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Micro Final > Study Guide Lecture (Front Side) > Flashcards

Study Guide Lecture (Front Side) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 innate immunity physical protective factors?

A
  1. Skin (epidermis and dermis)
  2. Mucous membranes (mucus and ciliary escalator)
  3. Lacrimal apparatus (washes eye)
  4. Saliva
  5. Urine
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2
Q

What are the 6 innate immunity chemical protective factors?

A
  1. Sebum
  2. low pH of skin
  3. lysozyme (in sweat, tears, saliva, and urine)
  4. low pH of gastric juice
  5. low pH of vaginal secretions
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3
Q

What is our second line of defense upon infections?

A

immune cells

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4
Q

What is our first line of defense upon infection?

A

skin and mucous membranes

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5
Q

Immune cells involved in innate immunity:

What do red blood cells do?

A

transport O2 and CO2

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6
Q

What are the three types of white blood cells?

A

neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils

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7
Q

Immune cells involved in innate immunity:

What do neutrophils do?

A

phagocytosis

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8
Q

Immune cells involved in innate immunity:

What do basophils do?

A

release histamine

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9
Q

Immune cells involved in innate immunity:

What do eosinophils do?

A

kill parasites

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10
Q

Immune cells involved in innate immunity:

What do monocytes/macrophages do?

A

phagocytosis

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11
Q

Immune cells involved in innate immunity:

What do dendritic cells do?

A

phagocytosis

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12
Q

Immune cells involved in innate immunity:

What do natural killer cells do?

A

destroy target cells

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13
Q

Immune cells involved in innate immunity:

What do platelets do?

A

blood clotting

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14
Q

What are the two cells involved with adaptive immunity?

A

t cells and b cells

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15
Q

What role do T cells have in adaptive immunity?

A

cell mediated immunity

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16
Q

What role do B cells have in adaptive immunity?

A

produce antibodies

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17
Q

_______ are everywhere, always around, they are the first responders at site of infection

A

neutrophils

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18
Q

What do the greek words “phago” and “cyte” translate to?

A

phago=eat

cyte=cell

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19
Q

Which two cells phagocyte?

A

neutrophiles and (fixed and wandering) macrophages

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20
Q

Define phagocytosis

A

ingestion of microbes or particles by a cell, preformed by phagocytes

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21
Q

What are the 7 stages of phagocytosis?

A
  1. chemotaxis and adherence of microbe to phagocyte
  2. ingestion of microbe by phagocyte
  3. Formation of a phagosome
  4. Fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome to form a phagolysosome
  5. digestion of ingested microbe by enzyme
  6. formation of residual body containing indigestible material
  7. discharge of waste material
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22
Q

What are 6 symptoms of inflammation?

A

acute-phase proteins are activated, vasodilation, redness, swelling (edema), pain, and heat

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23
Q

What are the 6 stages of inflammation?

A
  1. chemicals (histamine, kinins,etc) are released by damaged cells
  2. blood clot forms
  3. abscess starts to form
  4. margination: phagocytes stick to endothelium
  5. diapedesis: phagocytes squeeze between endothelial cells
  6. phagocytosis of invading bacteria
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24
Q

Define parenchyma

A

regenerated epidermis (tissue repair)

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25
Q

Define stroma

A

regenerated dermis (tissue repair)

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26
Q

Define innate immunity

A

defenses against any pathogen

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27
Q

Define adaptive immunity

A

induced resistance to a specific pathogen

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28
Q

What are the 4 types of adaptive immunity?

A
  1. naturally acquired active immunity
  2. naturally acquired passive immunity
  3. artificially acquired active immunity
  4. artificially acquired passive immunity
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29
Q

immunoglobins are ____________ ___________

A

globular proteins

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30
Q

The number of antigen-binding sites determines ___________

A

valence

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31
Q

What are the 3 functions of igG antibodies?

A

enhance phagocytosis, neutralize toxins and viruses, and protect fetus and newborn

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32
Q

What are the function of igM antibodies?

A

agglutinates microbes; first antibody produced in response to infection

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33
Q

What is the function of igA antibodies?

A

mucosal protection

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34
Q

What is the function of igD antibodies?

A

on B cells, initiate immune response

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35
Q

What is the function of igE antibodies?

A

allergic reactions; lysis of parasitic worms

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36
Q

Mammalian B cells express _______

A

MHC (major histocompatibility complex)

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37
Q

Which antigen stimulates B cells to make antibodies?

A

t-independent antigens

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38
Q

What are epitopes?

A

specific recognition sites on antigens

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39
Q

B cells differentiate into ___________ and ___________

A

plasma cells (antibody producing) and memorty cells

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40
Q

What are 5 ways antibodies help with humoral immune response?

A

agglutination, opsonization, neutralization, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxiticity, and activation of complement

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41
Q

What does agglutination do?

A

reduces number of infectious units to be dealt with

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42
Q

What does opsonization do?

A

coats an antigen with antibody to enhance phagocytosis

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43
Q

What does neutralization do?

A

blocks adhesion of bacteria and viruses to mucosa and blocks attachment of toxin

44
Q

What does antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity do?

A

antibodies attached to target cell cause destruction by macrophages, eosinophils, and NK cells

45
Q

What does activation of complement do?

A

causes inflammation and cell lysis

46
Q

What are the 4 types of T cells?

A

Natural Killer, T-regulatory, Cytotoxic, and Helper

47
Q

Where do T cells mature?

A

in the thymus

48
Q

T cells respond to ___________ by T cell receptors (TCRs)

A

antigens

49
Q

T cells require ___________

A

antigen presenting cells

50
Q

Pathogens entering the gastrointestinal or respiratory tracts pass through ___________ and ___________

A

M (microfold) cells and Peyer’s patches (which contain antigen-presenting cells)

51
Q

___________ recognizes antigens and MHC II on antigen presenting cells

A

T- cell receptors (T helper cells)

52
Q

What are toll-like receptors?

A

they are a costimulatory signal on antigen presenting cells and T helper cells (lead to an immune response to pathogens)

53
Q

T helper cells produce cytokines and differentiate into ___________, ___________, and ___________

A

Th1, Th2, and memory cells

54
Q

How are T helper cells activated?

A

An antigen presenting cells ingests a microorganism with antigens, it breaks down the antigen into peptides which bond with MHC and displayed on the surface of the cell, then aa receptor on the T helper cell binds to the MHC which activates the T helper cell to produce cytokines, the cytokines cause the t helper cell to proliferate and develop its effector functions

55
Q

T helper cells are aka:

T cytotoxic cells are aka:

A
  • CD4+ or Th

- CD8+ or Tc

56
Q

T cytotoxic cells are activated into ___________ and induce ___________ in target cell

A

cytotoxic T lymphocytes, apoptosis

57
Q

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes release ___________ and ___________ that leads to apoptosis

A

perforin and granzymes

58
Q

A normal cell will not trigger cytotoxic T cells, only ___________ or ___________ cells that produce ___________

A

virus infected cells or cancer cells, abnormal endogenous antigens

59
Q

Apoptosis is really important to destroy an infected cell, but it has to be controlled death or…

A

it will cause damage and death to surrounding tissue

60
Q

What do T regulatory cells do?

A

suppress T cells against self, protects your cells from your own immunity cells

61
Q

What 3 cells are APCs (antigen presenting cells)

A

B cells, dendritic cells, and activated macrophages

62
Q

What to Natural Killer (NK) cells do?

A

destroy cells that do not express MHC I (self), kill virus-infected and tumor cells, also attack parasites

63
Q

What are cytokines? Over production of cytokines leads to ___________

A

they are chemical messengers, examples IL-1, IL-8, and interferons
-overproduction leads to cytokine storm

64
Q

What does the cytokine interleukin-1 (IL-1) do?

A

stimulates t helper cells in presence of antigens; attracts phagocytes

65
Q

What does the cytokine interleukin-2 (IL-2) do?

A

Proliferation of antigen stimulated T helper cells, proliferation and differentiation of B cells, and activates T cytotoxic and NK cells (part of inflammation

66
Q

Normal microbiota of the skin:

A
  • Gram-positive, salt-tolerant bacteria
    • staphylococci, micrococci, diptheroids
  • non pathogenic gram-positive bacteria
  • aerobes on surface
  • anaerobes in hair follicles
67
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is ___________

A

antibiotic resistant

68
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes is a skin infection that attacks ___________, lyse ___________ and ___________, and is sensitive to ___________

A

connective tissue, lyse RBC and neutrophils, penicillin

69
Q

___________ is a skin infection caused by S pyogenes, tissue damage can lead to sepsis

A

erysipelas

70
Q

Nervous system diseases usually produce ___________

A

a toxin

71
Q

How is Polio transmitted?

A

by ingestion

72
Q

What are 3 ways the urinary protects itself from infection?

A

valves prevent backflow to kidneys, acidity of urine, mechanical flushine

73
Q

What are the normal microbiota of the urinary system?

A

urinary bladder and upper urinary tract are sterile

74
Q

What is Candida albicans?

A

a yeast like fungus in urinary sstem, part of normal microbiota

75
Q

What are Lactobacilli?

A

normal microbiota, predominant in the vagina, produce H2O2, grow on glycogen secretions, low pH

76
Q

What does TORCH stand for?

A 
Toxoplasmosis
Other (syphilis, hep B, etc)
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes simple virus
77
Q

What is the purpose of the TORCH test?

A

tests for antibodies to four organisms that cause congenital infections transmitted from mother to fetus.

78
Q

What bacteria causes rheumatic fever?

A

autoimmune complication of Streptococcus pyogenes

inflammation of heart valves

79
Q

What is the vector of plague, lyme disease, and typhus?

A

rat flea, ticks, arthropod

80
Q

What do normal microbiota in the respiratory system do?

A

suppress pathogens by competitive inhibition in upper respiratory system ( lower respiratory system is sterile)

81
Q

Strep throat is caused by what microbe?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

82
Q

Commensal microorganism is when…

A

one organism benefits, and the other organism is unaffected

83
Q

Normal microbiota protect the host by… (3 ways)

A
  • occupying niches that pathogens might occupy
  • producing acids
  • producing bacteriocins (to prevent other organisms from colonizing)
84
Q

What is a communicable disease?

A

a disease that is spread from one host to another

85
Q

Incidence:

A

fraction of a population that contracts a disease during a specific time

86
Q

Prevalence:

A

fraction of a population having a specific disease at a given time

87
Q

Sporadic disease:

A

disease that occurs occasionally in a population (like hepatitis from the cosco berries)

88
Q

A disease constantly present in a population is called a(n) __________ disease

A

endemic (like TB or malaria)

89
Q

A disease acquired by many hosts in a given area in a short time is called a(n) __________ disease

A

epidemic (like SARS)

90
Q

A worldwide epidemic is called a(n) __________ disease

A

pandemic

91
Q

Immunity in most of a population is referred to as __________

A

herd immunity

92
Q

Swine flu was a(n) __________ that turned into a(n) __________

A

epidemic, pandemic

93
Q

A toxic inflammatory condition arising from the spread of microbes, especially bacteria or their toxins, from a focus of infection is called __________

A

sepsis

94
Q

What is bacteremia?

A

bacteria in the blood

95
Q

What is septicemia?

A

growth of bacteria in the blood

96
Q

What is the difference between mechanical transmission and biological transmission?

A

mechanical: arthropod carries pathogen on feet
biological: pathogen reproduces in vector

97
Q

What did John Snow do in terms of epidemiology?

A

He mapped to occurrence of cholera in London

98
Q

Deine virulence:

A

the extent of pathogenicity

99
Q

What are 5 virulence factors?

A

spreading factors, drug resistance, adhesion factors, escape phagocytosis, and toxin production

100
Q

What is the difference between ID50 and LD50?

A

ID50: infectious dose for 50% of the test population
LD50: lethal dose (of a toxin) for 50% of the test population

101
Q

Bacillus anthracis is spread by __________. The ID50 for Bacillus anthracis varies depending on __________

A

endospores, portal of entry (skin is the least, then inhalation, ingestion requires the most endospores for ID 50)

102
Q

ID50 is much __________ (higher/lower) than LD50

A

lower

103
Q

__________ bind to receptors on host cells and form biofilms

A

adhesions/ligands

104
Q

What is the difference between an endotoxin and an exotoxin?

A

endotoxin: on the surface of bacteria
exotoxin: excreted out of bacteria

105
Q

Endotoxins cause __________ of cells and cause a __________ in humans

A

lysis, fever

106
Q

How do LD50s differ in endotoxins and exotoxins

A

LD50 is much higher in endotoxins, compared to exotoxins

Micro Final (3 decks)

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