substances, liver, minerals and vitamins, respiratory system Flashcards Preview

NBDE PART 1 BIOCHEM/PHYSIOLOGY > substances, liver, minerals and vitamins, respiratory system > Flashcards

Flashcards in substances, liver, minerals and vitamins, respiratory system Deck (345):
1

the common precursor of all 3 aromatic amino acids is

chorismate

2

tyrosine is not essential to the human diet because

it can be synthesized from phenylalanine
(remember P before Tyr so p makes T)

3

tyrosine is the precursor of

TMEND: melanin, epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, thyroid hormones

4

chorismate makes ==>

tryptophan and prephenate

5

prephenate makes

tyrosine and phenylalanine

6

serotonin synthesized from

tryptophan

7

serotonin is released from platelets upon damage to BV's and acts as a potent

vasoconstrictor

8

in gastric mucous membranes, serotonin is secreted by _ cells and cause the smooth muscle to

enteroendocrine cells
contract

9

in the brain, serotonin acts as a

NT

10

lysergic acid diethylamide interferes with action of _ in the brain

Serotonin

11

histamine is released by circulating __ and their sedentary cousins __

basophils
mast cells (sedentary)

12

histamine contracts

bronchial and intestinal smooth muscle

13

histamine action in GI

contracts smooth muscle and stimulates gastric secretion

14

histamine has powerful pharmacologic actions which are mediated by 2 receptor types. which receptor mediate the allergic/anaphylactic response (bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, increased capillary permeability)

H1

15

H2 receptors mediate other responses to histamine like

increased secretion of gastric acid and pepsin

16

the actions of bradykinin are similar to

histamine

17

bradykinin effects

increase permeability dilate and swelling

18

t/f heparin is found in large quantities in the blood

false
it is normally slight

19

heparin binds to _

antithrombin III = which is an inhibitor of the clotting cascade (so it inhibits the inhibitor)

20

antithrombin III binds to which factors

factors Xa and IXa = stoichiometric inhibition

21

heparin prevents the activation of factor

IX (Christmas factor) and interferes with thrombin action

22

hepain can enhance the removal of lipoproteins from the blood by binding

apolipoprotein E and by activating lipoprotein lipase

23

prostaglandins have a _ half life (short or long)

very short

24

prostaglandins act where

locally on or near the tissue that produced them

25

prostaglandins precursor is

arachidonic acid (unsaturated FA)

26

prostaglandins synthesis can be inhibited by

cortisol aspirin ibuprofen

27

prostaglandins are synthesized by _ tissues

a wide variety

28

prostaglandins are synthesized from _ pathways

COX

29

prostaglandins thromboxanes and leukotrienes belong to which subclass of lipids

eicosanoids
bc all are similar to the 20C polyunsaturated FA

30

prostaglandins differ from hormones bc they

act locally and metabolized very quickly and also the same prostaglandins act differently in different tissues

31

prostaglandins are _ carbon FA that contain a _

20 Carbon w 5 carbon ring

32

prostaglandins modulate the action of _ rather than act as hormones themselves

hormones

33

prostaglandins _ inflammatory effects

enhance

opposite of aspirin which diminishes them

34

___ pathways forms prostaglandins, prostacyclin and thromboxanes

COX

35

leukotrienes are potent _

bronchoconstrictors = cause airway edema and increase mucous production.

36

prostaglandins, prostacyclin and thromboxanes, leukotrienes derived from

arachidonic acid
unsaturated fatty acid

37

what enzyme splits arachidonic acid from the membrane phospholipids

phospholipase A2

38

to form prostaglandins, prostacyclin and thromboxanes from arachidonic acid we use _ enzyme

cyclooxygenase

39

to form luekotrienes the lipoxygenase pathway utilizes

lipoxygenase enzyme

40

NSAIDs block which pathway: lipoxygenase or COX

COX

41

__ is a prostaglandin produced in walls of BV's that acts as a vasodilator and inhibits platelet aggregation

prostacyclin

42

the ___ synthesizes ALL of the non essential amino acids

liver

43

the liver makes all plasma proteins except

Ig

44

most clotting factors made in the

liver

45

disposal of ammonia made from protein catabolism occurs in

liver

46

unlike all other organs in the body, the majority of blood arriving at the liver Is _ in nature and supplied by the _ from the_

venous
portal vein from intestine

47

glucokinase Km =
hexokinase Km =

glucokinase Km =10mmol/L (200mg/L)
hexokinase Km = 0.1mmol/L (2mg/L)

48

glucokinase is __ by CoA thioesters of long chain FA which are abundant during fasting, when the liver metabolizes large amounts of FA from adipose tissue

inhibited

49

is glucokinase involved in GNG

no

50

what enzyme produces glucose from glucose 6 phosphate?

glucose 6 phosphatase

(so in glycolysis in the liver -use glucokinase, in GNG we use glucose 6 phosphatase)

51

glucokinase is the predominant enzyme for the phosphorylation of glucose in the liver and in

beta cells of pancreas

52

other tissues besides liver and beta pancreas cells use __ to do the same actions

hexokinase

53

the 3 regulatory enzymes of glycolysis

pyruvate kinase
PFK
hexokinase

54

during exercise the liver releases glucose back into circulation. which organs take up this extra glucose (2)

muscle and brain

55

main fuel source of brain

glucose

56

brain uses _g of glucose per day

120

57

the only fuel source for (3) bc they lack mitochondria is glucose

RBC, lens and cornea of eye

58

kidney, medulla, testes, leukocytes, white muscle fibers use _ bc very few mitochondria

lots of glucose

59

_ is the storage form of glucose in plants

starch

60

_ is the storage form of glucose in animals

glycogen

61

_ and _ main storage site of glycogen

liver and muscle

62

we only store enough glycogen to survive for how long

1 day

63

liver releases glucose into the blood during (2)

muscular activity and in bw meals

64

major end product of carbs ingestion

glucose

65

fasting leads to decreased

liver glycogen

66

the two nitrogen atoms in urea comes from

ammonia via carbamoyl phosphate and aspartate

67

most amino acid catabolism occurs in the

liver

68

1. _ is synthesized from ammonia, CO2 and ATP
2. the use of 2 ATP molecules makes this reaction ___

carbamoyl phosphate
irreversible

69

the synthesis of ONE UREA molecule requires _ high energy phosphate bonds

4

70

urea is produced by the hydrolysis of

arginine

71

the urea cycle occurs partly in

mito and partly cytosol

72

a complete block of any step in urea cycle is _ since there is no known alternative pathway for the synthesis of urea

fatal

73

liver cirrhosis from alcoholism interferes in the enzyme that produces

carbamoyl phosphate

74

the level of nonprotein nitrogen in the blood is due primarily to the level of

urea

75

death from advanced liver disease is primarily due to the inhibition of

urea synthesis

76

the major regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is:
HMG-CoA reductase
HMG-CoA synthase
HMG-CoA kinase

HMG-CoA reductase - cholesterol
HMG-CoA synthase - ketone (to remember think ketoSis, and you want to REDUCE your cholesterol)

77

cholesterol is synthesized in most tissues of the body but it is mainly produced in the

liver

78

HMG CoA, mevalonic acid, isopentenyl pyrophosphate and squalene are involved in

cholesterol synthesis

79

in the liver, bile salts are formed from

cholesterol

80

in certain _ tissues cholesterol is converted to steroid hormones

endocrine (testosterone, cortisol, progesterone, estradiol)

81

the most potent naturally occurring human estrogen is

estradiol

82

Vitamin D is formed from

cholesterol

83

cholesterol absorption depends on the presence of _ in intestines

bile

84

cholesterol is esterified with

FA

85

circulating cholesterol taken up my liver inhibits additional synthesis of cholesterol via allosteric inhibition of

HMG-CoA reductase
this is intrinsic feedback control

86

broccoli, spinach, strawberries, melon, tomatoes and green peppers give you which vitamin

vitamin C

87

Vitamin C is an antioxidant T/F

true

88

vitamin C deficiency primarily affects

CT

89

Vitamin C is essential for normal elaboration and maintenance of

bone matrix, cartilage and dentin

90

if vitamin c deficient you can get

anemia
delayed wound healing
scurvy (degeneration of skin, teeth, bv, epithelial hemorrhages)

91

which is part of active cytochrome oxidase:
zinc
vitamin c
copper
vitamin k
magnesium

copper

92

cytochrome oxidase act as the _ enzyme in respiratory chain

terminal

93

which is important in the maturation of elastin and collagen
zinc
vitamin c
copper
vitamin k
magnesium

copper

94

the cofactor for lysyl oxidase is

copper

95

lysyl oxidase is found in

collagen and elastin

96

_ are inorganic elements that are essential to life

minerals

97

minerals serve both _ and _ functions

structural and regulatory

98

we classify minerals as __ or __minerals.

major or trace
major minerals (more than 0.005% of body weight) and trace (< than 0.005% of body weight)

99

calcium, chloride, Mg, PO4, Na, S, Na are major or trace minerals

major

100

Chromium cobalt, copper, fluoride iodine iron manganese selenium and zinc are trace or major minerals

trace

101

iron is trace or major mineral

trace

102

F- is trace or major mineral

trace

103

Sulfur is trace or major

major

104

iodine is trace or major mineral

trace

105

magnesium is trace or major mineral

major

106

chloride is trace or major mineral

major

107

t/f minerals help maintain acid base balance

true

108

t/f minerals involved in growth of oral and other body tissues and water balance

true

109

a patient tells you he is taking tocopherol. what is that?
vitamin C
vitamin E
riboflavin
folacin

Vitamin E = tocophErol

110

the major bodily function of vitamin E (tocopherol) is

antioxidant and scavenger of free radicals

111

dietary sources of vitamin E

veg oil, seeds, green leafy veggies, margarine, shortenings

112

deficiency in vitamin E is most in

premature infants

113

tocopherol prevents free radicals from oxidizing compounds such as

polyunsaturated fatty acids

114

since vitamin E (tocopherol) is lipid soluble it associates with

membranes, storage of fats, and plasma lipoproteins

115

1. out of all the fat soluble vitamins (ADEK) which is the most toxic
2. which is the least toxic

1. vitamin D
2. vitamin E

116

Vitamin _ supplementation has been proposed to be of benefit in preventing heart disease and cancer

cancer and heart disease

117

which severe thiamine deficiency syndrome is found in areas where polished rice is the major component of the diet

beri beri

118

thiamine is vitamin_

B1

119

yeast, lean pork, and legume seeds are dietary sources of

B1 thiamine

120

the biologically active form of thiamine (Vit B1) is

TPP thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) = formed from pyrophosphate transfer from ATP to thiamine

121

TPP serves as a coenzyme in what reactions

oxidative decarboxylation of alpha ketoacids and in formation of degradation of alpha ketols by transketolase

122

do we store B1

very little and it can be depleted in 14 days

123

thiamine deficiency is most common in

alcoholics who have poor intestinal absorption and inadequate dietary intake

124

in alcoholics Vit B1 deficiency causes

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

125

1. the acute stage of vitamin B1 deficiency in alcoholics is called
2. the chronic stage of vitamin B1 deficiency in alcoholics is called

1. Wernicke's encephalopathy = mental derangement and delirium ataxia and paralysis of eye muscles.
2. Korsakoff psychosis = amnesia

126

Limited amounts of niacin can be obtained from the synthesis of

niacin

127

niacin is a constituent of

NAD+ and NADP+

128

the endogenous niacin synthesis requires

riboflavin thiamine and pryidoxine

129

yeast, liver, meat peanuts and other legume seeds and enriched cereals are a dietary source of

niacin (vit b5)

130

deficiency in niacin

pellagra (dementia, diarrhea, dermatitis)

131

pellagra is only seen when you have a diet low in BOTH

niacin AND tryptophan (since you can make it from tryptophan)

132

serotonin and niacin are made from

tryptophan

133

pellagra is often associated with _ diets

corn

134

high doses of niacin are effective in treating

hyperlipidemia

135

pernicious anemia is caused by the malabsorption of vitamin

B12 cobalamin

136

absorption of vitamin B12 requires

Intrinsic factor
B12 must be bound to IF to be absorbed in ileum

137

in the blood Vitamin B12 binds tightly to

transcobalamin II and other plasma proteins

138

only 2 reactions are known to require B12 coenzymes in humans. what are they

methylation of homocysteine to methionine
methylmalonyl CoA mutase reaction

139

dietary sources of vitamin B12

muscle and organ meats, eggs, dairy products, fish

140

_ vitamin is required for the formation of methionine

Vitamin B12

141

_ vitamin is required for the conversion of methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl CoA

Vitamin B12

142

deficiency in vitamin B12 causes

glossitis, neurological disorders, pernicious anemia

143

pernicious anemia is an __ disease that destroys the parietal cells in the stomach. this deprives the patient of IF and neither dietary or biliary vitamin B12 can be absorbed

autoimmune

144

the ONLY vitamin that contains essential mineral elements and is the first substance containing cobalt that is found to be vital to life is

vitamin b12 cobalamine

145

vitamin B12 may be present in inadequate quantities in a strictly _ diet

vegetarian

146

which vitamin plays a key role in amino acid metabolism

vitamin B6

147

vitamin B6 is a generic name for the dietary precursors of the active coenzyme form, __

pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)

148

vitamin _ assists in sodium potassium balance

vitamin b6

149

vitamin _ promotes RBC production

B6

150

_ vitamin involve in nucleic acids RNA and DNA

B6

151

_ vitamin has been linked to cancer immunity and fights the formation of toxic chemical homocysteine, which is detrimental to heart muscle

B6

152

liver fish nuts whole grains legumes egg yolk and yeast are dietary sources of

B6

153

vitamin B6 deficiency is most common in

alcoholic - sideroblastic anemia, seizures, peripheral neuropathy

154

alcoholics deficient in vitamins __

B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin) and B6 (pyridoxal phosphate) folic acid

155

essential in synthesis of purines, thymine, and one carbon metabolism:

biotin/riboflavin/folic acid/pantothenic acid

folic acid

156

folic acid consists of pteroic acid and glutamate residues. dietary glutamate forms of folic acid are hydrolyzed to

pteroyl mooglutamate

157

folic acid ==> tetrahydrofolate (THF). clinical signs of folate deficiency are

impairment of DNA replication in dividing cells which results in reduced synthesis of purines and thymine

158

deficiency in folic acid leads to

megaloblastic anemia
diarrhea
glossitis

159

folic acid is stored in the __ and may be synthesized from

liver
bacteria flora in GI

160

GI flora that make folic acid can be inhibited by

sulfonamides and trimethoprim

161

the most common vitamin deficiency in the US is _

folic acid deficiency

162

__ deficiency is particularly common in pregnant and alcoholics

folic acid

163

folate supplements given to pregnant women to prevent___

neural tube defects (spina bifida and anencephaly)

164

the determination of _ time is the most impt lab test to evaluate vitamin K status

PROTHROMBIN TIME (PTT)

165

Vitamin K involved in synthesis of what clotting factors

2, 7, 9, 10 in the liver

166

the only important sign of vit k deficiency

clotting disorder

167

dietary sources of vitamin k

green and yellow veggies, cereals, fruits and meats

168

__ is required for the synthesis of prothrombin

vitamin k

169

deficiency in vitamin k leads to

retarded blood clotting and excessive bleeding

170

phylloquinone and menaquinone produced by intestinal bacteria produce which vitamin

K (think Quinone sounds like K)

171

does vitamin K have a specific binding protein in plasma

no

172

vitamin k is transported to the liver in

chylomicrons

173

unlike the other fat soluble vitamins, the only one that is not stored is

vitamin K

174

vitamin K deficiency is the most common in elderly/newborns

newborns

175

hemorrhagic disease of newborn is

vitamin k deficiency

176

the most common nutritional deficiency in newborns is

vitamin k

177

vitamin k deficiency in adults is usually caused by

fat malabsorption

178

vitamin K __ coagulation time and is present in low concentrations in _

decreases
milk

179

pantothenic acid is a component in:
coA
retinoic acid
fatty acid synthase
pyridoxal phosphate

coA
fatty acid synthase

180

coenzyme A function

transfer acyl group (C=O)

181

coenzyme A contains a _ group

thiol (sulfur-H) = think CoASH

182

pantothenic acid is a component of Coenzyme A. seen in?

succinyl CoA, acetyl CoA fatty acid synthase

183

pyruvate carboxylase
acetyl-CoA carboxylase
propionyl-CoA carboxylase all have what prosthetic group

biotin = ALL ATP DEPENDENT CARBOXYLASES

184

biotin dietary source

almost all foods, especially milk, egg yolk, liver

185

biocytin is

produced when biotin enzymes degraded

186

biotin is released from biocytin by

biotinidase

187

biotinidase deficiency causes

non dietary biotin deficiency

188

a large percentage of biotin is supplied by

intestinal bacteria

189

vitamin H aka

biotin

190

when avidin in egg whites bind biotin, does it increase its intestinal absorption or decrease it

decrease

191

in vitamin _ deficiency, columnar epithelia are transformed into heavily keratinized squamous epithelia = called squamous metaplasia

A

192

the retonids are the active form of vitamin

A

193

the most important biologically active forms of vitamin a are

retinAL and retinoic acid (not retinol which is also biologically active form)

194

retinoic acid is required for

maintaining epithelial tissues

195

retinoic acid is a _ regulator

gene (acts like a hormone)

196

what 3 vitamins needed for normal production of dentin and enamel

CAD

197

a deficiency in vitamin A will most likely affect the enamel or dentin?

enAmel - vitamin A

198

vitamin C deficiency will most likely affect the enamel or dentin?

Dentin = vitamin C

199

vitamin _ affects dentin most, and vitamin _ affects enamel most

C =denin
A - enamel

200

__ is the vitamin A precursor in plants

beta carotene

201

follicular hyperkeratosis (gooseflesh) and night blindness are early signs of __ which often leads to xerophthalmia which is

vitamin A deficiency
dry eyes

202

Both vitamin A deficiency and vitamin A excess are

teratogenic

203

all of the following vitamins have little to no risk of overdose except one: which one
vit K, vit C, biotin, niacin

vitamin K

the others are water soluble and therefore have very little risk

204

the water soluble vitamins (except vitamin C) are called

B complex vitamins

205

Name the 8 vitamin B's

B1 = thiamine
2= riboflavin
3 - niacin
5= pantothenic acid
6 = pyridoxine
7 = biotin aka vitamin H
9 = folic acid/folacin
12 = cobalamine

206

water soluble vitamins are inactive in their

free states

207

B complex and Vit C are _ stored in body and must be replaced each day, preferably through a high quality liquid multivitamin

not

208

water soluble vitamins are absorbed in the _

intestines ==> blood ==> tissues

209

water soluble vitamins are excreted in the urine daily. if the tissues become saturated with vitamins (since little room for storage) the amount in our urine will

increase = prevents overdose

210

the only water soluble vitamin that is excreted ONLY in the feces is

vitamin B12

211

vitamins ADEK are carried in

fat and stored in body

212

is cholecalciferol the active vitamin D

no

213

the active vitamin D is

calciTRIOL (3 OH) = 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol

214

t/f vitamin D is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight

false
vit d is nutritionally essential only in pp who stay out of the sun

215

7-dehydrocholesterol is

+ UV light synthesizes Vitamin D3 (CHOLECALCIFEROL) in skin

216

calcitriol is hormone like substance. stimulates

calcium and phosphate absorption

217

riboflavin is a precursor of:
FMN and FAD
Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)
NAD+ and NADP+

FMN and FAD

218

riboflavin deficiency most common in

alcoholics

219

T/F fluoride harden tooth enamel

false

220

Fluoride does not make the tooth enamel harder but it ___ enamel

reduces the solubility of enamel

221

1. a deficiency of Fluoride could lead to increased
2. a toxicity of Fluoride leads to enamel __ and __

1. dental caries
2. mottling and discoloration, increased bone density and calcification

222

fluoride inhibits BACTERIAL

enolase

223

fluoride is excreted by the

kidneys

224

fluoride is deposited in _ tissues

calcified (ex. bones)

225

at 1ppm fluoride is tasteless, odorless and colorless. t/f

true

226

1ppm =

1mg/L or 1inch in 16 miles

227

fluoride converts hydroxyapatite to

fluoroapatite by substitution of OH ion with F ion

228

Fluoridation of community water reduces tooth decay by _% in USA

50-60% since WWII

229

Fluoride works by __ teeth decay

stopping or EVEN REVERSING

230

Fluoride keeps tooth strong and solid by preventing the loss of minerals and enhancing

reattachment of minerals

231

water fluoridation costs _ per person per year in the USA

72cents per person per year

232

children under the age of _ may develop fluorosis if they ingest more fluoride than needed

6

233

a common source of extra fluoride in children is

unsupervised use of toothpaste

234

pregnant person: what mineral should be kept high to help immune system and growth and development of unborn child and also improves sense of smell.

zinc/copper/cobalt/phosphorous

zinc

supports growth and development in pregnancy childhood and adolescents

235

zinc is the most abundant trace mineral in the body after

iron

236

zinc supports a healthy immune system and is needed in wound healing, helps maintain your sense of taste and smell and is needed in __ synthesis

DNA

237

what mineral is key in kinase function

magnesium

238

what mineral key in vitamin b12

cobalt

239

during inspiration there is a fall in _ and _ pressure

intraalveolar and intrapleural

240

intrapleural pressure is the pressure in the

pleural cavity

241

in resting position the intrapleural pressure is about _#mmHg __ than the ATM

4mm less

242

atmospheric pressure is _ and intrapleural is __

760 mmHg
(intrapleural is 756)

243

intrapleural pressure is referred to as

subatmospheric or negative

244

which is active phase of respiration: inspiration or expiration

inspiration bc it is the result of muscle contraction

245

during expiration, the diaphragm relaxes, there is an elastic recoil of tissue, thoracic volume decreases and intraalveolar pressure

increases

246

in expiration, intrapleural pressure becomes ___ and intralveolar pressure __

intrapleural becomes less negative
intralveolar pressure rises

247

following a normal expiration, the alveolar pressure is ___

760mmHg (atmospheric pressure)

248

functional residual capacity is

when you are breathing at rest

249

in __ the expanding forces are equal and opposite to the collapsing pressures

functional residual capacity

250

either increasing or decreasing volume from functional residual capacity requires

muscle contraction

251

does temperature affect the rate of gas diffusion across respiratory membrane

no

252

thickness of membrane affect the rate of gas diffusion across respiratory membrane ?

rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to diffusion distance

253

the surface area of respiratory membrane is ___ proportional to the rate of diffusion

directly
more SA = more diffusion

254

diffusion coefficient of gas in substance is

measure of how easily gas will diffuse considering the size and solubility

255

the solubility of CO2 is 20x __ than the solubility of O2

greater

256

alveolar ventilation is expressed as what formula

respiratory rate x (tidal volume - dead air space) = alveolar ventilation

257

gas exchange takes place in bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveolar sacs. no gas exchange occurs in the remaining tract, these areas are called

no air exchange in conducting bronchioles, trachea, pharynx or nose
- anatomical dead air space

258

does air exchange occur in the respiratory bronchioles or conducting bronchioles

respiratory only

259

1. during quiet breathing the air brought into lungs I called the _ and is _ mL
2. approximately 150mL of the tidal volume remains in the

1. tidal volume 500mL
2. dead air space

260

__ is the volume of atm air that actually reaches the alveoli and can participate in gas exchange.

alveolar ventilation

261

alveolar ventilation is a good criterion for the

effectiveness of breathing

262

respiratory rate =

breaths/min

263

minute ventilation =

minute ventilation = tidal volume x breath/min

= tidal volume x respiratory rate

264

gas exchange can either be _ or _ limited

perfusion or diffusion

265

in __ limited gas exchange the partial pressure of gasses in the alveolar capillaries becomes equal tot he partial pressure in the alveoli and the only way to increase gas exchange is to increase the rate of blood flow thru the alveolar capillaries

perfusion

266

in healthy people gas exchange is perfusion unless they are

exercising

267

in vigorous exercise and in pp with emphysema or fibrosis gas exchange is _ limited

diffusion limited

268

diffusion limited means the partial pressure gradient bw blood and alveoli is maintained because gases cannot

diffuse thru the alveoli before the blood passes thru the capillary ends

269

the major factor that influences ventilation is:
arterial PCO2/PO2/pH of arterial blood?

pCO2

270

1. the central chemoreceptors are sensitive to. where are they located
2. the peripheral chemoreceptors are the

1. pH, on the ventrolateral surface of the medulla
2. carotid and aortic bodies

271

the peripheral chemoreceptors respond to CHANGES in

PO2, PCO2, and pH

272

the __ chemoreceptors are the only chemoreceptors that respond to changes in PO2

peripheral

273

2 situations that will excite the respiratory neurons and increase respiration?

increase H+ concentration (decreased pH) and increase PCO2

274

the hypoxia of high altitude stimulates

ventilation

275

the __senses hypoxia and signals the medulla to stimulate ventilation

carotid body

276

the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called

residual volume
= 1.5L in healthy adult

277

the volume of air in the lungs after maximal inspiratory effort is called

Total lung capacity (TLC)
=6L in healthy adult

278

the volume of air expelled from the lungs during a maximal forced expiration starting after a maximal forced inspiration

vital capacity

279

TV + IRV + ERV =

VC vital capacity

280

normal rate of respiration is _ times per minute

12

281

tidal volume in healthy adult is

500mL

282

the volume of gas remaining in lungs at end of a normal tidal expiration

functional residual capacity (FRC) = this is the balance point bw the inward elastic recoil of the lungs and the outward elastic recoil of the chest wall.

283

ERV + RV =

FRC

284

are there any HCO3- sensors

no

285

central chemoreceptors are located in the

medulla

286

peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the

carotid body and aortic bodies.

287

stimuli that increase breathing of _ chemoreceptors are PO2 (if less than 60mmHg), PCO2, and pH

peripheral chemoreceptors

288

stimuli that increase rate of breathing from the _ chemoreceptors are pH (CO2 and H+)

central

289

normal adult arterial pH?
vs venous pH?

arterial: 7.38-7.42
venous: 7.35-7.38

290

PO2 in arterial vs venous

arterial: 90-100mmHg
PO2 venous = 40mmHgt

291

the Hering-Breur inspiratory-inhibitory reflex is mediated by __ fibers

vagal fibers

292

the Hering-Breur inspiratory-inhibitory reflex is quiet during

normal breathing

293

the Hering-Breur inspiratory-inhibitory reflex is most important in

newborns

294

the Hering-Breur inspiratory-inhibitory reflex is a _ mechanism that prevents the lungs from overfilling

protective

295

specialized sensory receptors in the lung parenchyma respond to chemical or mechanical stimulation in lungs. these receptors are called

juxta-alveolar or J receptors

296

J receptors transmit their afferent input thru

unmyelinated vagal C fibers

297

inhaled dust, noxious gases or cigarette smoke stimulates irritant receptors in the trachea and airways that transmit info thru ___fibers

myelinated vagal afferent fibers = increased air resistance, reflex apnea and couphing

298

1. a decrease in CO2 __ inspiration

inhibits

299

an increase in CO2 __inspiration

stimulates

300

1. __ = arterial PO2 less than 80mmHg
2. _= when there is insufficient O2 to carry out normal metabolic functions; often when PO2 is <60mmHg

1. arterial hypoxemia
2. hypoxia

301

hypercapnea

increase in PCO2 arterial

302

If PaO2 galls to less than 60mmHg the ___respond by causing hyperventilation and increasing CO

aortic and carotid chemoreceptors

303

the pulmonary vessels are _ times more compliant than the systemic vessels

7

304

recruitment of new capillaries is a unique feature of the _

lungs

305

the alveoli are type I and type II cells in 1:1 ratio. the type _ cell occupies 96% to 98% of the surface area of the alveoli ad the PRIMARY SITE for gas exchange

type I

306

type II epithelial cell in alveoli are small and cuboidal and usually found in corners of alveolus where it occupies _% of surface area

2-4%

307

Type I/Type II alveoli cells synthesize pulmonary surfactant

type II

308

the functional anatomic unit of the lung is called the

bronchopulmonary segment = region of lung supplied by a segnmental bronchus

309

the basic physiologic unit of the lung is the

respiratory unit or gas exchange unit = alveoli, respiratory bronchiolis and ducts

310

conducting airways =

bronchi that contain cartilage and non respiratory bronchioles (lacking alveoli) in which cartilage is absent

311

Inspiration/expiration is the active phase of breathing

inspiration

312

ovulation is the result of a _induced _ surge

estrogen induced LH surge

313

high levels of _ occur around midcycle and exert positive feedback on gonadotropin secretion.

estradiol

314

1. estrogen ___ ciliation and transport
2. progesterone ___ transport.

1. promotes
2. inhibits

315

FSH and LH are both __

glycoproteins

316

the first half of the monthly cycle is called the a) luteal phase b) follicular phase

follicular = first half
second half= luteal

317

follicular phase corresponds to the

menstrual and proliferative phases of the uterine endometrium

318

the second half of the menstrual cycle is the luteal phase and is dominated by

hormonal secretions of the corpus leuteum

319

during the mid to late follicular phase (days 6-14) the ovary produces

estradiol = induces the cells of the endometrium to proliferate (proliferation phase

320

after ovulation the ovary enters the luteal phase (days 16-28) and produces

progesterone

321

progesterone stimulates secretion from the uterine glands in the luteal phase = called the __ phase

secretory

322

___phase is the proliferative phase and __ phase is the secretory phase

follicular

luteal

323

decreasing estrogen and progesterone levels stimulate the hypothalamus to produce __

GnRH and the cycle begins again

324

the cervix is the _ part of the uterus

cervix

325

cervical mucous is hormonally regulates so that at midcycle in response to __- promotes entry of sperm

estrogen

326

during the _ phase in response to progesterone the cervical mucus becomes thick and poses a barrier to entry of sperm and microbes into the uterus

luteal

327

fertilization occurs in the

oviduct

328

accessory reproductive glands in women are called

mammary glands

329

what 3 things cannot undergo hyperplasia?

CNS: cardiac, neuron, skeletal muscles: only hypertrophy!!

330

seminiferous tubules in the testes contain __ cells and developing sperm cells

sertoli

331

Sertoli cells produce the hormone _ that negatively feedback on pituitary FSH production

inhibin

332

androgen binding protein is made by

sertoli cells

333

Leydig cells are stromal cells that reside

outside the seminiferous tubules

334

leydig cells respond to __ and produce _

LH
testosteron

335

Sertoli cells have what receptors

FSH and androgen receptors

336

inhibin from sertoli cells selectively inhibit

FSH

337

when is a male child capable of reproduction

after puberty

338

during childhood the hypothalamus does not secrete significant amounts of

GnRH

339

during childhood the slightest secretion of any sex hormones exerts a _ effect on hypothalamic GnRH release

inhibitory

340

on average females reach puberty about _year before males

1-2

341

the events of puberty in the female (enlargement of vagina, uterus, uterine tubes, deposition of fat in breasts and hips) are largely the result of increased production of _

estrogens by ovaries

342

menopause: low ovarian hormone and __ gonadotropin levels

high

343

the _ is the functional unit of the ovary

follicle

344

the follicle contains epithelial cells and outer stromal cells that surround the

primary oocyte

345

the primary oocyte remains arrested in the first meiotic prophase until just before __

ovulation