Sterile Processing Flashcards
1
Q
The sterile processing department may be known by many names such as?
A
Sterile department
Central Service (CS)
Central Service Supply (CSS)
Surgical supply and processing
2
Q
The patient is our highest concern. We ensure that every instrument that’s decontaminated, assembled, packaged, sterilized, is done?
A
Strictly according to basic practices and principles
3
Q
What is strictly prohibited in the sterile processing department?
A
Shortcuts
4
Q
As a sterile processing technician, you will be exposed to
A
Hazardous chemicals
Thermal equipment
Microorganisms
Bloodborne pathogens
5
Q
Ensuring that you follow proper procedures and protocols is necessary to prevent
A
safety issues
6
Q
the sterile processing department is responsible for
A
- Quality patient care
- providing services in medical facilities
- Supplies, equipment, instruments, and other products to all departments in need.
*
7
Q
The workflow in the sterile processing department is designed to prevent
A
cross-contamination
8
Q
Typically, sterile processing departments have three main areas:
A
Decontamination
Preparation, packaging, and sterilization
Sterile storage
9
Q
A
Soiled area
Clean area
10
Q
Proper flow within the sterile processing department is critical to providing
A
safe patient care
11
Q
The systematic flow (Decontamination, Assembly/Preparation, and Sterile Storage) can reduce the risk of , or , from occurring
A
nosocomial
healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)
12
Q
These are infections that occur after a patient has been admitted into a hospital, typically developing after a surgical or medical procedure, such as a catheter insertion.
A
nosocomial or healthcare-associated infections
13
Q
If a patient gets an infection while in the hospital, Medicaid or Medicare will pay the hospital for treating it. So, the hospital doesnt have to cover the cost themselves. True or False
A
False, they wont pay the hospital and the hospital has to pay
14
Q
Infection is spread through three routes:
A
Airborne transmission
Direct physical contact transmission
Droplet transmission
15
Q
Airborne illness spreads from person to person through the air. Influenza and colds are very common during the winter months, and exposure is almost certain.
A
Airborne transmission
16
Q
Illnesses that you can get from Airborne transmission
A
Measles
Chicken Pox
Common Cold
Tuberculosis
17
Q
Illnesses that you can get from Direct Physical Contact
A
Escherichia coli (E. coli)
Conjunctivitis (pink eye)
18
Q
Some diseases are caused by microorganisms that are spread by person-to-person contact or indirect contact with contaminated objects.
A
Direct Physical Contact Transmission
19
Q
Illnesses that you can get from droplet transmission
A
Influenza
Strep Throat
20
Q
Droplets are within the infected person’s sputum (saliva and mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract). If the person sneezes or coughs, contaminated droplets are released into the air and can then be inhaled by another person.
A
Droplet transmission
21
Q
The most serious airborne pathogen found in the healthcare setting is , which usually affects the lungs.
A
Tuberculosis (TB)
22
Q
What type of bacteria is dispersed into the air when an infected person coughs, sneezes, laughs, or sings.
A
Tuberculosis (TB)
23
Q
Close contact with a person who has untreated or undiagnosed TB increases the risk that a healthy person might be
A
infected
24
Q
All healthcare workers with patient contact are required to receive blank at a minimum annually.
A
TB Skin Test
25
TB SKin Test confirms if the healthcare worker has potentially been
exposed or obtained the infectious diseaase
26
Fecal matter can contain the bacteria
E. Coli
27
Only proper handwashing after exposure to E. Coli can prevent
the spread from person to person
28
practicing what is critical for patient care?
Morals and Ethics
29
Showing good morals means the ability to practice
good behavior
30
Workplace bullying through the use of physical force, intimidation, or emotional bullying.
is this good or bad behavior in the sterile processing department
Bad Behavior
31
Treating your peers with dignity and respect while communicating in a manner to boost productivity and efficiency within the workplace.
Is this good or bad behavior in the sterile processing department?
Good behavior
32
apply to the individual’s internal beliefs of what’s right or wrong
Morals
33
guiding principles of what’s universally known to be right or wrong behavior
Ethics
34
Sterile processing technicians can ensure they’re practicing good morals and professional ethics in several ways, including include:
Keeping patient information confidential
Ensuring that work is completed efficiently and accurately
Demonstrating accountability for wrongdoings by not blaming others for one’s mistakes
Complying with policies, standards, and regulations
Behaving in a dignified, responsible, considerate, honest, and professional way
35
All employees should behave in a courteous and ethical manner toward one another, regardless of any cultural differences. True or False
True
36
Some facilities does not require mandatory professional development on cultural compliance.
False, they do require mandatory professional development on culture compliance.
37
It’s unethical to discuss patient information with anyone, even fellow employees, unless it’s specific to the patient’s care. True or False
True
38
Not following proper maintenance of patients confidentially guidelines can result in termination, legal fines, and/or imprisonment. True or false
True
39
It’s unethical to steal hospital items or damage the facility’s property. If you see anyone stealing, it should be reported immediately to a supervisor. True or False
True
40
Never clock anyone in or out. You’re only responsible for clocking yourself in. Clocking your coworkers in and out is considered unethical behavior. This is prohibited within the workplace and can lead to termination of both employees involved. True or False
True
41
Not wearing the correct personal protection equipment when appropriate
Accepting favors from outside vendors in exchange for the purchase of their products
Distributing patient information for the purpose of selling it
These are examples of c
Unethical practices
42
set of rules enforceable for a group, mandated by law.
Regulations
43
Organizations that issue regulations that the sterile processing department must follow include:
Environmental Protection Agency
HIPAA
US Food and Drug Administration
44
determined by opinion, research, or a collection of thoughts based on a hierarchy group of personnel to establish certain protocols and procedures within an industry.
Standards
45
Standards are not mandated by
The law
46
An example of a professional organization that issues national standards that apply to sterile processing is the
Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation (AAMI)
47
A federal agency that issues standards for sterile processing departments to follow is the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
48
procedures that have been determined to be the best in ensuring the highest quality of patient care and safety based on scientific data
Recommended practices
49
Are recommended practices mandated by the law?
No
50
Professional organizations that establish recommended best practices include the
Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation (AAMI)
Association of periOperative Registered Nurses (AORN)
Healthcare Sterile Processing Association (HSPA)
Society of Gastroenterology Nurses and Associates (SGNA)
51
responsible for establishing and issuing regulations that protect the environment.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
52
The EPA is responsible for regulating the use of environmental disinfectants such as , chemicals used to sterilize instrumentation, and sporicides.
Ethylene oxide (EO)
53
Before any of these products can be sold or marketed, they first must be approved by the
EPA
54
The EPA’s regulations fall under the
Clean Air Act
55
One of the primary purposes of the Clean Air Act is to establish
clean air on a national level by controlling the amount of pollutants released into the air.
56
enforces rules to ensure the safe use of medications and medical devices
The food and drug administration (FDA)
57
Injuries or deaths that occur through the use of defective medical devices are
Tracked and documented
58
an FDA program that enforces mandatory reporting of defective medical devices and drugs.
MedWatch
59
Medical devices are initially reviewed by the sterile processing department before they’re used on
Patients
60
Any medical device used on patients must be accompanied by an , which is kept stored in the sterile processing department
Instructions for Use (IFU) document
61
IFUs provide blank on how to properly clean, decontaminate, and sterilize medical devices.
Specific instructions
62
Workplace safety is a key goal of the
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
63
enforces how workplace hazards and bloodborne pathogens are managed in the workplace.
OSHA
64
Exposure limits to ethylene oxide are also regulated by blank. Overexposure to this chemical can result in cancer.
OSHA
65
Other substances and hazards regulated by OSHA include
Glutaraldehyde
Ozone
Sharps such as blades, needles, and sutures
Alcohols
Hydrogen peroxide
66
Sterile processing technicians must also be knowledgeable of blank and for each chemical to which they're exposed
Fire and reactivity hazards
67
All materials within the sterile processing department must be listed on a document that describes the ingredients of the chemical and any potential risks associated with the chemical. This information is provided on what’s known as a
Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
68
Fire and reactivity risks, in addition to appropriate ways to dispose of and clean up the chemicals, are also located on the
SDS
69
An important OSHA mandate is that blank be placed in all healthcare facilities where exposure to a hazardous material is possible.
Eyewash stations
70
It’s important to know where the are located in your department.
Eyewash stations
71
If you’re exposed, you should use the blank immediately to limit your risk of contracting disease or overexposure to dangerous chemicals.
Eyewash station
72
provides guidelines on proper handwashing techniques and other recommended practices for infection control.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
73
The CDC has classified medical devices as critical, semi-critical, or noncritical according to
Spaulding principles
74
Critical items
Semicritical items
Noncritical items
75
a nonprofit organization that accredits more than 20,000 healthcare organizations in the United States. It’s responsible for evaluating these organizations to confirm and reinforce that the highest standards of care are being provided by providers and hospital employees in all areas.
Joint Commission
76
What are the primary goals of the Joint Commission?
To reduce medical errors, address health and safety concerns, limit wrong-site surgeries, and minimize hospital-acquired infections
77
who performs anticipated and unannounced site inspections to ensure that organizations are following their standards?
The joint commission
78
You may be asked by an inspector to state departmental policies on the , , , and blank during an evaluation.
cleaning, decontaminating, disinfecting, and sterilization process
79
If a hospital fails to demonstrate all applicable standards per Joint Commission protocols and procedures, it runs the risk of not obtaining? What can it also face?
initial accreditation or accreditation renewal
It can also face revocation of accreditation
80
Participating in continuing education to become more familiar with the Joint Commission’s standards and procedures can prevent a
failed site visit
81
What are the two critical elements to ensure that patients’ health data and/or medical records remain secure?
Privacy and Security
82
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What act sets minimum federal standards for both the provacy and security of protected health information (PHI)?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
83
What act modified some parts of HIPAA and added the requirement that patients receive a notification if their privacy is breached?
Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act
84
PHI includes
Health info sent electronically
Health info stored electronically
Health info sent or stored in other ways, like paper records
85
Name
Street address and zip code
Date of birth
Age
Telephone number (home, work, mobile)
Email address (if provided or requested)
Health plan number, including Medicare or Medicaid ID number
Diagnosis or diagnosis code(s)
Complete History and Physical (H&P)
Social Security number
These are common types of what maintained by healthcare facilities
Protected Health Information (PHI)
86
Privacy is a patient’s legal right. This means that under no circumstances should the sharing and distribution of a patient’s PHI occur. It doesn’t matter whether it’s paper or electronic data, or even verbal communications; sharing of PHI is strictly prohibited by law. The security of PHI has to do with the safeguards a healthcare facility uses to keep patient information confidential. True or False
True
87
Shredding paper waste, using privacy filters on computer screens visible to customers, limiting the number of employees who have full access to patient records, encrypting computer files that contain PHI, and using employee numbers and passwords for login to track viweing of patient records and PHI is an example of?
Safeguards
88
an opportunity for individuals to make complaints concerning the department’s policies and procedures or its compliance with the policies and procedures
Complaint process
89
employees who fail to comply with the privacy policies and procedures or the requirements of the HIPAA rules.
Sanctions Process
90
it’s a HIPAA violation to discuss patient status or information in hallways, elevators, or cafeterias. It’s also a HIPAA violation to view medical records of friends or family members. True or False
True
91
Who assist with maintaining HIPAA regulations
Privacy Officers
92
* Work with the owner/manager to assess the facility’s current operations and identify areas that need to be addressed to comply with HIPAA
* Act upon patient requests for access to and photocopies of medical records
* Answer patient questions about HIPAA
* Respond in a timely fashion to patient complaints
* Establish an efficient filing systems for all forms and documents
* Assist other staff members with questions for all forms and documents
* Monitor any changes in the HIPAA requirements and make necessary changes accordingly
These are responsibilties of a?
Privacy Officer
93
Patients may request copies of their PHI maintained by the facility. the healthcare facility has the option to accept or deny these requests. True or False
True
94
Patients have the right to request amendments to the PHI contained in the records if they believe that the PHI is incorrect or inaccurate. Facility can accept or deny the request. True or False
True
95
patients have a right to place limitations on the facility’s disclosure of their PHI and request that the office communicates with them in a confidential manner. True or False
True
96
When a state law doesn’t need a parent or guardian's permission for a minor to get certain treatments (like HIV testing or mental health services), the minor has control over the related information. True or False
true
97
When a court or another law allows someone other than the parent to decide on treatment for a minor, that person or entity then has control over the information linked to that treatment.
True
98
When a parent or personal representative agrees to a confidential relationship between a healthcare provider and a minor, the parent or personal representative doesn’t have access to information associated with that agreement, unless the minor permits it. True or False
True
