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Spinal Final > Spinal Flashcards pt. 2 > Flashcards

Spinal Flashcards pt. 2

1
Q

what is the relationship b/w size of the intervertebral disc and receptor endings?

A

the larger the disc, the greater the variety of receptor endings

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2
Q

what is the proposed function of receptor ending density in the anterior part of the intervertebral disc?

A

they provide feedback during extension

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3
Q

what innervates the annulus fibrosus at the posterior part of the intervertebral disc?

A

the recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve

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4
Q

what forms the posterior neural plexus of the vertebral column?

A

the sinu-vertebral nerve (sinus vertebral nerve, recurrent meningeal nerve)

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5
Q

what forms the anterior neural plexus of the vertebral column?

A

fibers from the ventral primary ramus

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6
Q

what is the name given to the white ramus communicans which becomes embedded within the annulus fibrosus of the intervertebral disc?

A

the paradiscal ramus communicans

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7
Q

how does the intervertebral disc attach to the vertebral body?

A

Sharpey’s fibers from the outer lamellae of the annulus fibrosus are firmly embedded into the epiphyseal rims of the adjacent vertebral bodies

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8
Q

in what regions of the vertebral column is the space formed b/w vertebral bodies by the intervertebral disc the greatest?

A

cervical and lumbar regions

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9
Q

which curve direction will be associated with the greatest space observed b/w vertebral bodies

A

the lordotic or anterior curves

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10
Q

what does the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner become?

A

the perichordal disc

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11
Q

what part of the intervertebral disc will the notochord form?

A

the nucleus pulposus

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12
Q

what part of the intervertebral disc will the perichordal disc form?

A

the annulus fibrosus

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13
Q

what is the earliest indicator of the position of the adult intervertebral disc?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner

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14
Q

what vertebral levels will the anterior longitudinal ligament attach to?

A

those b/w occiput and S3 inclusive are traditionally indicated

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15
Q

what is the lowest extent of the anterior longitudinal ligament based on recent studies?

A

L3

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16
Q

what is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?

A

it brakes or limits dorsi-flexion or hyperextension of the vertebral column

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17
Q

what was ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region identified as?

A

Forestier’s Disease

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18
Q

what vertebral levels will the posterior longitudinal ligament attach to?

A

those b/w C2 and S3 inclusive are traditionally indicated

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19
Q

newer research suggests what regional variation in the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

prominent in the cervicals, occasional in the thoracics, rare in lumbars

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20
Q

what is the relationship of the posterior longitudinal ligament to the vertebral foramen?

A

it forms the anterior boundary of the spinal canal

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21
Q

what is the innermost layer of the posterior longitudinal ligament called?

A

the perivertebral ligament

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22
Q

where is ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly identified?

A

the cervical spine with an 80% incidence

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23
Q

what is the clinical sign of posterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the cervical spine?

A

a loss of hand and finger dexterity

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24
Q

what is the incidence of posterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the thoracic and lumbar spine?

A

about 10% at the thoracic and 10% at the lumbar spine

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25
Q

what is the clinical sign of posterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the lumbar spine?

A

faltering gait

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26
Q

what is the gender, age, and ethnic bias associated with ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

it is greater in males over 50 and has a higher incidence in the Japanese

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27
Q

what is the acronym for ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

OPLL

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28
Q

at one time ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament was an example of what condition?

A

Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis or DISH

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29
Q

what are the specific bony attaching sites for the ligamentum flavum?

A

the laminae

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30
Q

what is the name given to the ligamentum flavum based on appearance and histology?

A

it is a yellow elastic ligament

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31
Q

what fibers are most ligaments made up of?

A

collagen type I fibers which are whitish in appearance

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32
Q

what is the color of most ligaments in the body?

A

they are whitish

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33
Q

what is now thought to be a major function of the ligamentum flavum?

A

it is an early prime factor in extension of the vertebral column

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34
Q

where is ossification of the ligamentum flavum most commonly identified?

A

the thoracic spine or thoracolumbar transition zone

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35
Q

what is the relationship b/w the capsular ligament and mobility?

A

the more lax/loose the capsular ligament is, the greater the motion of the joint

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36
Q

what regions of the vertebral column demonstrate the greatest laxity of capsular ligaments?

A

the cervical and lumbar regions

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37
Q

what muscle will blend with the capsular ligament posteriorly?

A

the multifidus

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38
Q

what is the status of the lumbar interspinous ligament?

A

it is broad and thick with three layers identified from anterior to posterior

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39
Q

what is the classic function of the interspinous ligament?

A

it brakes or limits flexion of the vertebral column

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40
Q

what is now thought to be a major function of the interspinous ligament?

A

it is more likely a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

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41
Q

what will the ligamentum nuchae be attached to?

A

NAME?

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42
Q

what is the name given to the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

the funicular layer or part

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43
Q

what is the name given to the deep layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

the lamellar layer or part

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44
Q

what are the attachment sites for the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

NAME?

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45
Q

what is the histological make-up of the ligamentum nuchae in quadrupeds?

A

it is a yellow elastic ligament

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46
Q

what is the primary yellow elastic or elastic ligament of the spine?

A

ligamentum flavum

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47
Q

what is the termination level inferiorly for the supraspinous ligament according to current literature?

A

primarily at L4 (73%); between L4 and L5 (5%)

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48
Q

where is the supraspinous ligament said to be best developed?

A

in the lumbar spine

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49
Q

what is now thought to be a major function of the supraspinous ligament?

A

it is a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

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50
Q

where in the vertebral column is the intertransverse ligament best developed?

A

in the lumbar spine

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51
Q

what is the classification of the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal

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52
Q

what are the attachment sites of the anterior atlanto-occipital ligament?

A

it is attached to the upper margin of the anterior arch of C1 and to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum

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53
Q

what is the median thickening of the anterior atlanto-occipital ligament called?

A

the anterior longitudinal ligament

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54
Q

what is the classic function of the anterior atlanto-occipital ligament?

A

it brakes or limits “extension” of the skull over the cervical spine

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55
Q

based on the amount of ossification of the anterior free margin of the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament what structures will form?

A

an incomplete ponticulus posticus or a complete ponticulus posticus

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56
Q

what names are given to the opening formed by the ponticulus posticus?

A

arcuate foramen or retroarticular canal

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57
Q

what is the classic function of the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament?

A

it brakes or limits axial rotation, flexion, and perhaps lateral bending of the skull on atlas

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58
Q

what amount of flexion-extension is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

about 25 degrees

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59
Q

what amount of axial rotation is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

about 3-8 degrees one side axial rotation

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60
Q

what amount of lateral bending is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

about 5 degrees

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61
Q

which motion is best accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

flexion-extension

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62
Q

what are the joint surfaces of the median atlanto-axial joint at the anterior bursa?

A

the fovea dentis of C1 and the facet for fovea dentis of C2

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63
Q

what are the joint surfaces of the median atlanto-axial joint at the posterior bursa?

A

the groove for the transverse atlantal ligament of C2 and the transverse atlantal ligament

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64
Q

what ligament is formed by the transverse atlantal ligament and its perpendicular extension?

A

the cruciate ligament or cruciform ligament

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65
Q

what is the function of the transverse atlantal ligament?

A

it is the primary stabilizer of the atlanto-axial joint restricting the distance of C2 from the anterior arch of C1

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66
Q

what is the ADI?

A

the Atlanto-Dental Interspace, a radiographic distance b/w the surfaces of the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint

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67
Q

what is the ADI of children compared with that of adults?

A

about 4.5 mm in children;

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68
Q

what are the attachment sites for the accessory atlanto-axial ligament?

A

the base of the odontoid process and vertebral body of axis to the tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament on the lateral mass of C1; a superior continuation may attach on the occipital bone just behind that of the alar ligament

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69
Q

what ligament forms the posterior boundary of the spinal canal at the C1/C2 vertebral couple?

A

the posterior atlanto-axial ligament

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70
Q

what are the degrees of movement facilitated at the altanto-axial joint?

A

about 20 degrees flexion-extension, 40 degrees one side axial rotation, and 5 degrees of lateral bending

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71
Q

the occiput-C1-C2 joint complex accounts for what percent of all cervical axial rotation?

A

about 60%

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72
Q

what ligaments are present at the occipito-axial joint?

A

the apical ligament of the dens/apicodental ligament, alar ligament and membrane tectoria/tectorial membrane

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73
Q

embryologically, what forms the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament?

A

the notochord

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74
Q

what is the function of the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament?

A

it has no known function

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75
Q

what ligament attaches to the posterolateral part of the odontoid process of C2 and to surfaces on the medial border of the occipital condyle or as far anterior as the anterolateral margin of the foramen magnum?

A

the alar ligament

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76
Q

what is the function of the alar ligament?

A

together they function to resist axial rotation

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77
Q

what forms the cranial continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

the membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane

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78
Q

what are the attachment sites for the superficial layer of the membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane?

A

the posterior part of the inferior epiphyseal rim and vertebral body of C2 to the capsular ligament of the atlanto-occipital joint and cranial dura of the posterior cranial fossa

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79
Q

what ligament is anterior to the dura mater of the medulla oblongata-spinal cord junction?

A

the membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane

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80
Q

what is the function of the membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane?

A

it resists flexion and extension of the skull on the upper cervical spine

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81
Q

list, in order, the ligaments in a midsagittal plane from the dura mater at the level of the medulla oblongata to the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint

A

membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane;

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82
Q

for the cervical spine below C2, what is the range of motion allowed for each type of joint motion identified?

A

90 degrees flexion-extension, 50 degrees one side lateral bending and 33 degrees one side axial rotation

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83
Q

at what rib will the superior costotransverse ligament be absent?

A

the 1st rib

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84
Q

what ligaments will attach to the neck of the 12th rib?

A

the superior costotransverse ligament from T11 and the lumbocostal ligament from L1

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85
Q

which ribs will have an attachment for the inferior costotransverse ligament?

A

rib 1-rib 11

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86
Q

which ligament “fills” the costotransverse foramen?

A

the inferior costotransverse ligament

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87
Q

which vertebrae will have an attachment for the lateral costotransverse ligament?

A

T1-T11

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88
Q

at what rib will the lateral costotransverse ligament be absent?

A

the 12th rib

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89
Q

which vertebral couples of the thoracic spine have the greatest motion?

A

T11/T12 and T12/L1

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90
Q

which range of motion is greatest for lower thoracic vertebral couples?

A

flexion-extension

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91
Q

which range of motion is least for lower thoracic vertebral couples?

A

one side axial rotation

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92
Q

which ligaments replace the intertransverse ligament at the lumbosacral joint?

A

the iliolumbar ligament and lumbosacral ligament

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93
Q

what muscle is intimately attached to the superior iliolumbar ligament?

A

quadratus lumborum

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94
Q

which of the current ligaments from the iliolumbar ligament complex represents the iliolumbar ligament of classical descriptions?

A

the superior iliolumbar ligament

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95
Q

which ligament from the iliolumbar ligament complex represents the lumbosacral ligament of classical descriptions?

A

the inferior iliolumbar ligament

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96
Q

which vertebral couple of the lumbar spine has the greatest range of motion?

A

L5/S1

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97
Q

which range of motion is greatest for all lumbar vertebral couples?

A

flexion-extension

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98
Q

which range of motion is least for L1-L5 vertebral couples?

A

one side axial rotation

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99
Q

which range of motion is least for the L5/S1 vertebral couple?

A

one side lateral bending

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100
Q

list, in order, from cranial to caudal the ligaments forming the anterior boundary of the spinal column

A

the anterior atlanto-occipital ligament, anterior atlanto-axial ligament, anterior longitudinal ligament and the anterior sacrococcygeal ligament

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101
Q

list, in order, from cranial to caudal the ligaments forming the anterior boundary of the spinal canal

A

membrana tectoria, posterior longitudinal ligament and the deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

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102
Q

list, in order, from cranial to caudal the ligaments forming the posterior boundary of the spinal canal

A

the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament, posterior atlanto-axial ligament, ligamentum flavum and the superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

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103
Q

what forms the closure for the spinal canal inferiorly?

A

the fusion of the deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament with the superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

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104
Q

what is the auricular surface of sacrum composed of?

A

true articular cartilage, a modification of hyaline cartilage

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105
Q

what is the auricular surface of the ilium composed of?

A

articular cartilage, interspersed with fibrocartilage

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106
Q

which gender has greater unevenness of the auricular surface of the sacro-iliac joint?

A

males

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107
Q

what does ankylosis mean?

A

a condition of fibrous adhesion occurs within the joint

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108
Q

what is the age and gender bias associated with ankylosis of the sacro-iliac joint?

A

age 50 and male bias particularly in African American males

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109
Q

what age and gender bias is associated with ossification of the anterior sacro-iliac ligament?

A

age 40 and male bias

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110
Q

which is the strongest of the sacro-iliac ligaments?

A

the interosseous sacro-iliac ligament

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111
Q

what passes b/w the layers of the interosseous sacro-iliac ligament?

A

dorsal rami from the sacral spinal nerves

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112
Q

what ligament blends with the lateral border of the long posterior sacro-iliac ligament?

A

the sacrotuberous ligament

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113
Q

what is formed by the continuation of the sacrotuberous ligament along the ischial ramus?

A

the falciform process

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114
Q

what separates the greater sciatic and lesser sciatic foramina?

A

the sacrospinous ligament

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115
Q

what vertebral levels correspond to the position of the manubrium sterni?

A

T3-T4

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116
Q

what vertebral levels correspond to the position of the corpus sterni?

A

T5-T9

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117
Q

what is unique about the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib?

A

the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is flattened and has a scalene tubercle flanked by the groove for the subclavian artery and the groove for the subclavian vein

118
Q

what unique feature is present on the body (corpus or shaft) of the second rib?

A

the tuberosity for the serratus anterior

119
Q

how is the vertebral end of ribs 10, 11, and 12 similar to that of the first rib?

A

all have a single articular surface on the head for the costocentral joint

120
Q

what is the condition of the body (corpus or shaft) of rib 12?

A

the costal angle and costal groove are absent and it is the shortest of all ribs

121
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 3-7 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs

122
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs

123
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs

124
Q

what are the classifications of rib 10 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

atypical rib, false rib, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral rib

125
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 11 or 12 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs

126
Q

what are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior & posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur b/w bones developing by endochondral ossification

127
Q

what is the classification of the second-seventh sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia)

128
Q

what are the joint surfaces of the second sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

the costal cartilage of the second rib with costal notch II of the manubrium sterni, costal notch II of the corpus sterni and the manubrium symphysis

129
Q

which of the sternocostal or sternochondral ligaments is unique to the second sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

the intra-articular ligament

130
Q

what is the classification of the sixth through the ninth interchondral joints?

A

synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia)

131
Q

what is the classification of the fifth-sixth or ninth-tenth interchondral joint?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

132
Q

which costal cartilages fail to form a joint at their sternal end?

A

the eleventh and twelfth costal cartilages

133
Q

in the developing sternum, what joint classification is present b/w the manubrium, corpus and xiphoid process?

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

134
Q

how many primary centers of ossification appear in the manubrium?

A

1-3 centers have been identified

135
Q

how many primary centers of ossification appear in the corpus sterni?

A

typically 6

136
Q

in what part of the sternum will a secondary center of ossification appear?

A

the xiphoid process

137
Q

in what part of the rib will primary centers of ossification appear?

A

the body (corpus, shaft)

138
Q

in what parts of the rib will secondary centers of ossification appear?

A

the head, articular surface of the tubercle and the non-articular surface of the tubercle

139
Q

which ribs will demonstrate primary centers of ossification for the body (corpus or shaft)?

A

all ribs; ribs 1-12

140
Q

which ribs will demonstrate secondary centers of ossification?

A

ribs 1-10

141
Q

how do ribs 11 and 12 differ in ossification centers from typical ribs?

A

ribs 11 and 12 do not have secondary centers of ossification

142
Q

excluding the auditory ossicles, how many bones form the skull?

A

22 bones

143
Q

what is the cranium?

A

the skull minus the mandible

144
Q

what is the calvaria?

A

the skullcap

145
Q

how many bones form the neurocranium?

A

8 bones

146
Q

what bones form the neurocranium?

A

frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal, sphenoid and ethmoid

147
Q

what are the 4 subclassifications of synarthrosis joints based on Latin groupings?

A

suture, gomphosis, schindylesis and syndesmosis

148
Q

what are the characteristics of sutura vera (true sutures)?

A

sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembranous ossification

149
Q

what are the characteristics of sutura notha (false sutures)?

A

sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification

150
Q

what were the classifications of sutura vera (true sutures) based on Latin groupings?

A

serrate, denticulate and limbous

151
Q

what were the classifications of sutura notha (false sutures) based on Latin groupings?

A

squamous and harmonia

152
Q

what is the classification of a joint with a “fissure-like” condition?

A

schindylesis

153
Q

what are the examples of the schindylesis type of suture?

A

sphenoid-ethmoid-vomer articulation;

154
Q

what are the examples of the gomphosis joint?

A

maxilla-root of tooth;

155
Q

what is the glabella?

A

the elevation of bone over the frontal sinus b/w the orbits

156
Q

what is the name given to the outline of the nasal cavity at the front of the skull?

A

piriform aperture

157
Q

what is the name given to the alveolar jugum of the canine tooth in the maxilla?

A

canine eminence

158
Q

what is the tip of the external occipital protuberance called?

A

the inion

159
Q

what is the name of the linear elevation lateral to the external occipital protuberance?

A

superior nuchal line

160
Q

what is the appearance of suture intersections just above the zygomatic arch called?

A

the pterion

161
Q

what is the appearance of suture intersections just above he mastoid process called?

A

the asterion

162
Q

what points on the skull are used to measure the skull size?

A

the nasion, vertex, inion and gnathion

163
Q

what points on the skull are used to measure cranial vault capacity?

A

the nasion, vertex and inion

164
Q

what is the appearance of the suture intersections over the hard palate called?

A

the cruciate or cruciform suture

165
Q

what constitutes the bony floor of the anterior cranial fossa?

A

orbital plates of frontal bone, crista galli & cribriform plate of ethmoid

166
Q

what ostia are observed in the anterior cranial fossa?

A

cribriform plate, anterior & posterior ethmoid foramina and foramen cecum

167
Q

what passes through the cribriform plate?

A

fila olfactoria of cranial nerve I, the olfactory nerve

168
Q

what passes through the foramen cecum?

A

an emissary vein

169
Q

what prominent parts of the brain rest on the middle cranial fossa?

A

temporal poles of temporal lobes of cerebrum, hypophysis cerebri, optic chiasma

170
Q

what bony feature is prominent in the median plate of the middle cranial fossa?

A

sella turcica

171
Q

what is the location for the hypophysis cerebri or pituitary gland?

A

sella turcica of the sphenoid

172
Q

which cranial nerves exit the skull via middle cranial fossa ostia?

A

cranial nerves II, III, IV, V, and VI

173
Q

what are the contents of the optic canal?

A

the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

174
Q

what are the contents of the superior orbital fissure?

A

the ophthalmic veins, the oculomotor nerve, the trochlear nerve, the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, and the abducent nerve

175
Q

the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa via which opening?

A

the foramen rotundum

176
Q

the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa via which opening?

A

the foramen ovale

177
Q

what are the contents of the foramen spinosum?

A

the nervus spinosus from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve and the middle meningeal artery

178
Q

what are the contents of the foramen lacerum?

A

the internal carotid artery, the carotid sympathetic nerve plexus, and a venous plexus

179
Q

what are the contents of the hiatus for the greater (superficial) petrosal nerve?

A

the greater (superficial) petrosal nerve, a branch of the facial nerve

180
Q

what are the contents of the vidian canal/ pterygoid canal?

A

the vidian nerve or the nerve of the pterygoid canal

181
Q

what are the contents of the hiatus for the lesser petrosal nerve?

A

the lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the tympanic plexus from the glossopharyngeal nerve

182
Q

what forms the roof of the posterior cranial fossa?

A

the tentorium cerebelli

183
Q

what part of the central nerve system occupies the posterior cranial fossa?

A

the cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata

184
Q

what are the contents of the internal acoustic meatus?

A

cranial nerves VII (facial nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear/auditory nerve), the nervus intermedius/nerve of Wrisberg/ sensory root of VII and the motor root of VII, the vestibular and cochlear roots of VIII and the internal auditory/internal labyrinthine artery and vein

185
Q

what cranial nerves are located within the jugular foramen?

A

cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus) and XI (spinal accessory)

186
Q

what are the contents of the hypoglossal canal?

A

cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal)

187
Q

what can the five layers of the scalp spell?

A

Skin, Connective tissue, Aponeurosis, Loose connective tissue, Periosteum…SCALP

188
Q

what are the principal sources of blood to the scalp?

A

internal carotid and external carotid artery branches

189
Q

branches of nerves from what parts of the CNS innervate the scalp?

A

both cranial and spinal nerves

190
Q

what name is given to the trigeminal nerve?

A

the great sensory nerve of the face

191
Q

which divisions of the trigeminal nerve receive sensory information from the scalp?

A

all 3 divisions: ophthalmic nerve, maxillary nerve, mandibular nerve

192
Q

which ventral rami branches supply the scalp?

A

greater auricular and lesser occipital nerves

193
Q

which dorsal ramus nerve branch (name and cord level of origin) supplies the scalp?

A

greater occipital nerve-C2, C3 communicating ramus

194
Q

motor pathways to skeletal muscle derived from the branchial arches are given what name?

A

Branchial Efferent (BE) pathways

195
Q

what type of motor fibers to skeletal muscle are given off by the facial nerve?

A

branchial efferent (BE)

196
Q

what are the lymph nodes located along the base of the head collectively called?

A

collar chain nodes

197
Q

what is the third layer of the scalp associated with?

A

muscular component of the scalp

198
Q

what muscle(s) are specifically associated with the scalp?

A

frontalis and occipitalis bellies of the epicranius muscle

199
Q

what is unusual/unique about the muscles of the face?

A

they do not act as lever muscles; they do not attach to bone at both origin & insertion

200
Q

which muscles lack any attachment to bone?

A

orbicularis oris, procerus & risorius

201
Q

most of the seventh cranial nerve will exit the skull via what opening?

A

the stylomastoid foramen

202
Q

which divisions of the trigeminal nerve receive sensory information from the face?

A

all 3 divisions: ophthalmic nerve, maxillary nerve, mandibular nerve

203
Q

what opening(s) are located along the superior wall of the orbit?

A

optic canal

204
Q

what is the name given to the medial wall of the orbit?

A

lamina papyracea

205
Q

what features may be observed on the medial wall of the orbit?

A

lacrimal groove, fossa for the lacrimal sac, anterior ethmoid foramen & posterior ethmoid foramen

206
Q

what opening(s) are located along the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

superior orbital fissure

207
Q

what are the layers of the eyelid?

A

skin, orbicularis oculi muscle, tarsal plate/tarsus & palpebral conjuctiva

208
Q

what are the names given to the modified sebaceous gland in the tarsus of the eyelid?

A

tarsal or Meibomian gland

209
Q

what is the function of the Meibomian gland?

A

produces a think, hydrophobic substance that prevents tears from overflowing onto the cheeks along the margin of the eyelid

210
Q

what are the names given to the modified sebaceous glands of the palpebra?

A

tarsal gland or Meibomian gland and ciliary gland

211
Q

what is the name given to the angle formed b/w the superior and inferior eyelids at their medial and lateral margins?

A

canthus

212
Q

what is the name given to the elevation at the medial canthus?

A

lacrimal caruncle

213
Q

what is the crescent-shaped appearance of the conjunctiva at the medial canthus called?

A

plica semilunaris conjuctiva

214
Q

what is the name given to the opening at the lacrima papilla?

A

lacrimal punctum

215
Q

the lacrimal punctum is continuous with what structure?

A

lacrimal canaliculus

216
Q

what is the drainage pattern of tears?

A

lacrimal punctum, lacrimal canaliculus, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal duct & inferior nasal meatus

217
Q

Visceral Efferent (VE) pathways innervate what structures?

A

smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glandular tissues

218
Q

what specific pathways are identified with Visceral Efferent (VE) innervation?

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic motor pathways

219
Q

which cranial nerves are involved in the Visceral Efferent (VE) parasympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A

facial and trigeminal (maxillary & ophthalmic divisions/branches)

220
Q

visceral efferent fibers conveyed in the seventh cranial nerve originate from which nucleus?

A

superior salivatory nucleus

221
Q

preganglionic visceral efferent fibers of cranial nerve VII will exit the pons in what nerve?

A

nervus intermedius, nerve of Wrisberg, sensory root of facial nerve

222
Q

what are the names of the ganglion of synapse in the efferent pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A

ptergyopalatine ganglion, sphenopalatine ganglion, Meckel’s ganglion

223
Q

parasympathetic stimulation of blood vessels in the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A

vasodilatation of blood vessels, increased availability of water to secretory units, thinner or more watery product in lumen

224
Q

the sympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland will involve what neural components?

A

spinal nerves and a neurovascular plexus around blood vessels

225
Q

what is the origin for the sympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A

lateral horn/intermediolateral cell column T1, T2

226
Q

what is the target of the preganglionic sympathetic visceral efferent (VE) fiber in the pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A

the VE fiber ascends to the superior cervical ganglion to synapse

227
Q

what is the pathway for the postganglionic sympathetic visceral efferent (VE) fiber to the lacrimal gland?

A

it joins the internal carotid artery neurovascular plexus and continues along the ophthalmic artery to the lacrimal gland where it synapses

228
Q

sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A

vasoconstriction of blood vessels, limited availability of water to secretory units, more viscous or thicker product formed in glandular lumen

229
Q

what are the names of the layers of the eyeball?

A

fibrous tunic, uveal tract & retina

230
Q

what are the parts of the fibrous tunic of the eyeball?

A

cornea and sclera

231
Q

what are the parts of the uveal tract of the eyeball?

A

iris, ciliary body, choroid & pupil

232
Q

what muscles are present in the iris?

A

sphincter pupillae and dilator pupillae

233
Q

what is the innervation of the sphincter pupillae?

A

oculomotor nerve, parasympathetic pathway

234
Q

what is the innervation of the ciliaris muscle?

A

oculomotor nerve, parasympathetic pathway

235
Q

what are the receptor neurons of the second cranial nerve?

A

rod and cone photoreceptor cells

236
Q

what is the function of the rod cell?

A

provide vision in dim light conditions

237
Q

what is the function of the cone cell?

A

provide vision in bright light conditions and mediate color vision

238
Q

what is the most numerous photoreceptor cell?

A

rod cell

239
Q

what forms the optic nerve?

A

axons of ganglion cells

240
Q

what is the location of the anterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

b/w the cornea and iris

241
Q

what is the location of the posterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

b/w the iris and lens

242
Q

what is contained in the anterior chamber of the eyeball?

A

aqueous humor

243
Q

what is the name given to the chamber behind the lens?

A

vitreous chamber

244
Q

what is the location of the vitreous chamber?

A

behind the lens, in front of the retina

245
Q

what fills the vitreous chamber?

A

vitreous body

246
Q

what is the common characteristic regarding the insertion of both oblique extraocular muscles?

A

both insert onto sclera on the lateral margin of the eyeball behind the coronal equator

247
Q

what is the common characteristic concerning the insertion of the superior and inferior rectus extraocular muscles?

A

they insert onto the sclera of the eyeball in front of the coronal equator and are displaced slightly medially

248
Q

what is the embryonic origin of the extraocular muscles or extrinsic muscles of the eyeball?

A

the skeletal muscle is derived from somites hence somatic efferent (SE)

249
Q

which nerves will innervate specific extrinsic/extraocular muscles?

A

NAME?

250
Q

what are the two unique features of the fourth cranial nerve?

A

it is the only cranial with an apparent origin from the dorsal surface of the brain; it is the only cranial efferent nerve to decussate within the midbrain from its nucleus

251
Q

intrinsic muscles of the eyeball are innervated by which visceral efferent (VE) pathways?

A

ciliaris and sphincter pupillae are innervated by parasympathetics; dilator pupillae is innervated by sympathetics

252
Q

which branch of the internal carotid artery supplies the orbit?

A

ophthalmic artery

253
Q

what is unique about the vascular supply of the retina?

A

a single vessel supplies it

254
Q

what vessel supplies the inner tunic of the eyeball?

A

central artery of the retina

255
Q

what is the rounded outer rim of the auricle called?

A

the helix

256
Q

the depression under the rim of the helix of the external ear is called the…

A

scaphoid fossa

257
Q

what is formed b/w the crura of the antihelix of the external ear?

A

triangular fossa

258
Q

what feature is b/w the inferior crus of the antihelix and the helix of the auricle?

A

cymba concha

259
Q

what is the name given to the “goat’s beard” of the auricle?

A

tragus

260
Q

what is the name of the palpable posterior projection of the eminentia concha of the auricle?

A

ponticulus

261
Q

which cranial nerve will innervate the muscles of the auricle?

A

the facial nerve

262
Q

which branches of the external carotid artery supply the auricle?

A

occipital, posterior auricular, superficial temporal…OPS

263
Q

skin lining the external acoustic meatus contains what modified sebaceous glands?

A

ceruminous glands

264
Q

vascularization of the external acoustic meatus is derived from which branches of the external carotid artery?

A

posterior auricular artery, internal maxillary artery, superficial temporal artery…PIS

265
Q

sensory innervation from the external acoustic meatus is carried in which cranial nerves?

A

trigeminal & vagus nerves

266
Q

what is the superior boundary of the parotid region?

A

zygomatic arch and temporomandibular joint

267
Q

what vein is formed within the parotid gland?

A

the retromandibular vein

268
Q

what type of motor fibers to skeletal muscle are given off by the facial nerve?

A

branchial efferent (BE)

269
Q

within the parotid gland what does the facial nerve form?

A

the facial nerve plexus

270
Q

what branch of the facial nerve penetrates the parotid gland, but is not given off within it?

A

the chorda tympani nerve

271
Q

what cranial nerves are involved in the parasympathetic pathway to the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands?

A

branches of the facial nerve and the mandibular division of the trigeminal

272
Q

which branch of the seventh cranial nerve will convey preganglionic parasympathetic Visceral Efferent (VE) fibers from the temporal bone in the pathway to the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands?

A

chorda tympani nerve

273
Q

the chorda tympani nerve will join which nerve?

A

the lingual nerve of the mandibular division of the trigeminal

274
Q

what cranial nerves will be utilized in parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland?

A

the glossopharyngeal and trigeminal nerve

275
Q

how will sympathetics innervate the parotid salivary gland?

A

by way of a neurovascular plexus around the external carotid artery

276
Q

what forms the floor of the temporal region?

A

pterion (sphenoid, parietal, temporal, frontal bones)

277
Q

the temporalis muscle is innervated by which specific branch(es) of the trigeminal nerve?

A

anterior & posterior deep temporal nerves (mandibular division)

278
Q

which of the cranial nuclei of termination contain primary afferent neurons?

A

mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve

279
Q

what are the contents of the infratemporal region?

A

medial & lateral pterygoid muscles, internal maxillary artery & branches, pterygoid venous plexus, internal maxillary vein, branches of the trigeminal & facial nerves & the otic ganglion

280
Q

identify the muscles of mastication

A

temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid

281
Q

which parasympathetic ganglion is located in the infratemporal region?

A

the otic ganglion

282
Q

the otic ganglion is an example of what type of ganglion?

A

parasympathetic motor ganglion

283
Q

the otic ganglion is part of the neural pathway to what target organ?

A

the parotid gland

284
Q

which cranial nerve contains the nucleus of origin for the parasympathetic pathway to the parotid gland?

A

the glossopharyngeal nerve

285
Q

what are the joint classifications of the temporomandibular joint?

A

complex joint, synovial (diarthrosis) condylar, synovial (diarthrosis) bicondylar, synovial (diarthrosis) arthrodial and synovial (diarthrosis) ginglymus

286
Q

what are the attachment sites of the stylomandibular ligament?

A

styloid process of the temporal bone to the angle of the mandible

287
Q

what are the attachment sites of the sphenomandibular ligament?

A

the spine of the sphenoid bone to the lingual of the mandible

288
Q

what does the sphenomandibular ligament represent?

A

a remnant of Meckel’s cartilage of the first branchial arch

289
Q

what muscles act to depress the mandible or open the mouth?

A

lateral pterygoid along with the suprahyoid and infrahyoid muscles

290
Q

what muscles act to retract the mandible or pull the chin back?

A

temporalis

291
Q

which ganglion is the largest parasympathetic ganglion of the head?

A

the sphenopalatine, pterygopalatine or Meckel’s ganglion

292
Q

which ganglion is located within the pterygopalatine region?

A

the sphenopalatine, pterygopalatine or Meckel’s ganglion

Spinal Final (2 decks)

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