Study Guide 2 Flashcards
(209 cards)
1
Q
The water supply in a typical residential swimming pool:
A
May contain adequate water supply for a fir in a single family dwelling
2
Q
Which of the following should be the pumper with the largest pumping capacity?
A
Water supply pumper
3
Q
Lift can be described as the difference in elevation between the surface of the static water supply and the:
A
Center of the pump intake
4
Q
Which of the following can be done if the amount of flow through a relay operation needs to be increased?
A
Increase the diameter of the supply hose or the number of hose lines
5
Q
Which of the following is responsible for supplying attack lines and appliance required for fire suppression?
A
Fire attack pumper
6
Q
In most circumstances, maximum life is approximately:
A
25 feet (7.5m)
7
Q
The driver/operator of the attack pumper should not attempt to correct minor fluctuations as long as the intake pressure:
A
Does not drop below 20 psi (140 kPa)
8
Q
The driver/operator must consider that when a standpipe or hose line is charged, there:
A
Is no flow through the system or hose layout until the nozzle is opened
9
Q
Which of the following best describes the function of bleeder valves?
A
Allow air to bleed off as incoming supply hose is charged
10
Q
What will be the total pressure loss due to friction in 600 feet of 4-inch hose flowing at 800 GPM?
A
76.8 psi
11
Q
Which of the following allow later arriving pumpers to tie into the relay and boost pressure and volume after it has already started flowing, without interrupting the water supply?
A
In-line relay valves
12
Q
Which of the following is MOST likely to be the cause if the driver/operator receives a message from an attack team that the volume of water at the nozzle has suddenly decreased without a corresponding change at the flow meter?
A
A hose line may have burst
13
Q
Evaluate the adequacy of a small stream that is 12 feet wide with an average depth of 5 feet flowing approximately 15 feet per minute
A
Q = 6750
14
Q
What is the maximum height to which water will be lifted when the intake gauge reads 17 inches of mercury?
A
L = 19.21
15
Q
Using the GPM flowing method, what will be the total pressure loss due to friction in 350 feet of 2 1/2 inch hose flowing 200 GPM?
A
35 psi
16
Q
Low level strainers are most commonly used to draft from:
A
Portable water tanks
17
Q
When large diameter hose (LDH) is used in relay operations:
A
The LDH often requires only one supply line to meet fire ground requirements
18
Q
Evaluate the adequacy of a small stream that is 15 feet wide with an average depth of 3 feet flowing approximately 20 feet per minute
A
Q = 6750
19
Q
What do some jurisdictions do to help avoid problems with silt and debris?
A
Install dry hydrants at favorable drafting locations
20
Q
When providing flow required to reach the capacity of the pumping apparatus, floating strainers may be used for water as shallow as:
A
1 foot (300 mm)
21
Q
When shutting down the relay, beginning with the attack pumper and coordinating with other pumpers in the relay, each driver/operator should:
A
Slowly decrease the throttle and open the dump line valve
22
Q
Which of the following is MOST likely to require specially threaded adapters or other tools to operate the system?
A
Agricultural irrigation systems
23
Q
Which of the following typically contains many millions of gallons (liters) of water and may be found on large commercial or industrial properties?
A
Ground reservoirs
24
Q
Using the GPM flowing method, determine the total pressure loss due to friction in a 2 1/2 inch hose line 200 feet long and flowing 300 GPM
A
40 psi
25
All firefighters working in close proximity to bodies of water must wear personal flotation devices and use safety lines:
Regardless of the assumed depth
26
Which of the following directly affects the reach of the fog stream?
Volume of water flowing
27
Nozzle reaction occurs as water is discharged from a nozzle at a given pressure and:
A counterforce pushes back against firefighters operating the hose line
28
The differences between static pressure and normal operating pressure is:
The friction caused by water flowing through the pipes, valves and fitting
29
A solid stream nozzle produces a fire stream that has a:
Tight stream and little spray or shower effect
30
When a pumper is being supplied by another pumper, net pump discharge pressure is the difference between pump discharge pressure and:
Incoming pressure from supply source
31
For fire protection purposes, ordinary fresh water is considered to weight:
8.3 lb/gal
32
Why does the third principle of friction loss demonstrate the advantages of larger size hose?
For the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the fifth power of diameter of hose
33
Which apparatus has the ability to supply its own master streams and may function with t he capabilities of an engine or a ladder company?
Aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps
34
Which apparatus would be MOST beneficial in assisting municipal fire departments with large scale flammable liquid incidents?
Aircraft rescue and fire apparatus
35
Which type of light ranges from 300 to 1,000 watts and is advantageous where illumination is needed away from the apparatus?
Portable lights
36
The main purpose of fire department pumpers is to:
Provide adequate water pressure for effective fire streams
37
Which equipment is powered by small gasoline or diesel engines, generally has 110 and/or 220 volt capacity, and is available with power capacities up to 5,000 watts?
Portable generator
38
Which equipment is powered by gasoline, diesel, power-take off, or hydraulic systems?
Vehicle-mounted generator
39
According to NFPA 1901, mobile water supply apparatus must be equipped with a tank capacity of at least:
1,000 gallons (4,000 L)
40
Compared to full-size pumpers, initial attack fire apparatus have:
Smaller chassis
41
Which equipment converts a vehicles 12- or 24-volt DC current 110- or 220-volt AC current?
Inverter
42
Which apparatus is MOST likely to have a pump and roll system that allows apparatus to be driven while discharging water?
Wildland fire apparatus
43
Which equipment is MOST likely to be used when a small amount of power is needed near the vehicle?
Inverter
44
Which type of apparatus is often divided into three general categories: major fire fighting vehicles, rapid intervention vehicles and combined agent vehicles?
Aircraft rescue and fire apparatus
45
Which statement about fire department pumpers and foam capabilities is MOST accurate?
Most fire department pumpers are generally capable of discharging foam
46
Which equipment is used to supply power to several connections from one supply source?
Junction boxes
47
Which NFPA standard specifies minimum portable equipment that must be carried on all pumpers?
NFPA 1901
48
Which apparatus is often designed with the pump panel and one or more pre connected hotlines housed in a compartment?
Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pump
49
According to NFPA 1901, fire department pumpers should have a minimum pump capacity of:
750 gpm (3,000 L/min)
50
Which of the following is a safety and efficiency requirement that should be met by mobile water supply?
Suspension and steering matched to terrain requirements
51
What is the function of mobile water supply apparatus?
Transport water to areas where water system is nonexistent or inadequate
52
What term is often used to define pumping apparatus smaller than a full-size pumper?
Mini-pumper
53
What apparatus are known as brush trucks, brush breakers, or booster apparatus?
Wildland fire apparatus
54
Which equipment is useful when remote power is needed away from the apparatus?
Portable generator
55
According to NFPA 1901, fire department pumpers should have a water tank capacity of at least
300 gallons (1,200 liters)
56
An apparatus that is equipment with a fire pump, water tank, and hose, in addition to an aerial device and ground ladders, is best referred to as as:
Quint
57
Which type of light provides general lighting for the scene and is often mounted so that it may be raised, lowered, or turned to provide the best possible lightening?
Fixed lights
58
In general, steering wheel play should be more than approximately:
10 degrees in either direction
59
Why should a driver/operator use an inspection checklist?
Ensures the driver/operator conducts a uniform and complete inspection
60
When cleaning the interior of an apparatus using cleaning agents:
Ventilate the cab or crew riding area
61
Fire pumps are tested at regularly scheduled intervals and compare actual performance to:
Specific standards
62
Which of the following is an adverse effect to overcleaning fire apparatus?
May remove lubrication from the chassis, engaging, pump, and underbody
63
Which of the following should be specified in a systematic maintenance program?
Maintenance procedures, when they are performed, and who is responsible
64
Which of the following statements about the driver/operator and maintenance policies
The driver/operator is often able to correct minor deficiencies
65
How often should apparatus brakes be thoroughly tested?
Annually
66
Which of the following can cause a corrosive effect on steel body components?
Road salt used during inclement weather
67
Which of the following statements about inspections to detect deficiencies or failure of the fire pump or other fire suppression equipment is MOST accurate?
Some items should be checked daily, but other checks may be performed weekly
68
When checking vehicle batteries, driver/operators should check that cable connections are tight and protected with:
A film of grease, petroleum jelly, or battery terminal protection product
69
Which of the following statements about tire types and condition is MOST accurate?
All tires should be the same size and weight ratings according to appropriate manufacturer specifications
70
Whenever an apparatus is parked:
Whenever an apparatus is parked, chock its wheels
71
When jump-starting a vehicle, the vehicle being used as the power source must have the same voltage electrical system as the apparatus being jump started in order to:
Prevent damage from occurring to either system
72
What should a driver/operator do when a piece of equipment onboard is found broken, defective, or in need of any type of repair?
Follow the established policy of the AHJ for documenting, reporting, and following up on status of repair
73
Which National Fire Protection association standard specifies methods for brake tests?
1911
74
Before using any waxes or polishes on the fire apparatus:
Reference the manufacturer’s manual
75
When conducting a walk around inspection, who should the driver/operator talk to in order to get the MOST accurate impression of how the vehicle last operated?
Last person to drive apparatus
76
Which of the following statements about checking fluid levels is MOST accurate?
Never rely solely on warning lights or gauges; all fluid levels should be inspected
77
Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below:
80 psi (560 kPa)
78
Which of the following can be used to clean automotive glass?
Commercial glass cleaner in conjunction with a clean cloth rag
79
What should be done during the first six months after an apparatus is received?
Wash frequently using cold water
80
According to NFPA 1911, tires must be replaced every:
Seven years
81
Which of the following statements about vehicle batteries is MOST accurate?
Most modern truck batteries are maintenance free
82
The component in a load management system that turns on various lights at specified intervals so the startup electrical load for all devices does not occur at the same time is called the:
Load sequencer
83
In most jurisdictions, when civilian drivers encounter emergency vehicles responding with warning lights activated an audible devices sounding, they must:
Pull up to the right, stomp, clear the intersection, and remain motionless
84
When should the mirrors be adjusted on an apparatus?
Any time driving responsibilities change from one individual to another
85
Which of the following is the primary reason for daily pretrip inspections?
Minimize mechanical failure
86
Which of the following statements about excessive speed and braking is MOST accurate?
Excessive speed can cause difficulties when braking
87
When more then one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, they should travel
At least 300 to 500 feet (90 to 150 m) apart
88
Which of the following actions would MOST likely be considered reckless when driving an apparatus?
Failing to yield to other responding emergency vehicles
89
Which of the following statements about training for tiller operations is MOST correct?
A detachable seat key be placed next to the tiller operator’s position
90
Which of the following would MOST likely be exempt when emergency vehicles have their audible and visual warning lights on?
Speed limits
91
Driver/operators are subject to any statute, rule, regulations, or ordinances that governs any other vehicle operator:
Unless specifically exempt
92
Which of the following is a reason computer skills are important for a driver/operator?
To access and operate online mapping software and dispatch instructions
93
Which ability or skill is necessary to understand maps, dispatch instructions, and preincident plans?
Reading skills
94
Which of the following must all riders be doing, in addition to being seated within the cab or body, before the apparatus is put into motion?
Wearing seat belts
95
Which of the following is a guideline for apparatus rider safety?
Never allow firefighters to ride on the tailboard, front bumper, or running boards of any moving apparatus
96
Which of the following statements about the driver/operator and organization in civil or criminal cases is MOST accurate?
Both the driver/operator and organization ca be held responsible
97
In order for apparatus to come to a complete stop on snow and ice, it may take:
3 to 15 times greater distance than it does on dry pavement
98
What agency in the United States establishes basic requirements a for licensing a driver?
Federal department of Transportation (DOT)
99
When preparing to start the apparatus, whether for emergency response. Or a routine trip, the driver/operator must first known the destination and
Route to travel
100
When responding to emergencies, apparatus should:
Turn on headlights as part of the emergency response
101
On an aerial apparatus, which of the following refers to the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at wheelbase midpoint?
Breakover angle
102
Weight carried on most apparatus can contribute to:
Skidding or possible rollover due to lateral weight transfer
103
Which of the following is a guideline for loading hose while driving an apparatus?
Drive apparatus only in a forward direction
104
Apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF) willl have
Very clean exhaust emissions an no black smoke
105
At intersections with a red light, apparatus should:
Be brought to a complete stop before proceeding
106
In most fire departments, it is standard operating procedures (SOP) for firefighters to don protective gear:
Before getting into apparatus
107
Which of the following is the most common place for accidents to occur?
Intersections
108
What staging protocol is MOST likely to be enacted when a large number of units are responding to an incident?
Level II staging
109
Which site would be given preference for a drafting location?
A location accessible from a hard surface
110
What staging protocol is MOST likely to be applied to initial response of more than on fire department unit?
Level I staging
111
Driver/operators should not attempt to cross streams with a vehicle unless:
It has been specifically designed to operate in such conditions
112
When should fire departments identify suitable drafting sites in their response district?
During pre-incident planning
113
When positioning to support an aerial apparatus, pumpers providing water for elevated stream operations should position:
As closely to the aerial apparatus as possible
114
When the apparatus is operated in a stationary position during a wildland fire attack, it should be placed in an area that:
Affords maximum protection from heat and flames
115
How is the pumper position to supply a fire department connection best determined?
Through pre-incident planning
116
When might tandem pumping operations be needed?
When pressures higher than a single engine is capable of supplying are required
117
In which zone are driver/operators MOST likely to stage their apparatus?
Cold zone
118
In the “inside/outside” method, when would an attack pumper be positioned on the side of the street closest to the building and the aerial apparatus be placed outboard of the pumper?
If the building is less than five floors tall
119
What may be needed when driving the vehicle in conditions of reduced visibility during a wildland fire attack?
Spotter walking ahead of the apparatus
120
What location is generally considered the safest position should a structural collapse occur?
Corners of the structure
121
When positioning during wildland fire attack, the vehicle should be positioned facing the direction of an exit path with the:
Front wheels straight
122
Which of the following statements about positioning for wildland fire attack is MOST accurate?
Apparatus are seldom positioned in same location for the duration of an incident
123
Which of the following is a guideline for positioning for structure protection during a wildland fire?
Clear away any nearby brush that may serve as fuel
124
When responding to a hazardous materials incident, the driver/operator should:
Not drive the apparatus directly to the scene until the material involved can be identified
125
When laying supply hose to the fire scene during a roadway response, lay the hose;
To the side of the street
126
Which of the following statements about control zones is MOST accurate?
They may be expanded or contracted as needed
127
Vehicles should not be driven over bridges unless the:
Weight of the apparatus is known to be within the capacity of the structure
128
Which of the following BEST determines the most advantageous position for an attack pumper?
Size up
129
When the first apparatus arrives at an incident where no fire is evident, the driver/operator should:
Pull apparatus past the front of the building
130
which is the preferred type of hose for making hydrant connections?
large diameter intake hose
131
what zone is considered safe and dose not require personal protective equipment?
cold zone
132
once on the scene of a highway incident, the use of warning lights should be:
reduced as much as possible
133
When referring to pump wear rings and packing, why must very close tolerances be maintained between pump casing and the hub of the impeller?
any increase in opening lessens the effectiveness of the pump
134
Before being placed into service, the piping system and the fire pump itself must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of:
500 psi (3,500 kPa)
135
which of the following displays engine speed in revolution per minute?
tachometer
136
which is typically driven through a gear box and a clutch connected by a drive shaft to the front of the crankshaft?
Front-mount Pump
137
Most manufacturers recommend that the centrifugal fire pump be drained:
between fire calls
138
Which pump design has the disadvantage of the driver/operator being more directly exposed to oncoming traffic than in other pump-mounting positions?
Rear-mount pump
139
Why is the rotary vane pump more efficient at pumping air than the rotary gear pump?
Self-adjusting feature
140
Which type of pump is MOST vulnerable to damage from exposure or a vehicle collision?
Front-mount pump
141
Modern versions of quarter-turn handles lock by:
Rotating the handle in a clockwise direction
142
NFPA 1901 requires all component of piping system to be:
Made of corrosion resistant material
143
According to NFPA 1901, pumpers with a capacity greater than 500 gpm (2,000 L/min) should be able to flow:
At least 500 gpm (2,000 L/min)
144
Which type of auxiliary cooling device works when water supplied by the fire pump passes through a coil or tubing mounted inside the cooler?
Immersion type auxiliary cooler
145
Which BEST describes the function of a thermal relief valve in newer centrifugal pumps?
Opens to allow overheated water to circulate between the pump and main water tank or into the atmosphere
146
Which of the following is powered by gasoline or diesel engines independent of the vehicle-drive engine?
Auxiliary engine driven pump
147
In multistage centrifugal pumps, the impellers generally:
Are identical and have the same capacity
148
Any significant deviation from normal oil pressure reading is MOST likely to indicate:
An equipment malfunction
149
Which type of auxiliary cooling device is inserted into one of the hoses used in the engine cooling system so the engine coolant must travel through it as it circulates through the system?
Marine cooler
150
Which of the following are simple devices that make use of the vacuum already present in the intake manifold of any gasoline-driven engine?
Vacuum primers
151
Based on NFPA 1901, as a minimum, all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of 750 gpm (3,000 L/min) or greater must be equipped with at least:
Two 2 1/2 inch (65 mm) discharges
152
Which of the following is a reason pump and suction drains are used on pumper apparatus?
Remove all water from the system in climates where freezing may occur
153
The ability to initiate a successful drafting operation depends on creating:
A lower pressure within the pump and intake hose than exists in the atmosphere
154
Which of the following statements about positive displacement pumps is MOST accurate?
They serve a vital role on modern apparatus because of their ability to pump air and foam
155
Pressure control devices that are a part of a fire apparatus pumping system must restrict the pressure from exceeding:
30 psi (210 kPa) above the set level
156
Which of the following statements about a centrifugal pump is MOST accurate?
A centrifugal pump is unable to pump air and is not self priming
157
Which type of positive displacement pump is the simplest of all fire apparatus pumps, from the standpoint of design?
Rotary pump
158
When the pump is in operation, which of the following is a responsibility of the driver/operator?
Monitor all gauges associated with the engine as well as with operation of the fire pump
159
Which of the following statements about hydrant selection is most accurate?
The closest hydrants may not be the most prudent choice because of safety of fire fighting needs
160
Which of the following is the most common cause of an inability to prime?
An air lead that prevents primer from developing enough vacuum to successfully draft water
161
When a dry standpipe system is charged, water will be discharged:
At all points where caps are off and valve is open
162
Which is the MOST likely scenario if a supply line that was charged suddenly loses water?
The supply line has burst
163
If water is not flowing for an extended period of time during fire attack, why might a circulator, bypass, or booster cooling valve be opened on a pump?
To prevent the pump from overheating
164
In order for a pump to approach its rated capacity using a traditional strainer, there must be:
At least 24 inches (600 mm) of water over the strainer
165
Which of the following would be used when the driver/operator first reports to an incident location in order to size up the scene before laying a supply line?
Reverse lay
166
Which of the following BEST describes when it is recommended that wheels be chocked?
Every time the driver/operator exits the cab
167
During pumping operations, driver/operators should maintain a residual pressure on the master intake gauge:
Of at least 20 psi (140 kPa)
168
During drafting operations, what can occur when water is being discharged faster than it is coming into the pump?
Cavitation
169
If a sprinkler system is to be supplied at the fire department connection and no specific information is available, the general guidelines is to discharge:
150 psi (1,050 kPa) into the FDC
170
The process of making a fire pump operation begin:
After the apparatus is properly positioned and the parking brake is set
171
After transitioning to an external water supply, the driver/operator should:
Close the tank-to-pump valve
172
To create a effective fire stream during drafting operations, a lift of no greater than ____ is recommended
20 feet (6m)
173
Which is the MOST likely scenario if a supply line loses water but the supply line is intact?
The hydrant or water main has failed
174
Which is an indication that a pump is cavitating?
Lack of reaction on the pressure gauge with increases in the throttle
175
The water supply from an onboard water take is:
The sole source of supply for many incidents
176
When a pumper is discharging water, the intake gauge displays
Residual pressure
177
The automatic water supply fro a sprinkler system is designed to supply:
Only a fraction of total fire sprinklers at any given time
178
Which of the following statements about friction loss in standpipes is MOST accurate?
Generally, friction loss in a standpipe is small unless flow is very large
179
The two basic pressurized water supply sources are a fire hydrant and:
A supply hose from another pumper
180
What should a driver/operator do immediately upon indication that the water supply or pumping ability may be unattainable or interrupted?
Notify officer or incident commander
181
If discharge flow volume is increased too much when operating from a pressurized water source:
Intake pressure from the supply source may be reduced to a point that may damage the pump
182
When a pumper is connected to a hydrant and not discharging water, pressure shown on intake gauge is:
Static pressure
183
How is the gpm (L/min) data for a water tender MOST likely to be used during preplanning?
To determine how many tenders are required to provide a particular flow for a given target hazard
184
Which of the following maintains certain criteria for determining the proper specifications for water tender apparatus?
Each individual jurisdiction
185
Which of the following may be one of the most hazardous tastes for the driver/operator during water shuttle operations?
Driving the travel route
186
Any portable tank, regardless of type, should be set up on a surface that is an level as possible and have a capacity at least ____ larger than the water tank on the apparatus that will supply it.
500 gallons (2,000 L)
187
Although it is not always possible, why is it advantageous to have roadways closed too nonemergency vehicles during water shuttle operations?
To lessen traffic congestion and reduce the possibility of collision
188
Which of the following statements about selecting the fill site location is MOST accurate?
Driver/operators and fire officers should be familiar with the water supply capability in the response area prior to an incident
189
Which of the following may increase the options available for using static water supply to many incidents?
Portable pumps
190
Which dumping method is generally considered to be the simplest, quickest method to ensure a constant water supply for fire attack operations?
Portable water tank operations
191
Which of the following is an advantage provided by vacuum tenders?
A vacuum tender can self-fill from a static water source at a rate of up to 2,000 gpm (8,000 L/min)
192
In accordance with NFPA 1901, water tenders must be designed to be filled at a rate of at least:
1,000 gpm (4,000 L/min)
193
Successful water shuttle operations are BEST achieved by:
Using efficient filling and dumping operations
194
Which of the following must be true of anyone assigned to the position of water Supply Group Supervisor?
The person must have considerable experience in the pumper, water supply, and shuttle operations
195
At the fill site, how should the stopping point for the water tender driver/operator be denoted once the exact fill spot has been determined?
With a traffic cone or similar marker
196
The MOST efficient way to transfer water between portable tanks is through the use of
Jet siphon
197
NFPA 1901 requires that water be capable of being dumped from the:
Left, right, and rear of the apparatus
198
What should the Water Supply Group Supervisor do if water demand begins to outpace supply?
Summon additional tenders
199
The Insurance Service Office (ISO) formula uses _____ of a tender’s total tank capacity to account for water lost or undischarged and remaining in the tank after the dump valve is closed.
90 percent
200
What is the primary advantage of using a nurse tanker (tender) during dump site operations?
Capacity of its tank
201
The most common style of portable tank:
Folds and is mounted and removed from the apparatus, as with a ground ladder
202
Commonly, water tenders have at least ____ 2 1/2 inch (65mm) direct tank fill connection(s) or one LDH direct tank fill connection on the rear of the apparatus
Two
203
After the onboard water tank is full, what is the next step in the fill operations?
The fill site personnel should slowly close the valve(s) on the gate or manifold
204
Which of the following is the BEST reason all responding tenders should fill their tanks before returning to quarters at the conclusion of an incident?
It returned the apparatus to a “ready” status after an incident
205
During dump site operations, the ____must have an opening of sufficient size to allow free movement of water at the bottom of the tank and movement of air at the top during rapid filling or unloading
Tank baffles
206
Which of the following statements about using large diameter hose during a fill operation is MOSt accurate?
It may actually provide little advantage
207
In the formulas originally developed by the insurance services office (ISO), what facet is built into the “travel time” formula?
Acceleration and deceleration times as the vehicle approaches the fill and dump sites
208
Which of the following is a proportioner used on large mobile apparatus installations, such as ARFF vehicles, and is one of the most accurate methods of foam proportioning?
Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner
209
What is the commonly used guideline for proportioning Class A foam for exposure protection with standard for nozzles?
0.5 to 1.0 percent concentrate
