Studyguide Flashcards by Dani Perkins

A client’s treatment plan contains the following statement:

“This individual has a history of chronic relapse during periods of high stress.”

This is an example of which of the following:

a. toxicology report
b. problem statement
c. Objective
d. short term goal

B. Problem Statement

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Which term describes the process whereby clients project past feelings or attitudes they had toward significant people in their lives onto their counselor?

a. transference
b. projection
c. countertransference
d. displacement

A. Transferance

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In the process of assessment, all of the following substance use screening questionnaires may be used EXCEPT:

a. CAGE (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener)
b. TWEAK (Tolerance, Worried, Eye-Opener, Amnesia, K/Cut Down)
c. DALI (Dartmouth Assessment of Lifestyle Instrument
d. AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test)

C. DALI

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Client education on the expected outcomes and possible risks of the counseling process is an important part of:

a. treatment process
b. placement criteria
c. informed consent
d. referral management

C. Informed Consent

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The activities that bring the client, treatment services, and other resources together to focus on identified issues and needs is known as:

a. clinical evaluation
b. treatment planning
c. referral planning
d. service coordination

D. Service Coordination

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As part of informed consent, counselors should advise clients of the exact circumstances under which they are legally required to do which of the following?

a. break confidentiality
b. call the police
c. cancel an appointment
d. terminate treatment

A. Break Confidentiality

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Administrative supervision provides an opportunity to address

a. countertransference issues
b. developing a therapeutic alliance
c. mutuality, respect and connection for clients
d. program policies and standards

D. Program Policies and Standards

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Which of the following client attributes is an important predictor of treatment outcomes?
a. practicing self-care
b. self-esteem
c. self-efficacy
d. ability to self-soothe

c. self-efficacy

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What potential factors of each change strategy are considered when developing a solid plan for change?

a. potential outcomes
b. financial cost
c. time restrictions
d. environmental impact

a. potential outcomes

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The process by which a client is determined appropriate and eligible for admission to a particular program.

Screening

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Administrative and Initial assessment procedures for admission to a program

Intake

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Describing to the client the general nature and goals of the program; the rules governing client conduct and infractions that can lead to disciplinary action or discharge from the program, the hours during which services are available; the treatment costs that are to be borne by the client, if any; and the client’s rights.

orientation

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Those procedures by which a counselor/program identifies and evaluates an individual’s strengths, weaknesses, problems, and needs for the development of the treatment plan.

Assessment

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The process in which the counselor and the client identify and rank problems needing resolution, establish agreed upon immediate and long-term goals, and decide on the treatment methods and resources to be used.

Treatment planning

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Clients with low levels of motivation to abstain from substance use should be placed in which type of group?
A) Skill Building
B) Psychoeducational
C) Process
D) Support

B Psychoeducational

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Which of the following best describes one of the causes of decreased ability to experience pleasure after long time substance use?
A) Lower amounts of dopamine are produced causing feelings of depression.
B) Dopamine receptors become damaged from continued substance use
C) Changes in the chemical makeup of dopamine after its effects from pleasure to depression
D) Higher amounts of dopamine are produced causing euphoria to which the user becomes accustomed.

A) Lower amounts of dopamine are produced causing feelings of depression.

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The DSM-5 is a tool used to:
A) Make a diagnostic impression based on presenting symptoms
B) Identify risk and protective factors relevant to the client
C) Determine the appropriate level of care
D) Develop symptom specific treatments

A) Make a diagnostic impression based on presenting symptoms

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Using Motivational Interviewing, which of the following statements would be best to begin discussing the findings of an assessment with a client?
A) We went over a lot of information today. Is there anything you would like to discuss further?
B) Those are all the questions I have to ask today. Before we move on, what caught your attention or what were you thinking as we went over the information?
C) Thank you for all the information you gave me. Let me look this information over and we can discuss it during the next session. Is that ok for you?
D) Do you have anything else you would like to share that would help me get to know you and why you are here?

B) Those are all the questions I have to ask today. Before we move on, what caught your attention or what were you thinking as we went over the information?

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Assisting a client in using community resources to meet the needs that a counselor is unable to provide is known as
A) Service Cordination
B) treatment planning
C) Referral
D) clinical evaluation

C Referral

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A Client is a 21 year old Latino living with his mother. his mother regularly uses heroin and has engaged in prostitution for income. He has his high school diploma but has not had steady employment since he was 19. His substance use began when he was 16 with marijuana and alcohol. At age 18 he also began periodically using heroin and now reports using heroin daily. He is mandated to treatment after being arrested for robbery to support his substance use. Based on this summary, which level of care is most appropriate to ASAM’s Patient Placement Criteria?
A) Outpatient
B) Intensive Outpatient/partial hospitalization
C) Residential/Inpatient
D) Medically Managed Intensive Inpatient

C Inpatient

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When making amendments to a client record, counselors should:
A) ensure to property note the amendments according to agency policies
B) never amend a clinical record because information might be skewed in the process
C) get the amendment approved by their clinical supervisor before making any changes
D) make sure that a very detailed description of the amendment and its purpose is added to the record

A) ensure to property note the amendments according to agency policies

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A client often disagree with their partner and feels guilty about their behavior when they have an argument. A treatment intervention for this client would be to:
A) Practice the use of “I” Statements
B) Encourage the client to apologize to their partner
C) Ask the client to journal about their substances use prior to the argument.
D) Use deep breathing techniques to process through their guilt

A) Practice the use of “I” Statements

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To abstain from drug use and maintain abstinence, individualized counseling emphasizes short-term behavioral goals and helps the client develop
A) Coping and strategies and tools
B) support systems
C) community partners
D) defense mechanisms

A) Coping and strategies and tools

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Which term describes the process whereby clients project past feelings or attitudes they had toward significant people in their lives onto their counselor?
A) Transference
B) Projection
C) Countertransference
D) Displacement

A) Transference

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The purpose of an assessment is to: A) Gauge the validity of the instrument B) Gather detailed information for the treatment plan C) Quantify any symptomatology D) Provide a diagnosis

B) Gather detailed information for the treatment plan

How does the assessment process promote rapport with a client? A) It engages the client in their treatment process B) It provides the clients with an orientation to the treatment C) It demonstrates a counselor’s thoroughness and capabilities. D) It establishes a standard of communication for the future therapy sessions.

A) It engages the client in their treatment process

Q An 18 year old female recently enrolled as a full-time student visits a campus counselor and indicates she is feeling symptoms of anxiety and depression. She has a full course load and works a campus job 10 hours a week. She indicates she has made many friends but is concerned that most of their social activities involve drinking. What would be the best treatment goal for this client to help her with her concerns about drinking? A) Help select college sponsored activities to attend with her friends B) Refer to a campus self-help group to assist with her treatment. C) develop a time management schedule to reduce stress D) Encourage increased exercise to boost endorphins

A) Help select college sponsored activities to attend with her friends

A client who recently moved to the United States expresses feelings of loneliness and isolation in the community. This is... A) Acculturation Stress B) Cultural acceptance C) Assimilation D) Value conflicts

A) Acculturation Stress

Before a client in need of continued treatment is discharged, a counselor must… A) Provide the client with a list of resources for further treatment B) Make appropriate alternative arrangements C) Have the client consent to the termination of treatment D) Inform all concerned others involved in the treatment process

B) Make appropriate alternative arrangements

A client's treatment plan contains the following statement, "This individual has a history of chronic relapse during periods of high stress." This is an example of which of the following? A) Long term goal B) Problem statement C) Objective statement D) Short term goal

B. Problem Statement

Q A client discloses that her husband is abusing her three year old daughter. Jurisdictional law mandates the abuse must be reported, however, previous experiences with child protective services have been ineffective. The counselor fears if the abuse is reported it will escalate as child protective services will investigate the matter but take no further action. The counselor’s best course of action is to: A) Consult with their immediate supervisor and follow the supervisor’s directives on whether or not to report the abuse B) Adhere to reporting protocols and determine if and when the client should be informed of the report C) Develop a plan with the client to remove her and her daughter from the abusive situation and then report the abuse to appropriate authorities. D) Document as much detail as possible regarding the abuse and continue to monitor the situation until the counselor can make a clear decision about what is in the client’s best interest.

B) Adhere to reporting protocols and determine if and when the client should be informed of the report

A client has been working a 12 step program for the last 2 months but does not feel like they benefit from the process. The counselor’s best approach would be to: A) Encourage them to continue working their 12 step program, because it’s normal to feel this at first. B) Discuss alternatives ideologies that could support their recovery and suggest they try one. C) Recommend they stop working their 12 step program D) Inform them that working the 12 steps is their best chance for recovery

B) Discuss alternatives ideologies that could support their recovery and suggest they try one.

What is an ongoing process through which the counselor collaborates with the client and others to gather and interpret information necessary for planning treatment and evaluating client progress? A) Screening B) Assessment C) Intake D) Orientation

B Assessment

The ORT, SASSI and DAST are all examples of A) assessment tools B) screening tools C) documentation tools D) counseling tools

B Screening Tools

A client seeing a counselor for the first time indicates they were not able to complete high school after they were raped as a young teen. They are unable to keep steady employment and experience regular flashbacks of their rape. They have numerous health conditions including high cholesterol for which they are currently taking Lipitor. What information is most important when screening for a substance use disorder? A) Low level of education B) Regular flashbacks C) Inconsistent employment D) Prescription medications

B Regular Flashbacks

During which stage of change is the specific task to raise doubts and increase concern and awareness around the target behavior? A) Action B) Contemplation C) Precontemplation D) Maintenance

C Precontemplation

In treatment planning, effort should lead forward: A) goal directed recovery B) compliance with program procedures C) abstinence and symptom alleviation D) attendance to self-help groups

A Goal directed recovery

Q In a session, a client discloses repeated instances of eating large amounts of food at once to the point of nausea. They indicate that they are not hungry when they eat and feel bad about their food consumption when finished. According to the DSM-5, this client meets the diagnostic criteria for which of the following? A) Binge-Eating Disorder B) Bulimia Nervosa C) Anorexia Nervosa D) Rumination Disorder

A) BED

this term include counselors' observations, clinical interviews, laboratory tests, and instruments such as tests and self- report inventories.

Tools of assessment

What are withdrawal symptoms characterized by severe flu like symptoms most characteristic of withdrawal from what type of drug?

Opiod withdrawal

Genetic Factors make up roughly what proportion of the risk for addiction?

one half

What is the adolescent tendency to impulsivity and risk taking due to primarily?

Neurological immaturity

What are depressant drugs typically used to cope with?

Stress

Past which point is benzodiazepine treatment of anxiety NOT effective?

four months

At Low doses what does alcohol act as psychiologically?

Stimulant

Among the following which is the MOST harmful drug a month can abuse during pregnency? a heroin b LSD C alcohol D meth

C alcohol

Theorists posit that stimulant abuse often occurs to compensate for defeinciencies in all of the following neurotransmitters EXCEPT: a norepinephrine b acetylcholine c seritonin d dopamine

a norepinephrine

What is the euphoria experience when under the influence of cocaine caused by? A) a cascade effect of endorphins B) a sudden release of adrenaline C) Increased basal metabolic rate D) a build up of neurotransmitters

D) a build up of neurotransmitters

What kind of drug does the term nootropic refer to? a) memory enhancing b) mood stabilizing C) hallucinagentic D) psychedelic

A Memory Enhancing

1. What would not be a good treatment goal to use for a young adult man enrolled at a large state university? A. Join the local AA B. Attend the next semester of college C. Attend his next high school reunion D. Apply for housing with his fraternity

D apply for housing in his frat

the central nervous system is composed of

brain and spinal cord

peripheral nervous system is composed of

nerves that branch from the CNS to the rest of the body

Somatic system

connects the nerves of the CNS to the skin and skeletal muscles

Autonomic nervous system

connects the nerves of the CNS to the organs

sympathetic nervous system

fight or flight response

parasympathetic nervous system

returns the body process to normal after fight or flight

Acetylcholine

muscle movement

Norepinephrine

arousal, moods, and formation of memories

Dopamine

body movement, pleasure and reward

serotonin

emotion, mood, sleep, temperature regulation

GABA (Gamma aminobutyric acid)

motor behavior (deficit may result in convulsions)

Glycine

spinal reflexes, motor behavior

Enkephalins and endorphins

pain reduction and pleasure

contains primary visual cortex, this lobe combines visual information with other senses

Occipital Lobe

The somatosensory cortex of this lobe collects sensory information and information on the location of objects in relation to the body

Parietal lobe

effects behavior, plaining, impulse control, and judgement. Damage to this lobe can cause personality changes

Frontol Lobe

Lobe involved in hearing and interpreting sounds

Temporal Lobe

substance abuse phase in which use is occasional. Use may be in social setting or stressful situations

Experimentation

Substance abuse phase in which a regular pattern of usage emerges

regular use

substance abuse phase in which problems begin to arise as a result of use

Problem use

substance abuse phase in which person continues use despite problems and risks

dependence

substance abuse stage in which person becomes psychically addicted and may feel a physical urge to use. Exhibits drug seeking behaviors

Addiction

BAC of 0.01 or 0.05 usually shows no impairment

subclinical

BAC 0.03 to 0.12 person begins showing signs of drinking and may have trouble walking

Euphoria

Blood alcohol of 0.09 to 0.25 person shows obvious signs of intoxication with impaired memory and judgment difficulty maintaining balance impaired vision sleepiness

Excitement

Blood alcohol of 0.18 to 0.30 the person is markedly confused and unstable and may have periods of blackout

Confusion

Blood alcohol of 0.35 to 0.4 this person needs emergent care and is unable to respond adequately or walk away and may vomit and have incontinence this person is at risk for aspiration

Stupor

Blood alcohol of 0.35 through 0.45 this person may be hypothermic with impaired circulation and respirations this person is at risk for death

Coma

Blood alcohol of 0.45 or greater this person may experience respiratory failure

Death

This usually happens within 8 hours of not drinking alcohol. This person can experience tremors and and abdominal cramping anorexia general weakness nausea vomiting excess sweating irritability mood swings and depression symptoms are similar to those of a severe hangover

Beginning withdrawal from alcohol

Usually 24 hours within of drinking cessation in addition to beginning symptoms the person may have increased anxiety and mood swings. The person may have increased blood pressure and the respiratory rate may exhibit urinary and fecal incontinence muscle rigidity and clenching of teeth

Withdrawal

Up to a third of those in withdrawal may experience this stage three to four or even up to 14 days after stopping drinking although it can occur within 12 hours of cessation. The person may become extremely confused with hallucinations severe agitation and seizures this stage may include life threatening delirium with circulatory collapse and death

Severe alcohol withdrawal

The need for continually increasing amounts of alcohol to achieve the desired state

tolerance

The inability for a drinker to predict when intake will stop at any one time

Loss of control

This drug of choice depresses the central nervous system slows the heart rate and alters emotions and cognition

Alcohol

True or false alcohol impairs the nervous system well before legal intoxication is reached

true

The effects of this drug are anxiolytic and the physical effects include relaxation increase in reaction time and loss of coordination

Barbiturates

Withdrawal symptoms from this drug can be very unpleasant and life threatening including anxiety tremors insomnia nausea compulsion and nightmares due to the severity of these withdrawal symptoms direction of a physician is required

Barbiturates

Benzodiazepines are also known as

Minor tranquilizer

What medications are an example of a benzodiazepine

Zanax Ativan and Valium otherwise known as diazepam lorazepam and alprazolam

Chances of addiction with this drug of choice are very high with continued use and withdrawal symptoms can be severe even fatal care must be taken not to confine these drugs with alcohol

Benzodiazepines otherwise known as minor tranquilizers

Narcotics are sometimes referred to as this

Opiates

One of three classifications of narcotics opium morphine and codeine

that come from natural sources

One of the three classifications of narcotics heroin and hydromorphone

Known as semi synthetic

One of the three classifications of narcotics methadone the parody and Propoxyphene

Synthesize completely in the lab

This drug is clinically used to relieve pain affects sleep treat diarrhea and relieve coughs

Narcotics

This drug is highly addictive and improper use may lead to tolerance as well as physiological and physical dependence it depresses the central nervous system and causes euphoria and drowsiness it does not cause the loss of motor coordination as other drugs do

Narcotics AKA Opiates

This drug is an alkaloid found in crude opium and is usually derived from morphine although less potent than morphine it is also an analgesic this drug is also an effective cough medicine used properly addiction to this medication is rare

Codeine

This drug is a semi synthetic narcotic that is chemically related to morphine it is available in both pill and injectable form it acts faster than morphine and is a more potent sedative and is extremely addictive

Hydromorphone

This drug is derived from codeine but is stronger

Oxycodone

This drug is derived from morphine and is one of the most addictive drugs existing it is not currently used clinically in the United states

Heroin

Withdrawal from this drug appears within 8 to 12 hours after last dose it causes psychological and physical dependence

herion

this drug is less potent than morphine but has similar effects

meperidine

This drug is comparable to morphine in potency but is longer acting. Because it blocks the effects of other types of narcotics it is useful in treating addiction to them physical and psychological dependence develops slowly

Methadone

This drug is less potent than codeine and is used to treat moderate pain there is a much lower chance of developing a dependency to it than other narcotics although it does have a synergistic effect when taken with alcohol

propoxyphine

This drug can block the action of other narcotics it is a drug of abuse due to the euphoria it produces

pentazocine

This drug contains oxycodone and is used to treat moderate to severe pain for up to 12 hours it produces euphoria and is highly abused

Oxy cotton

Severe withdrawal symptoms from this kind of drug includes abdominal cramps increased heart rate blood pressure nausea muscle spasms and aches in the bones withdrawal is not usually faital

Narcotics

This kind of drug also known as a designer drug was created in an attempt to create legal drugs which mimic the effects of narcotics straight Mexican brown and new heroin

Narcotic analog

This is an analog of fentanyl and was the first designer drug there is little difference between the dose that causes euphoria and the dose that causes death this is a highly dangerous drug. It is a fast acting drug with short lived side effects

AMF

One of three categories of inhalants includes compounds that are found in cleaning products nail Polish remover plastic cement and gasoline

Solvents

One of three categories of inhalants that contains solvents and propellants such as hydrocarbons hydrocarbons such as freon are found in household sprays such as Hairspray and deodorant spray

Aerosol sprays

One of three categories of inhalants typically abused are chloroform either halothane and nitrous oxide

Anesthetics

The physical effects of this drug increases excitability and delirium. This drug has increased risk of cardiac or respiratory arrest

inhalants

This drug is classified as both a psychedelic and a depressant and has properties of both it is the second most used drug of abuse in the United states behind alcohol

Marijuana

What are some ways marijuana can affect physical health

Smoking it damages the respiratory tract and is a cancer risk. It burns hotter than a cigarette and has 50% more cancer causing agents in tar than regular cigarettes it can also have an adverse effect on male and female reproductive systems

When taken orally the effects of this drug develop over a period of two to three hours

Marijuana

When smoked the effects of this drug are almost immediate and have a shorter duration

Marijuana

This drug is linked with the phenomenon known as burnout with symptoms including dullness apathy loss of motivation loss of ambition drop in performance at school or work and an inability to plan ahead this tends to persist after drug use is stopped

Marijuana

Drugs in this class can both depress the central nervous system and excite it they work by changing the level of neurotransmitters in the brain

Hallucinogens also known as psychedelics

This type of drug can cause users to experience something called flashbacks a recurrence of the original experience or trip this happens completely out of the blue

Hallucinogens also known as psychedelics

The two main psychoactive chemicals contained in this drug are psilocybin and psilocin

hallucinogenic mushrooms

Lysergic acid deithhokymide is known as what

LSD

This drug is extremely powerful is measured in micrograms and just taking their money forms. The street name is acid

LSD

effects of low doses of this drug include increased awareness, restlessness, and closeness with others. effects persist for four to six hours

LSD

intensification of feelings in general, self confidence, and alertness, paranoia and restlessness are properties of what kind of drug?

Cocoaine

Acute physical symptoms of this drug include increased blood pressure and heart rate, dilation of pupils and increase in body temp

Cocaine

psychological symptoms of PROLONGED use of this drug include paranoid psychosis, insomnia, anxiety, excitability, loss of interest in sex, and social withdrawal

crack

Physical symptoms of PROLONGED use of this drug include convulsions, weightloss, high BP, damage to the heart and sexual disfunction

crack

emergency procedure for alcohol OD

manage airway, CPR if needed, maintain body temp with blankets, decrease stimulai, position on side to prevent choking

emergency procedure for cocaine OD

manage airway, avoid overheating, calm the individual, avoid restraints

emergency procedure for opioid OD

Manage airway, CPR, and narcan

emergency withdrawal for alcohol

provide quiet space, provide fluids and food, observe for seizures

emergency cocaine withdrawal

observe for SI, provide calm space, monitor HR

emergency opoid withdrawal

provide safe calm space with fluids, OTC drugs may ease symptoms, need to be laid on side to prevent choking

information to be included in assessment

physical and psychological health, legal problems, occupational functioning, and social relationships

collateral sources should include

family members, friends, teachers, and employers

define delusions

beliefs that are not founded in reality

define hallucinations

a trick of the senses

3 criteria to be diagnosed with a brief psychotic disorder

A) delusions, hallucinations, catatonia, or disorganized speech, B) symptoms last more than a day but less than a month C) cannot be attributed to another psychotic or depressive disorder

symptoms of this category of disorder include disrupting cognitive processes, emotional behavior, relationships, and self control

personality disorder

five traits of this type of disorder include neuroticism, extroversion/introversion, openness to experience, agreeableness/antagonism, and conscientiousness

personality disorder

Cluster A of personality disorders are called the eccentric type and consist of what 3 types

paranoid, schizoid, an schizotypal

Cluster B of personality disorders are called the dramatic type and consist of what 4 types

antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic

Cluster C of personality disorders are called the Fearful type and consist of what 3 types

avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive.

DSM defined criteria for major depressive disorder

when a person has one or more major depressive episodes with no history of mania or mixed episodes

what percentage of women will fit the diagnostic criteria for major depressive disorder after pregnancy

15 percent with up to 75 percent experiencing some symptoms

5 features commonly associated with schizophrenia

somatic complaints, inappropriate affect, loss of pleasure, dysphoric mood, abnormalities in motor behavior

positive symptoms of schizophrenia

delusions and hallucinations

a side effect of antipsychotics that causes involuntary muscle movement

tardive dyskinesia

this type of anxiety disorder includes recurrent brief but intense fear in the form of panic attacks with physical or psychological symptoms

panic disorder

this type of anxiety disorder includes fear of specific situations or objects

phobia

this type of anxiety disorder includes chronic physiological and cognitive symptoms of destress, excessive worry lasting at least 6 months

generalized anxiety disorder

this type of anxiety disorder includes excessive anxiety related to begin separated from someone the client is attached to

separation anxiety

this type of anxiety disorder includes inability to speak in social settings though normally able to speak

selective mutism

this type of anxiety disorder includes anxiety about social situations

social anxiety

this type of anxiety disorder includes anxiety of being outside the home or in open places

agoraphobia

define a manic episode

an episode of significantly elevated demonstrative, or irritable mood

what are the diagnostic criteria for bipolar 1

the client must experience a manic episode that is preceded or followed by an episode of major depression or hypomani

what are the diagnostic criteria for Bipolar 2?

the client has had one or more major depressive episodes and one or more hypomanic episodes

define hypomania

an episode of significantly elevated, demonstrative, or irritable mood

MICA stand for?

mentally ill chemical abuser

MISA stands for

mentally ill substance abuser

screening for co-ocurring disorders is with the goal of

determining if a client warrants further assessment

define clinical examination

when a client is asked about their history of drug use and abstinence

the 5 principles of motivational interviewing

show empathy, expose inconsistances, no confrontation, be flexible, rewardprogress

name the five strategies that are useful in early treatment

open ended questions, reflective listening, summarizing, affirming, and eliciting self motivational statements

the four types of self motivational statements

acknowledgment of the issue, emotional expression of concern for the problem, intention to change behavior, optimism about change

what is it called when a client sees the need to enter a program but denies a serious problem

ambivilance

What is the term for restating what the counselor thinks the client meant rather than using a question

reflective listening

this method of handling resistance involves repeating the clients statement in a nonjudgemental way

simple reflection

this method of handling resistance involves repeating client's statement in an exaggerated way

amplified reflection

this method of handling resistance involves acknowledging the client's statement and referring to a statement the client made in the past that contridicts it

double sided reflection

this method of handling resistance involves turning the clients focus away from the problem

shifting focus

this method of handling resistance involves making a statement that agrees with the client while also making a statement that changes the direction of the conversation

agreement with a twist

this method of handling resistance involves restating the clients negative statement in a positive way

reframing

this method of handling resistance involves agreeing with the negative statement made by the client inducing a change in direction

siding with the negative

CAGE is an assessment used to determine if people are drinking excessively what does it stand for?

cutting down, annoyed at criticism, guilty feeling, eye opener

SBI, a method of identifying substance users and utilizing brief interventions to reduce use, stand for what?

screening to brief intervention

what does SBIRT stand for?

screening brief intervention and referral to treatment

Studyguide Flashcards

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