Study guide & Fellow review Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

AMH is AKA __

A

mullerian inhibiting substance (MIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mullerian duct becomes:

A

tubes, uterus, upper 1/3 vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Wolffian duct becomes:

A

epididymus, vas deferens, seminal vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does Mullerian NOT become?

A

ovaries, lower vagina, clitoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does Wolffian duct NOT become?

A

testes, penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

main 2 ddx for absence of uterus

A

mullian agenesis, androgen insensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do sertoli cells produce

A

MIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do Leydig cells produce

A

testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Swyers syndrome

A

XY, mutation in SRY gene, phenotypically female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gonads in Swyers?

A

streak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

androgen insensitvity

A

female phenotype but no ovaries, scant pubic hair, breast development (aromatization from T), male T level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Defect in MRKH

A

mutation in AMH gene or receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

heritability of 5 alpha reductase deficiency

A

autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which DSD most likely to have gender dysphoria

A

5-ARD (grow penis at puberty)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What test do your order to r/o CAH

A

17-ohp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

order of female puberty

A

breast (thelarche), pubic hair (adrelarchy), growth spurt,

menarche, (“TAG-men”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When should menses occur by? (define delayed puberty)

A

13 w/o breast, 15 if secondary sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

short stature, webbed neck, shield chest, streak gonads

A

Turner’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

precocious puberty, cafe au lait spots, increased bone age

A

McCune Albright (upstream production of estrogen due to G protein mutations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

treatment for McCune Albright

A

aromatase inhibitors - testalactone (shut down production of estradiol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

definition of precocious puberty in girls

A

under 6 in black, under 7 in white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Can put precocious puberty kids on __ to prevent early growth plate fusing

A

lupron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why do GnRH agonists & antagonists work to prevent LH/FSH secretion?

A

activation requires pulsatile action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How to improve IVF success with hydrosalpinx?

A

salpingectomy or occlude tubes before IVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
treatment for labial adhesion
estrogen cream (NOT surgical)
26
What vaccine do you NOT GET within 3 weeks before IVF
MMR (bc contraindicated in pregnancy)
27
What infectious disease does treating BV help prevent?
STDs, including HIV
28
22 yo w primary ovarian insufficiency w/ bone fractures, considering pregnancy, how to treat osteoporosis?
hormone replacement (don't forget calcium, vitamin D)
29
mutations associated with lynch syndrome
MLH1, PMS2, MSH2, MSH6 - microsatellite instability, germ line mutation in DNA mismatch repair gene
30
most common presentation of fallopian tube carcinoma
postmenopausal bleeding or copious clear discharge
31
male to female transition at most risk of what disease?
pro-thrombotic -- hyperlipidemia, PE
32
During HSG you see b/l distal occlusion, what do you do?
Give doxycycline x5 days
33
risk for SCD in pregnancy
anemia - can't increase RBC mass as normal
34
HPV type most at risk for adenocarcinoma of cervix
18
35
If BV and has allergey to flagyl, what med?
intravaginal clindamycin
36
NIPT cell free DNA comes from what source?
trophoblasts
37
Peak bone mass is determined by:
genetics
38
why don't we see ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome anymore
use lupron trigger now instead of hcg
39
In a hypo hypo patient how to do ovulation induction?
FSH
40
how does clomiphene work
SERM
41
how does letrozole work
shuts down aromatization, body thinks no estrogen
42
PCOS ovulation induction
letrozole
43
How does estrogen increase bone density
inhibits osteoclasts
44
changes after menopause (up, down, same): T, androstenedione, SHBG, estradiol, estrone
T: down androstenedione: down SHBG (sex hormone binding globulin): down - so can have increased free E & T estradiol: down estrone: down (but relative proportion is higher)
45
most success for fertility protocol: mature oocyte, immature, oocyte, tissue cryo?
mature oocyte
46
incidence of CF highest in what ethnic group
white
47
most common mutation in CF
delta F508
48
age to start DXA scan
65
49
CAH how inherited? What gene?
autosomal recessive, CYP2...
50
what is associated with mild hyperprolactinemia?
endometriosis
51
subfascial hematoma after myomectomy - what artery injured?
inferior epigastric artery
52
normal cysto after surgery but found to be damaged later - why?
thermal spread
53
How to differentiate theca lutein cysts vs luteomas
theca lutein cysts bilateral (result of HCG - twin pregnancy, molar pregnancy) luteoma usually unilateral
54
What is the ethical appeal behind no longer assigning female gender with surgery in the setting of ambiguous genitalia at birth? (autonomy, justice, beneficence, non maleficence)
autonomy
55
first lab to get in workup of acromegaly?
IGF1
56
buzzword: imprinting disorder in context of artificial reproductive technology
ICSI
57
examples of imprinting disorder
Prader willi, angelman
58
when do mono mono twins separate?
8-13 days (1-2 weeks)
59
AGC on pap, normal colpo, normal ECC, normal EMB, next step?
cotest 12 months, but we think D&C
60
infectious risk highest w what osteoporosis med
denosumab (skin infections & eczema)
61
osteoprosis med with concern for renal damage
zoledronic acid
62
most common bug in pyelo
E coli
63
breast cancer with dermal ducts, what type
inflammatory breast cancer
64
pt with endometrial hyperplasia, what type of hyst do you recommend?
vag hyst
65
split in di-di twins?
0-3 days
66
what kind of breast cancer has peritoneal implants?
lobular invasive
67
what is receptor status of brca1-2 related breast cancer?
triple negative
68
treatment of choice for pt with twin twin transufation
laser
69
Is toxic shock due to endo or exo toxin?
strep pyogenes exotoxins
70
paclitaxel MOA
stabilize microtubules
71
which is most sensitive to radiation? (large bowel, small bowel, bladder)
small bowel
72
MOA immiquimod
immune modulate
73
if get sued new or old company or you pays?
old company if you have tail insurance
74
Pt hasn't seen you in 5 years
bill as new pt
75
blueberry muffin rash
CMV
76
CMV avidity testing reveals both IgM, IgG positive with high avidity - immune, acute, chronic?
re-infection w different strain or reactivation
77
Who put together national practitioner database?
Congress
78
safest hypnotic in elderly? (ativan, xanax, valium, ambien)
avoid benzos!
79
cervical cancer marker p53? RB
E6 inactivates p53 | E7 inactivate Rb
80
what causes elevated tryptase levels?
allergic reaction