ___.

A

stimulable, emerging, or key words

371
Q

Because the child is older in stage 4, you can target harder sounds because ____.

A

clients have more delayed gratification and understanding

372
Q

___ approach is targeting isolated sounds with most knowledge (older children used rarely)

A

Traditional/Van Riper

373
Q

____ puts a key word (that they can do) next to a target.

A

Paired stimuli/ Key Word

374
Q

____ program starts with sounds in syllables then increases in complexity. Uses nonsense words.

A

sensory-motor

375
Q

___ program is similar to traditional but w/ multiple phonemes.

A

multiple phoneme

376
Q

____ increases speech movement with imitation and rehearsal with increasing compleity.

A

Motoric Automatization of Articulatory Performance

377
Q

In Stage 4, the most important part of any speech program is choosing targets based on ____ (target words from academic textbooks or social situations).

A

function

378
Q

____ is using the contrastive nature of the sounds to reach a target (relevant words academically and socially). This is effective in cognitively advanced stage 3 and into stage 4.

A

word pairs

379
Q

tab/tap is an example of ___.

A

minimal pair

380
Q

wet/set is an example of ___.

A

maximal pair

381
Q

A technique for ____ is is to teach rhyming, beginning with rhyming vowel endings and move to consonants eventually.

A

Final consonants

382
Q

A technique for remediating ___ is to place the problem in a position where it may migrate from the end to the beginning of a the next word (desk up -> de skup)

A

consonant cluster

383
Q

A technique to deal with ___ is to practice with multiple syllabic words and w/ equal stress (supper -> sup per). Teach stress patterns for target words.

A

syllable deletion

384
Q

A technique to address ___ is to tell the child where to produce a target. This is commonly used.

A

phonetic placement

385
Q

A technique for ___ is to use a sound the child can produce and moving it into a sound that the child cannot produce.

A

shaping

386
Q

Older children who are in therapy in ____ speech stages. Those with more limited skills and those with better skills.

A

different

387
Q

Older children with more limited skills will be treated ___.

A

with techniques from levels 1-3 like traditional or cycles approach or minimal pairs

388
Q

What is the purpose of stage 4 speech treatment?

A

facilitate dev of literacy and eliminate errors affecting late acquiring speech sounds

389
Q

What is the long-term goals of stage 4 speech treatment?

A

1 artic and phono dev appropriate compared to chronological development age
2 artic and phono skills satisfactory for personal satisfaction and educational development (child’s satisfaction)

390
Q

Odler children w/ better skills will be treated __.

A

with mroe advanced techniques that require higher cognitive levels and treat specific needs rather than global error patterns

391
Q

Children in stage 4, can begin with sounds with some knowledge like ___ , ___ or ___.

A

stimulable, emerging, or key words

392
Q

Because the child is older in stage 4, you can target harder sounds because ____.

A

clients have more delayed gratification and understanding

393
Q

___ approach is targeting isolated sounds with most knowledge (older children used rarely)

A

Traditional/Van Riper

394
Q

____ puts a key word (that they can do) next to a target.

A

Paired stimuli/ Key Word

395
Q

____ program starts with sounds in syllables then increases in complexity. Uses nonsense words.

A

sensory-motor

396
Q

___ program is similar to traditional but w/ multiple phonemes.

A

multiple phoneme

397
Q

____ increases speech movement with imitation and rehearsal with increasing compleity.

A

Motoric Automatization of Articulatory Performance

398
Q

In Stage 4, the most important part of any speech program is choosing targets based on ____ (target words from academic textbooks or social situations).

A

function

399
Q

____ is using the contrastive nature of the sounds to reach a target (relevant words academically and socially). This is effective in cognitively advanced stage 3 and into stage 4.

A

word pairs

400
Q

tab/tap is an example of ___.

A

minimal pair

401
Q

wet/set is an example of ___.

A

maximal pair

402
Q

A technique for ____ is is to teach rhyming, beginning with rhyming vowel endings and move to consonants eventually.

A

Final consonants

403
Q

A technique for remediating ___ is to place the problem in a position where it may migrate from the end to the beginning of a the next word (desk up -> de skup)

A

consonant cluster

404
Q

A technique to deal with ___ is to practice with multiple syllabic words and w/ equal stress (supper -> sup per). Teach stress patterns for target words.

A

syllable deletion

405
Q

A technique to address ___ is to tell the child where to produce a target. This is commonly used.

A

phonetic placement

406
Q

A technique for ___ is to use a sound the child can produce and moving it into a sound that the child cannot produce.

A

shaping

407
Q

What are the 4 steps for Easy Does It for Phonology?

A

1 Bombardment
2 Awareness of the semantics differences
3 Producing targets in various activities
4 Contrast production with their incorrect production

408
Q

_____ is based on research done on a certain technique.

A

External evidence

409
Q

___ is considering how a certain technique may impact an individual child.

A

Internal evidence

410
Q

____ is impaired comprehension and/or use of spoke and/or written and/or other system. And individual with this may have problems with form and/or content and/or use.

A

Language disorders

411
Q

What are criteria for a language disorder? 3

A

1 impaired comprehension and/or use of spoke an/or written and/or other systems
2 can involve problems w/ form, content and/or use
3 occurs if different from age-matched peers of similar culture

412
Q

Classifying a child as having a ____ implies te child will catch up.

A

language delay

413
Q

About ____ of late talker will eventually catch up

A

50%

414
Q

Classifying a child as having a ____ implies the child is significantly different from their peers in comprehension and/or use of language systems.

A

language disorder/impairment

415
Q

_____ is a significant impairment in expression and/or comprehension of language (Can’t be attributed to any other causal condition) and diagnosed preschool or later (>3).

A

Specific language impairment (SLI)

416
Q

Why is SLI usually diagnosed after 3?

A

to rule out late talkers

417
Q

What are the 6 characteristics of SLI?

A

1 inconsistent skills across different domains
2 verb use problems
3 social skills, behavior and attention problems
4 slow vocab growth
5 word-finding troubles (“thing” & “stuff”)
6 persistent problems over course of lifetime

418
Q

_____ is a term that refers to a range of four to five specifc neurodevelopmental disorders.

A

Autism Spectrum Disorders (ASD)

419
Q

What is another name for ASD?

A

pervasive developmental disorders (PDD)

420
Q

What are the 5 disorders included for ASD in the DSM-IV?

A
1 CDD
2 Rett
3 PDD-NOS
4 Autism
5 Aspergers
421
Q

The ASD disorder CDD stands for ___.

A

childhood disintegrative disorder

422
Q

What are the characteristics of CDD?

A

it is fairly rare disorder affecting only boys, with a regression beginning at 2 years of age (motor, social, language regress for a while and then plateau) - once they plateau, they look and behave like a child w/ Autism, SLPs not brought in until plateau

423
Q

What are the characteristics of Rett Syndrome?

A

a rare regressive syndrome, which regresses in 4 distinct stages; only occurs in girls, microcephaly, teeth-grinding, hand-wringing; onset btw 6-18 months

424
Q

The ASD disorder PDD-NOS stands for ___.

A

pervasive developmental disorders-not otherwise specified

425
Q

What are the 3 characteristics that put a child on ASD?

A

1 Problems with social interaction (at least 2)
2 Problem w/ communication (Verbal and nonverbal) (at least 1)
3 Restricted pattern of interest (at least 2)

426
Q

____ is a form of motoric verbal stimulation, where an individual with ASD, may repeat a phrase or make a sound loudly.

A

Stimming

427
Q

The ASD have 3 basic characteristics in common and to confirm diagnosis, the clinician must identify at least ___ problems with social interraction, ____ problems with communication, and ___ restrictions in their pattern of interest.

A

2; 1; 2

428
Q

____ is a form of motoric verbal stimulation, where an individual with ASD, may repeat a phrase or make a sound loudly.

A

Stimming

429
Q

The ASD have 3 basic characteristics in common and to confirm diagnosis, the clinician must identify at least ___ problems with social interraction, ____ problems with communication, and ___ restrictions in their pattern of interest.

A

2; 1; 2

430
Q

Characteristics of social interaction w/r/t ASD are 3

A

1 proximity
2 eye contact
3 conversational turn-taking

431
Q

Characteristics of communication (verbal/nonverbal) w/r/t ASD are 2

A

1 echolalia

2 nonverbal/body language

432
Q

Characteristics of restricted pattern of interest w/r/t ASD are 3

A

1 strange repeated motions
2 trouble transitioning
3 only eat one thing

433
Q

How is ASD ID’d?

A

through behavioral means unless biological marker

434
Q

How do children who don’t have ASD get misdiagnosed? 3

A

1 clinician error
2 child having a bad day
3 child has deficits in the 3 core ares

435
Q

What has the ASD changed into for DSM V?

A

all disorders will now collapse into one disorder (Austistic Disorder) and Rett’s is no longer associated w/ Austism

436
Q

The criteria for ASD has changed into what?

A

from 3 to 2:
1 social/communication deficits
2 fixed interests and repetitive behaviors

437
Q

_____ is a new disorder which will be in the DSM V.

A

Social Communication Disorder (SCD)

438
Q

What severity scale exists for Autistic Disorder?

A

3 level; 3 minimal support needed
2 moderate support needed
1 amount support needed

439
Q

____ is often the first sign of language disorder.

A

Language delay

440
Q

Autistic Disorder is also marked by atypical language, including ____, ____, ___,___, ___, ____, & ____ 7

A

1 echolalia (repeating a word or phrase previously heard);
2 pronomial confusions (incorrect use of pronouns);
3 dysprosody (unusual pitch rhythm, or pace in suprasegmentals);
4 paralinguistic difficulties,
5 non-literal language difficulties;
6 nonverbal communication (gestures, eye contact, etc.)
7 context bound usage (only concrete subjects, rather than abstract)

441
Q

Autism onset is ____.

A

before 3 years old

442
Q

Autism prevalence in school-aged children is ___ and in overall population is ___.

A

1:50; 1:88

443
Q

___ is the overall number of cases.

A

Prevalence

444
Q

___ is the number of new cases in a specific time frame.

A

Incidence

445
Q

What is the cause of Autism?

A
no known cause; suspects are 1 Biological (brain function, pathways, non-neurotypical), 2 Genetic (twin studies, increased sibling risk)
3 Environmental (vaccines, pollution diet)
446
Q

What is an option for non-verbal Autistic children?

A

augmented alternative communication (like Max, who had a lot to say)

447
Q

What did the story of J Mac the basketball player teach us about Autism?

A

early intervention helps the child to function and even lose some of the criteria

448
Q

What is the prevalence of Asperger’s Syndrome?

A

some say 2:10,000 and others say 1:500; Ross says maybe even less

449
Q

What are the hallmarks of Asperger Syndrome? 3

A

1 IQ scores usually average or above average (may use atypical or advanced vocab)
2 Social communication problems (Have difficulty keeping up with the subtle cues and dynamics of conversation/poor social language or pragmatics, very literal)
3 Restricted pattern of interest (usually expressed in terms of topics of interest- little to no interest in other topics)

450
Q

_____ is marked by limited topics of interest and often do really well in one on one, but poorly in small groups.

A

Asperger Syndrome

451
Q

“Individuals shall honor their responsibility to hold paramount the welfare of persons they serve professionally or who are participants in research and scholarly activities, and they shall treat animals involved in research in a humane manner” is ASHA ethic number ____

A

I

452
Q

“Individuals shall honor their responsibility to the public by promoting public understanding of the professions, by supporting the development of services designed to fulfill the unmet needs of the public, and by providing accurate information in all communications involving any aspect of the professions, including the dissemination of research findings and scholarly activities, and the promotion, marketing, and advertising of products and services.” is ASHA ethic number ___

A

III

453
Q

“Individuals shall honor their responsibilities to the professions and their relationships with colleagues, students, and members of other professions and disciplines.” is ASHA ethic number ____.

A

IV

454
Q

“Individuals shall honor their responsibility to achieve and maintain the highest level of professional competence and performance.” is ASHA ethic number ___.

A

II

455
Q

Code of Ethics offenders are printed in the ___ (frequency) newsletter called ___.

A

quarterly; ASHA Leader

456
Q

The primary idea of ASHA ethic # 1 is what?

A

welfare of patients or research subjects including animals

457
Q

The primary idea of ASHA ethic #2 is what?

A

maintain professional competence and performance

458
Q

The primary idea of ASHA ethic #3 is what?

A

provide accurate information in research as well as marketing

459
Q

The primary idea of ASHA ethic #4 is what?

A

honor/respect colleagues and students