Study Session 2/18/2025 Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

Established in 1956, an organization that assesses whether international medical graduates are ready to enter residency or fellowship programs in the United States.

A

ECFMG

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2
Q

National non-profit organization that represents the 71-state medical and osteopathic boards of the U.S. and its territories and co-sponsors the USMLE.

A

FSMB

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3
Q

Containing information on medical malpractice payments and certain adverse actions related to health care practitioners, providers and suppliers.

A

NPDB

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4
Q

Database that contains information about people and entities in the healthcare field who have been involved in fraud, abuse or other wrongdoings.

A

FACIS

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5
Q

Founded in 1847, Established to promote the art and science of medicine and the betterment of public health.

A

AMA

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6
Q

This organization requires a process by which an organization reviews and evaluates qualifications of licensed practitioners’ to provide services to its members

A

NCQA

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7
Q

Sets and monitors voluntary professional education standards essential in preparing physicians to deliver safe, high-quality medical care.

A

ACGME

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8
Q

_____________is a code of rules and ethics for working together in groups.

a. Parliamentary Procedure
b. Quorum
c. Incidental motion

A

Parliamentary Procedure

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9
Q

The organization must verify the most recent 5- year period available for sanctions or limitations on any state licensure held (past and present).

a. NCQA
b. URAC
c. ACHC

A

NCQA

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10
Q

If there is no provision regarding a quorum in the bylaws, what provides that a majority of members constitutes a quorum?

a. Common law
b. Robert’s Rules of Order
c. applicable Federal, State, or local laws

A

Common law

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11
Q

__________credentialing reduces or eliminates duplication of verifications thus increasing productivity and decreasing cost?

a. Internal
b. Centralized
c. Delegation / External

A

Centralized

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12
Q

__________ states that at least the past five-year history of professional liability actions resulting in final settlements or judgments must be evaluated. Malpractice litigation history (final judgments and settlements) is received from insurance carrier or NPDB.

a. TJC
b ACHC
c. DNV

A

ACHC

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13
Q

Information on medical school graduation verified directly with the medical school is considered:

a. Secondary Source
b. Designated Equivalent Source
c. Primary Source

A

Primary Source

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14
Q

“I move to postpone the motion to…” is what type of motion?

a. Privileged
b. Subsidiary
c. Incidental

A

Subsidiary

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15
Q

Releasing information incurs a substantial liability. In addition to making sure that accurate information is provided, what else must be done?

a.Evaluate the legal climate in their area and draft policies regarding the release of information.
b. Make sure they are releasing information to individuals authorized to request the information.
c. Send back with note stating “the release does not reference your organization.”

A

Make sure they are releasing information to individuals authorized to request the information.

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16
Q

The types of information reported to the ______ includes medical malpractice payments (for all healthcare practitioners), adverse licensure actions, clinical privileging actions and professional society membership actions, as well as negative actions or findings and Medicare exclusions?

a. ABMS
b. AMA
c. NPDB

A

NPDB

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17
Q

DNV States the following in regard Licensure / License Sanctions:

a. Verify current state license on an ongoing basis; at a minimum, at expiration, appointment and re-appointment. Verify from primary or secondary source
b. There must be verification of licensure or certification as minimally required to engage in clinical practice directly from the State board
c. MS bylaws describe the qualifications to be met by a candidate in order for the medical staff to recommend that the governing body appoint the candidate. Those qualifications shall include primary source verification of current licensure on initial appointment and reappointment. Sanctions not specifically addressed

A

MS bylaws describe the qualifications to be met by a candidate in order for the medical staff to recommend that the governing body appoint the candidate. Those qualifications shall include primary source verification of current licensure on initial appointment and reappointment. Sanctions not specifically addressed

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18
Q

PSV can be performed in several ways.

a. Letter requesting information
b. Via mail, email , fax, or telephone
c. All the above

A

All the above

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19
Q

Organizations must have processes in place to ensure that credentials file are accessed only by authorized staff. Requirements for storage, maintenance and disposal of credentialing documents must also be defined.

a. NCQA
b. Medicare
c. URAC

A

URAC

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20
Q

Which standard states the medical staff bylaws or credentials manual must indicate the requirements for the hospital to verify the licensure, certifications, education and training, post graduate experiences, and other references from primary sources whenever possible

a. NCQA
b. ACHC
c. AAAHC

A

ACHC

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21
Q

Which 2 have requirements for Database Controls?

a. URAC and NCQA
b. DNV and TJC
c. AAAHC and ACHC

A

URAC and NCQA

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22
Q

What is the purpose of Subsidiary motions?

a. Assist the body in considering or disposing of a main motion.
b. Do not relate to the pending business but have to do with special matters of immediate importance that should be allowed to interrupt the consideration of anything else.
c. Deal with questions of procedure arising out of other motions or business

A

Assist the body in considering or disposing of a main motion.

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23
Q

Which accreditor says: MS 6 SR 5(c) Review of involvement in any professional liability action is required at initial and reappointment

a. Medicare
b. TJC
c. DNV

A

DNV

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24
Q

AMA Physician Masterfile data meets select credentialing requirements for all standards except for one.

a. TJC
b. Medicare
c. NCQA

A

NCQA

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25
_________ motions do not relate to the pending business but have to do with special matters of immediate importance that should be allowed to interrupt the consideration of anything else? a. Privileged b. Subsidiary c. Main
Privileged
26
When it is not possible to obtain the information from a primary source, like when a hospital is closed. When applicant records have been lost or destroyed. When applicant received education in a foreign country and verification information is not accessible, are examples of ________ ___________ a. Primary Source b. Designated Equivalent Source c. Secondary Source
Secondary Source
27
Which Regulatory agency restricts the ability of incompetent physicians, dentists, and other health care practitioners who move from state to state without disclosure or discovery of previous medical malpractice payment and adverse action history. a. FSMB b. NPDB c. Medicare
NPDB
28
This standard states that organizations are responsible for the ongoing monitoring of sanctions or limitations on licensure between recredentialing cycles. a. TJC b. NCQA c. URAC
NCQA
29
Who states that a cover sheet or attestation from the insurance company is sufficient to prove attainment of liability coverage? a. URAC b. NCQA c. AAAHC
URAC
30
___________is the original issuing entity of a specific credential that can verify the accuracy of the credential reported by an individual health care practitioner. Primary source verification (PSV) is received directly from the issuing source. For example, if information on medical school graduation is verified directly with the medical school, this is considered PSV. A copy of the medical school diploma is not considered PSV. a. Primary Source b. Secondary Source c. Designated Equivalent Source
Primary Source
31
Must have evidence of professional liability insurance including current certificates showing amount insurance; malpractice litigation history from insurance carrier. a. TJC b. DNV c. ACHC
ACHC
32
Two standards state that the past 5-year history of professional liability must be either verified or evaluated. Who are they? Bonus: Which standard says verified and which says evaluated? a. NCQA and ACHC b. NCQA and URAC c. ACHC and AAAHC
NCQA and ACHC
33
What are the precedence of motions? a. Main motion, Subsidiary motion, Privilege motion b. Privilege motion, Subsidiary motion, Main motion c. Subsidiary motion, Main motion, Privilege motion
Privilege motion, Subsidiary motion, Main motion
34
In certain cases, _________ allows the use of other reliable secondary sources, such as another hospital that has documented PSV of the applicant’s credentials. Prior to using such sources, an attempt must be made to contact the primary source. This attempt should be documented by keeping the returned letters or by documenting the letters that were sent with no response. a. AAAHC b. NCQA c. TJC
TJC
35
If the use of a reliable secondary source is used, such as another hospital that has documented PSV of the applicant's credentials, what must be done prior to using such sources? a. An attempt must be made to contact the primary source and the practitioner should be notified. b. An attempt must be made to contact the primary source and the attempt should be documented. c. An attempt must be made to contact the primary source, but no further action required
An attempt must be made to contact the primary source and the attempt should be documented
36
Which data bank is the official government-wide system of records of debarments, suspension and other exclusionary actions? a. OIG b. NPDB c. SAM
SAM
37
Who states that changes made to credentialing information must be tracked and the organization must document when and how the data was changed, who made the change and why the change was made? a. TJC b. URAC c. NCQA
NCQA
38
What kind of motion has no order of precedence, arises incidentally and decided immediately? a. Incidental motion b. Main motion c. Privileged motion
Incidental motion
39
Who allows the use of the FACIS for licensure/licensure sanctions verifications? a. ACHC b. NCQA c. URAC
ACHC
40
Which accreditation states that practitioners with federal tort coverage, the practitioner file can include a copy of the federal tort letter or an attestation from the practitioner of federal tort coverage? a. NCQA b. DNV c. TJC
NCQA
41
Which accreditation states that before recommending privileges, the medical staff evaluates any evidence of an unusual pattern or an excessive number of professional liability actions resulting in a final judgment against the applicant? a. TJC b. AAAHC c. DNV
TJC
42
Which of the following statements accurately describes Primary Source Verification?​​ a. A copy of a medical school diploma is considered Primary Source Verification​​ b. Primary Source Verification can be done through methods such as mail, email, fax, or telephone, with the responses received directly from the issuing source​​ c. Secondary sources are always acceptable for verifying credentials if the primary source is unavailable​​
Primary Source Verification can be done through methods such as mail, email, fax, or telephone, with the responses received directly from the issuing source​​
43
Which accrediting body can use the results from a search of the FSMB Disciplinary Action Databank or FACIS? a. TJC b. DNV c. ACHC
ACHC
44
Not addressed, however, if the medical staff bylaws, rules and regulations require malpractice coverage, it is expected that the accrediting body have a method to verify such coverage. a. Medicare b. TJC c. DNV
TJC
45
The application includes information regarding professional liability claims history and is reviewed at initial and reappointment. a. DNV b. URAC c. AAAHC
AAAHC
46
What is considered an acceptable reliable secondary source verification by TJC? a. Documented verbal verification b. Physical copy of document c. Another hospital that has documented PSV of the applicant’s credentials
Another hospital that has documented PSV of the applicant’s credentials
47
Which accreditation standards have requirements regarding data base controls? a. ACHC and TJC b. NCQA and URAC c. Medicare, DNV, and AAAHC
NCQA and URAC
48
Various types of entities are required to report adverse actions to the NPDB. Which one of the organizations listed below is not an example of a required reporting entity? a. State Medicaid Fraud Control Units b. HHS OIG c. State licensing and certification boards
State Medicaid Fraud Control Units
49
What motions can be amended? a. Postpone to a certain time (I move to postpone motion to …) b. Lay aside temporarily (I move to lay the question on the table) c. Submit matter to assembly (I appeal from the decision of the chair)
Postpone to a certain time (I move to postpone motion to …)
50
Which accreditation standards requires verification of the past five-year history of professional liability claims resulting in settlements or judgements? a. NCQA, DNV, and URAC b. ACHC and NCQA c. Medicare, AAAHC, NCQA, and ACHC
ACHC and NCQA
51
NCQA requires that the license must be confirmed within a certain time limit of the credentialing decision. What is the time frame? a. 180 days b. 60 days c. 180 days (MCO); 120 days (CVO)
180 days (MCO); 120 days (CVO)
52
What are the 3 major approaches to verification? a. Internal, External / Delegated, and Centralized b. Centralized, Database, and Company / External c. Primary, Secondary, and Designated Equivalent Source
Internal, External / Delegated, and Centralized
53
All of these "Red Flags" would be reportable to NPDB except for _______. a. Adverse licensure action b. Malpractice payments c. Non-compliance of residency
Non-compliance of residency
54
What refers to maintaining and assuring the accuracy and consistency of data over its life-cycle to make sure that data will always be correct, consistent and accessible? a. Database audits b. Data integrity c. Data preservation
Data integrity
55
When you want to limit or extend a debate you stay? a. Let's take this offline b. I move that debate to be limited or extended c. I move to refer the motion
I move that debate to be limited or extended
56
FSMB is recognized as a designated equivalent source for licensure sanctions with this accreditation? a. TJC b. NCQA c. URAC
TJC
57
Attestation of malpractice coverage by the practitioner is not acceptable by this accreditor? a. URAC b. TJC c. NCQA
URAC
58
What is the time frame of verification for NCQA and the malpractice history? a. 7-10 years b. 36 months c. 5 years
5 years
59
__________ requires specific credentials to be verified within six months of the decision as outlined in the section Primary Source Verification of credentials. a. TJC b. AAAHC c. URAC
URAC
60
NPDB querying entities include: a. Hospitals and Healthcare entities b. Professional societies with formal peer review c. All of the above
All of the above
61
Name one organization that has requirements regarding database controls. a. NCQA b. Medicare c. TJC
NCQA
62
A ____________ is the number or proportion of the members that must be present in order to transact business. a. Judicial entity b. Executive Body c. Quorum
Quorum
63
Must confirm that the practitioner holds a valid, current license, in effect at the time of the Credentialing Committee’s decision. Only required to verify license(s) in the state(s) where the practitioner provides care for organization members. Verification must be obtained directly from the state licensing agency or its website. a. DNV b. Medicare c. NCQA
NCQA
64
Professional liability coverage not addressed. However, if the medical staff bylaws/ rules/ regulations require malpractice coverage, it is expected that the organization have a method to verify such coverage. a. AAAHC b. TJC c. DNV
TJC
65
Malpractice/Professional Liability Time limit: must be verified within 180 days (MCO) / 120 days (CVO) of the credentialing decision. a. TJC b. NCQA c. Medicare
NCQA
66
Which accreditation requires specific credentials to be verified within six months of the decision as outlined in the section primary source verification of credentials? a. ACHC b. DNV c. URAC
URAC
67
Which standards do not have any requirements regarding date base controls? a. TJC, DNV and NCQA b. TJC, DNV and URAC c. TJC, DNV, ACHC, AAAHC, and Medicare
TJC, DNV, ACHC, AAAHC, and Medicare
68
Not every motion can be made at any given time. Rather, motion are proposed, considered, and disposed of in a priority of order known as? a. Precedence b. Incidental c. Privileged
Precedence
69
According to Medicare CoPs, the governing body must ensure that the criteria for selection of medical staff are? a. As out lined by medical staff bylaws b. Character, competence, judgement, experience & training c. Competence, capability, education, proficiency & abilities
Character, competence, judgement, experience & training
70
Per __________ information must be reviewed within 30 days of release by the reporting entity. a. NCQA b. URAC c. AAAHC
NCQA
71
Many organizations undertake credentials verification internally where the organization’s staff verifies all information from the primary and/or approved sources. This is referencing what type of verification? a. External b. Internal c. Centralized
Internal
72
When an organization enrolls its providers in the continuous query, that organization receives a notification within how many hours of a report received by the NPDB? a. 24 hours b. 72 hours c. 12 hours
24 hours
73
PDC reports also provide information pertaining to: a. Licensure history and biographical information b. Education and training, and national identification numbers (when available) c. All of the above
All of the above
74
The following organizations do not have any requirements regarding database controls: a. Medicare, TJC, ACHC, DNV, and AAAHC b. Medicare, DNV, TJC, NCQA, and URAC c. Medicare, ACHC, DNV, and AAAHC
Medicare, TJC, ACHC, DNV, and AAAHC
75
All actions in a meeting are initiated by what? a. Motions b. The chairman of the board c. A majority vote
Motions
76
According to this organization, the FSMB is recognized as a designated equivalent source for information regarding licensure actions. a. DNV b. TJC c. AAAHC
TJC
77
These two organizations do NOT specifically address malpractice insurance or professional liability coverage. a. AAAHC, URAC b. ACHC, DNV c. TJC, Medicare
TJC, Medicare
78
These two organizations require the application contain information pertaining to malpractice / professional liability history. a. AAAHC, URAC b. ACHC, DNV c. TJC, Medicare
AAAHC, URAC
79
Email notifications are received within ____________of a reporting being received by NPDB on a practitioner. a. 48 hours b. 180 days c. 24 hours
24 hours
80
TJC identifies ______ acceptable designated sources. a. 3 b. 6 c. 7
7
81
NCQA mentions __________ require that the organization has implemented mechanisms that guard against unauthorized access to and modification of credential files. a. CVO standards b. MEC c. MCO
CVO standards
82
“I move to adjourn” is a statement that reflects a _______. a. Subsidiary motion b. Main motion c. Privileged motion
Privileged motion
83
Which accrediting organization mentions MS 6 Interpretive Guidelines that state medical staff bylaws shall provide a mechanism for consideration of automatic suspension of clinical privileges in instances of revocation/restriction of professional license. a. ACHC b. TJC c. DNV
DNV
84
__________ states that a cover sheet or attestation from the insurance company is sufficient to prove attainment of liability coverage. a. URAC b. DNV c. TJC
URAC
85
Some hospitals and managed care organizations ______________ the PSV process to a credentials verification organization (CVO), an organization that collects and verifies information and forwards it to the entity that is contracted for the service. a. Request b. Delegate c. Copy
Delegate
86
According to the _________, its primary objective is to improve the quality of health care by encouraging state licensing boards, hospitals, professional societies, and other health care entities to identify and discipline those who engage in unprofessional behavior. a. FSMB b. NPDB c. OIG
NPDB
87
What are the 2 accreditation organizations that address credentialing system controls? a. NCQA and URAC b. TJC and ACHC c. ACHC and AAAHC
NCQA and URAC
88
All actions in a meeting are initiated by ____________. a. The Committee Chair b. Motions c. CEO or CMO
Motions
89
What accreditation standard states that you are only required to verify a license(s) in the state/s where the practitioner provides care for the organization members? a. URAC b. Medicare c. NCQA
NCQA
90
What accreditation standard states MS 6 Interpretive Guidelines state that the medical staff criteria for consideration of automatic suspension, summary suspension, and includes when the practitioner has failed to maintain the minimum specified amount of professional liability insurance as required in the medical staff bylaws? a. NCQA b. DNV c. TJC
DNV
91
What accreditation standard states that before recommending privileges, the medical staff must evaluate any evidence of an unusual pattern(s) resulting in a final judgement against the applicant? a. TJC b. DNV c. ACHC
TJC
92
Endometriosis: a condition in which tissue similar to the lining of the uterus (endometrium) grows outside of the uterus
Gynecologist Primary Care Provider
93
Fluoroscopy: an X-ray procedure that allows doctors to see internal organs in motion. It uses a fluoroscope, which is a tube or box with a fluorescent screen. The screen is coated with a fluorescent substance that allows doctors to see X-rays or other radiation
Radiologist; Radiologic technologist Cardiologists (for cardiac catheterization)  Gastroenterologists (for upper GI studies)  Orthopedic surgeons (for guided orthopedic procedures)  Physician Assistants (with appropriate training and supervision) 
94
Kyphoscoliosis: a condition that caused both a hunchback and a sideways curvature of the spine, leading to significant discomfort and mobility issues.
Orthopedic Surgeon Physical Medicine & Rehabilitation Radiology; Radiologist Neurosurgeon