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1
Q

Pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis

A

Pancreatic enzymes released and activated-> multi stage process

Oedema + fluid shift + vomiting —> hypovolaemic shock

Enzymes—-> autodigestion

Vessel autodigestion—> retroperitoneal haemorrhage

Inflammation—–> pancreatic necrosis

2
Q

Implications of pancreatic necrosis

A

Super-added infection in 50% of patients with necrosis

3
Q

Epidemiology of acute pancreatitis

A

1% of surgical admissions

4th and 5th decades

10% mortality

4
Q

Aetiology of pancreatitis

A

Idiopathic (?microstones)

Gallstones

Ethanol

Trauma

Steroids

Mumps (+ other infections e.g. Coxsackie B)

Autoimmune: PAN

Scorpion (Trinidadian)

Hyperlipidaemia, Hypercalcaemia, Hypothermia

ERCP

Drugs: thiazides, azathioprine

5
Q

Severe epigastric pain radiating to the back

May be relieved by sitting forward

Vomiting

A

?Acute pancreatitis

6
Q

Raised HR, Raised RR

Fever

Hypovolaemia—> shock

Epigastric tenderness

Jaundice

Ileus (absent bowel sounds)

Ecchymoses

A

?Acute pancreatitis

7
Q

Grey turner’s

A

Flank ecchymoses

8
Q

Cullen’s

A

Periumbilical ecchymosis (tracks up falciform)

9
Q
A

Grey Turner’s sign

Flank ecchymosis

Acute pancreatitis

10
Q
A

Cullens sign

Peri-umbilical ecchymosis

Acute pancreatitis

11
Q

Ddx for acute pancreatitis

A

Perforated duodenal ulcer

Mesenteric infarction

MI

12
Q

Difference between Glasgow and Ranson criteria

A

Glasgow criteria valid for EtOH and gallstones
whereas Ranson only applicable to Etoh and can only be fully applied after 48 hours

13
Q

Components of modified glasgow score

PANCREAS

A

PaO2 <8kPA

Age >55

Neutrophils >15 x 10^9

Ca <2mM

Renal function, U >16mM

Enzymes: LDH >600iu/L, AST >200 iu/L

Albumin <32 g/L

Sugar >10mM

14
Q

Modified Glasgow criteria cut offs

A

1= mild

2= moderate

3= severe

15
Q

Ix in acute pancreatitis and what would be seen

Bloods

A

Bloods:

FBC- raised WCC

Raised amylase (>1000/3x ULN) and raised lipase

U+Es: dehydration and renal failure

LFTs: cholestatic picture, raised AST, raised LDH

Ca: reduced

Glucose: raised

CRP: monitor progress, >150 after 48 hours= severe

ABG: reduecd O2 suggests ARDS

16
Q

Ix in acute pancreatitis and what would be seen

Urine

A

Glucose

Raised conjugated bilirubin

Reduced urobiliongen

17
Q

Ix in acute pancreatitis and what would be seen

Imaging

A

CXR: ARDS, exclude perforated DU

AXR: sentinel loop, pancreatic calcification

USS: gallstones and dilated ducts, inflammation

Contrast CT: Balthazar severity score

18
Q

Cut offs for amylase in acute pancreatitis

A

>1000/ 3xULN

19
Q

Difference between lipase and amylase

A

Lipase is more sensitive and speciic

20
Q

CRP >150 after 48hrs in acute pancreatitis

A

Severe

21
Q

What is used to grade severity of pancreatitis on CT?

A

Balthazar severity score

22
Q

Complications of acute pancreatitis

Early: systemic

A

Respiratory: ARDS, pleural effusion

Shock: hypovolaemic or septic

Renal failure

DIC

Metabolic: hypocalcaemia, raised glucose, metabolic acidosis

23
Q

Complications of acute pancreatitis

Late (>1w)

A

Pancreatic necrosis

Pancreatic infection

Pancreatic abscess: may form in pseudocyst or in pancreas, may require open or percutaenous drainage

Bleeding: e.g. from splenic artery, may require embolisation

Thrombosis: splenic artery, GDA or colic branches of SMA, may subsequently lead to bowel necrosis. Portal vein, may subsequently lead to portal HTN

Fistula formation: pancreato-cutaneous due to skin breakdown

24
Q

Def: pancreatic pseudocyst

A

Collection of pancreatic fluid in the lesser sac, surrounded by granulation tissue

Occurs in 20% especially in EtOHic pancreatitis

25
Q

4-w after acute attack

Persisting abdominal pain

Epigastric mass-> early satiety

A

?Pancreatic pseudocyst

26
Q

Complications of pancreatic pseudocyst

A

Infection-> abscess

Obstruction of duodenum or common bile duct

27
Q

Ix in pancreatic pseudocyst

A

Persistently raised amylase +/- deranged LFTs

USS/CT

28
Q

Management of pancreatic pseudocyst

A

<6cm: spontaneous resolution

>6cm:

Endoscopic cyst-gastrostomy

Percutaenous drainage under US/CT

29
Q

Causes of chronic pancreatitis

AGITS

A

Alcohol: 70%

Genetic: CF, HH

Immune: lymphoplasmacytic sclerosing pancreatitis (raised IgG4)

TGs raised

Structural: obstruction by tumour, pancreas divisum

30
Q
A

Sentinal loop

Focal dilated proximal jejunal loop in the LUQ

Acute pancreatitis

31
Q
A

Pancreatic calcification

32
Q

Epigastric pain: bores through to back

Relieved by sitting back or hot water bottle: erythema ab igne

Exacerbated by fatty food or EtOH

Steatorrhoea and weight loss

(Polyuria and polydipsia)

(Epigastric mass)

A

Chronic pancreatitis

(DM)

(pancreatic pseudocyst)

33
Q

Complications of chronic pancreatitis

A

Pseudocyst

DM

Pancreatic cancer

Pancreatic swelling-> biliary obstruction

Splenic vein thrombosis

34
Q

Ix in chronic pancreatitis

A

Raised glucose

Reduced faecal elastase= indicative of reduced exocrine function

LFTs

USS: pseudocyst

AXR: speckled pancreatic clacifications

CT: pancreatic calcifications

35
Q

Serum amylase in chronic pancreatitis

A

serum amylase level is not routinely raised, is not diagnostic in chronic pancreatitis, and testing should therefore not be performed.

36
Q

Px of chronic pancreatitis

A

1/3rd die within 10y

37
Q

Conservative management of chronic pancreatitis

A

No EToH or smoking

Reduced fat and increased carb diet

38
Q

Medical management of chronic pancreatitis

A

Analgesia: NSAIDS/paracetamol first line. ?weak opiate (codeine phospohate) if not effective. May need additional pain relief in primary care e.g. coeliac plexus block.

Enzyme supplementation e.g. Creon

Cobalamin/thiamine supplementation

ADEK vitamins

DM Rx

(Octreotide: somatostatin analgoe that inhibits pancreatic enzyme secretions)

39
Q

Screening in chronic pancreatitis

A

DM

Osteoporosis

40
Q

Indications for Surgical Mx of chronic pancreatitis

A

Unremitting pain

Weight loss

Duct blockage

41
Q

Surgical options of management of chronic pancreatitis

A

Distal pancreatectomy: Whipple’s

Pancreaticojejunostomy: drainage

Endoscopic stenting

42
Q

Monitoring in management of acute pancreatitis

A

Manage at appropriate level e.g. ITU if severe

Constant reassessment:

Hourly TPR, UO

Daily FBC, U+Es, Ca, glucose, amylase

43
Q

Medical management of acute pancreatitis

A

ABC approach

Aggressive fluid resus: keep UO >30ml/h

Catheter+/- CVP

Pancreatic rest:

NBM

NGT if vomiting

TPN may be required

Analagesia:

pethidine or buprenorphine ± intravenous (IV) benzodiazepines. Morphine is relatively contra-indicated because of possible spastic effect on the sphincter of Oddi.

Antibiotics:

Not routinely given, use if suspected infection or before ERCP

Penems often used, but use to treat specific infections

Mx complications

44
Q

Mx of the complications of acute pancreatitis

A

ARDS: O2 therapy or ventilation

Raied glucose: insulin sliding scale

Ca

EToH withdrawal: chlordiazepoxide

45
Q

ERCP use in acute pancreatitis

A

Diagnostic

Can be used if pancreatitis with dilated ducts secondary to gallstones. ERCP and sphincterectomy -> reduces complications

46
Q

Indications for surgical management of acute pancreatitis

A

Infected pancreatic necrosis

Pseudocyst or abscess

Unsure re dx

47
Q

Operations used in treatment of acute pancreatitis

A

Laparotomy + necrosectomy (pancreatic debridement)

Laparotomy + peritoneal lavage

Laparostomy: abdomen left open with sterile packs in ITU

48
Q

Epidemiology of gallstones

A

~8% of the population >40 years

Incidence increasing

Slight increased incidence in females

90% of gallstones remain asymptomatic

49
Q

5Fs of gallstones

A

Fair

Fat

Female

Forty

Fertile

50
Q

What is the general composition of gallstones

A

Phopsholipids: lecithin

Bile pigments (broken down Hb)

Cholesterol

51
Q

What are the relative proportions of the different types of gall stones?

A

Mixed stones: 75%

Cholesterol stones: 20%

Pigment stones: 5%

52
Q

What is the aetiology of gallstones

A

Lithogenic bile: Admirand’s triangle

Biliary sepsis

GB hypomotility-> stasis: pregnancy, OCP, TPN, fasting

53
Q

What is admirand’s triangle

A

A delicate balacnce exists between the levels of bile acids, phospholipids and cholesterol

When this balance is disrupted, especially when there is supersaturation with cholesterol, there is predisoposition to the formation of lithogenic bile and the conseuqent development of cholesterol-type gallstones.

This is because when cholesterol supersaturates it tends to crystallise and in the presence of enucleating factors can be a nidus for stone formation

54
Q

Large often solitary gallbladder stone

A

Cholsterol

55
Q

Formation of cholesterol gallstones

A

According to Admirand’s triangle:

decreased bile salts

decreased lecithin

increased cholesterol

56
Q

What are the risk factors for the development of cholesterol stones?

A

Female

OCP/pregnancy

Increasing age

High fat diet + obesity

Racial e.g. American Indian tribes

Loss of terminal ileum (reduction in bile salt reabsorption)

57
Q

What is the composition of pigment stones in the gall bladder

A

Calcium bilirubinate

58
Q

With what are pigment GB stones associated?

A

Haemolysis

59
Q

Small, black gritty, fragile GB stones

A

Pigment stones

60
Q

Often multiple GB stones with cholesterol as the major component

A

Mixed stones

61
Q

What are the complications of gallstones

A

In the gallbladder:

Biliary colic

Acute cholecystitis +/- empyema

Chronic cholecystitis

Mucocele

Carcinoma

Mirizzi’s syndrome

In the CBD:

Obstructive jaundice

Pancreatitis

Cholangitis

In the gut:

Gallstone ileus

62
Q

Mirizzi’s syndrome

A

Mirizzi’s syndrome is a rare complication in which a gallstone becomes impacted in the cystic duct or neck of the gallbladder causing compression of the common bile duct (CBD) or common hepatic duct, resulting in obstruction and jaundice. The obstructive jaundice can be caused by direct extrinsic compression by the stone or from fibrosis caused by chronic cholecystitis (inflammation). A cholecystocholedochal fistula can occur

63
Q

Pathogenesis of biliary colic

A

Gallbladder spasm against a stone impacted in the neck of the gallbladder: Hartmann’s pouch

Less commonly, the stone may be in the CBD

64
Q

What is Hartmann’s pouch?

A

a spheroid or conical pouch at the junction of the neck of the gallbladder and the cystic duct.

65
Q

RUQ pain radiating to back (scapular region)

Associated with sweating, pallor, N+V

Attacks may be precipitated by fatty food and last <6h

O/E tenderness in right hypochondrium

(jaundice)

A

?Biliary colic

(if stone is in the CBD)

66
Q

DDx for biliary colic

A

Cholecystitis/other gallstone disease

Pancreatitis

Bowel perforation

67
Q

Ix in biliary colic

Urine

A

Same work up as cholecystitis

Urine:

Bilirubin, urobilinogen, Hb

68
Q

Ix in biliary colic

Bloods

A

Bloods: FBC, U+E, amylase, LFTs, G+S, clotting CRP

69
Q

Ix in biliary colic

Imaging

A

AXR: 10% of gallstones are radio-opaque

Erect CXR: ?perforation

USS:

stones: acoustic shadow

dilated ducts >6mm

Inflamed GB: wall oedema

70
Q

Indications for MRCP in biliary colic

A

bile duct dilated and or liver function tests abnormal and USS has not detected CBD stones

71
Q

What is the indication for endoscopic USS in biliary colic

A

If MRCP does not allow diagnosis to be made

72
Q

Mx of biliary colic

A

Conservative:

Rehydrate and NBM

Opioid analgesia: morphine 5-10mg/2h max

High recurrence rate therefore surgical management is favoured

NB asymptomatic gallbladder stones do not need treatment

Surgical:

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy:

Urgent (within 1w of diagnosis in those with acute cholecystitis)

Elective at 6-12w

Percutaenous choleystotomy

73
Q

Indications for percutaenous cholecystotomy

A

Management of gallbladder empyema when:

surgery is contraindicated at presentation and conservative management is unsuccessful.

Reconsider lap chole for people whho have had percutaenous cholecystotomy once they are well enough for surgery

74
Q

Mx of CBD stones

A

Offer bile duct clearance and lap chole to people with symptomatic or asymptomatic CBD stones

Clear the bile duct:

surgically at the time of lap chole

or with ERCP before or at time of surgery

If the bile duct cannot be cleared with ERCP, use bilirary stenting to achieve drainage as a definitive measure until definitive clearance

75
Q

Pathogenesis of acute cholecystitis

A

Stone or sludge impaction in Hartmann’s pouch leading to chemical and or bacterial inflammation

5% are acalculous: sepsis, burns, DM

76
Q

Sequelae of acute cholecystitis

A

Resolution +/- recurrence

Gangrene and rarely perf

Chronic cholecystitis

Empyema

77
Q

Servere RUQ pain

Continuous radiating to right scapula and epigastrium

Fever

Vomiting

A

?Acute cholecystitis

78
Q

Local peritonism in RUQ, tachycardia with shallow breathing

+/- jaundice

Murphy’s sign

Phlegmon

Boas’s sign

A

?Acute cholecystitis

79
Q

What is Murphy’s sign

A

2 fingers over the GB and ask patient to breath in

Pain and breath catch, must be -ve on the left

80
Q

What is phlegmon

A

May be palpable in acute cholecystitis

Mass of adherent omentum and bowel

81
Q

What is Boas’ sign

A

Hyperaesthesia below the right scapula

82
Q

Ix in acute cholecystitis

Urine

A

Bilirubin, urobilinogen

83
Q

Ix in acute cholecystitis

Bloods

A

FBC: raised WCC

U+E: dehydration from vomiting

Amylase, LFTs, G+S, clotting, CRP

84
Q

Ix in acute cholecystitis

Imaging

A

AXR: gallstone, porcelain GB

Erect CXR: perforation

USS:

stones, acoustic shadow

Dilated ducts >6mm

Inflamed GB: wall oedema

MRCP if dilated ducts seen on USS

85
Q
A

Porcelain gallbladder is an uncommon manifestation of chronic cholecystitis, characterized by intramural calcification of the gallbladder wall [1]. The term “porcelain gallbladder” is used to describe the bluish discoloration and brittle consistency of the gallbladder wall seen in this condition [

86
Q

Mx of acute cholecystitis

A

Admit

Conservative:

NBM

Fluid resuscitation

Analgesia: paracetamol, diclofenac, codeine, naproxen, IM pethidine

Abx:

cef and met

80-90% settle over 24-48h

Deterioration may be suggestive of perforation/empyema

Surgical:

May be elective surgery at 6-12w (once inflammation has reduced)

Or if <72h can perform lap chole in acute phase

87
Q

High fever

RUQ mass

A

Think ?GB empyema

Percutaenous drainage via cholecystotomy may be indicated

88
Q

Vague upper abdominal discomfort

Distension, bloating

Nausea

Flatulence, burping

Symptoms exacerbated by fatty foods

A

Flatulent dyspepsia

?Chronic cholecystitis

89
Q

Ddx in chronic cholecystitis

A

PUD

IBS

Hiatus hernia

Chronic pancreatitis

90
Q

Ix in chronic cholecystitis

A

AXR: porcelain GB

US: stones, fibrotic, shrunken GB

MRCP

91
Q

Mx of chronic cholecystitis

A

Medical: bile salts (not very effective)

Surgical:

Elective cholecystectomy

ERCP first if USS shows dilated ducts and stones

92
Q

What are the features of gallstone mucocele

A

Neck of the GB blocked by stone but contents remain sterile

Can be very large-> palpable mass

May become infected–> empyema

93
Q

Features of GB carcinoma

A

Rare

Associated with gallstones and gallbladder polyps

May see porcelain GB

Incidental Ca found in 0.5-1% of lap choles

94
Q

Features of Gallstone ileus

A

Large stone >2.5cm erodes from GB into duodenum through a cholecysto-duodenal fistula 2o to inflammation

May impact in the distal ileum leading to obstruction

Rigler’s triad

95
Q

What is Rigler’s triad

A

Pneumobilia

SBO

Gallstone in RLQ

96
Q
A

Rigler triad consists of three findings seen in gallstone ileus:

pneumobilia

small bowel obstruction

gallstone, usually in the right iliac fossa

Rigler triad should not be confused with Rigler sign or the Hoffman-Rigler sign.

97
Q

What is Bouveret’s syndrome?

A

Gastric outlet obstruction due to gallstone

98
Q

Causes of obstructive jaundice

Rule of 30%s…

A

30% stones

30% Ca head of the pancreas

30% other

99
Q

What are other causes of obstructive jaundice

A

LNs @ porta hepatis: TB, Ca

Inflammatory: PBC, PSC

Drugs: OCP, sulfonylureas, fluclox

Neoplastic: cholangiocarcinoma

Mirizzi’s syndrome

100
Q

Jaundice

Dark urine, pale stools

Itch

A

Obstructive jaundice

Itch due to bile salts

101
Q

At what [serum] is obstructive jaundice noticeable and where is it seen first

A

Noticable at ~50mM

Seen at tongue frenulum first

102
Q

Ix in obstructive jaundice

Urine

A

Dark

Raised bilirubin

Reduced urobilinogen

103
Q

Ix in obstructive jaundice

Bloods

A

FBC: raised WCC in cholangitis

U+Es: hepatorenal syndrome

LFTs: raised conjugated bilirubin, ++ ALP, +AST/ALT

Clotting: reduced VitK–> Raised INR

G+S: may need ERCP

Immune: AMA, ANCA, ANA

104
Q

Ix in obstructive jaundice

Imaging

A

AXR: may visualise stone

Pneumobilia suggests gas forming infection

USS:

DIlated ducts >6mm

Stones (95% accurtate)

Tumour

MRCP or ERCP

PTC: percutaneous transhepatic colangiography

105
Q

What is PCT

A

Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTHC or PTC) or percutaneous hepatic cholangiogram is a radiologic technique used to visualize the anatomy of the biliary tract. A contrast medium is injected into a bile duct in the liver, after which X-rays are taken.

106
Q
A

Pneumobilia

May be suggestive of a gas forming infection

107
Q

Mx of stone causing obstructive jaundice

A

Conservative:

Monitor LFTs, stone passage may lead to resolution

Vits ADEK

Analgesia

Cholestyramine

Interventional:

If no resolution, worsening LFTs or cholangitis

ERCP with sphincterectomy and stone extraction

Surgical:

Open/lap stone removal with T tube placement

T tube cholangiogram 8d later to confirm stone removal

Delayed cholecystectomy to prevent recurrence

108
Q

MOA cholestyramine

A

Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant. It works by helping the body remove bile acids, which can lower cholesterol levels in the blood. The medicine is also used to relieve itching that’s caused by a bile duct blockage

109
Q

Features of ascending cholangitis

A

Charcot’s triad

Reynolds pentad

110
Q

What is Charcot’s triad

A

Fever/rigors

RUQ pain

Jaundice

111
Q

What is Reynolds pentad

A

Charcot’s tirad

Shock

Confusion

112
Q

Mx of ascending cholangitis

A

Cef and met

1st ERCP

2nd: open or lap stone removal with T tube drain

113
Q

Risk factors for pancreatic carcinoma

SINED

A

Smoking

Inflammation: chronic pancreatitis

Nutrition: high fat diet

EtOH

DM

114
Q

Pathology of pancreatic carcinoma

A

90% are ductal adenocarcinomas

Present late, metastasise early

Direct extension to local structures, lymphatics, haematogenously to liver and lungs

115
Q

Location of pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

60% in head

25% in body

15% in tail

116
Q

(Male) >60y

Painless obstructive jaundice picture

or epigastric pain radiating to back and relieved by sitting forward

Anorexia, weight loss and malabsorption

Acute pancreatitis

Sudden onset DM

A

?Pancreatic carcinoma

117
Q

Palpable gallbladder

Jaundice

Epigastric mass

(Trousseau’s sign)

Splenomegaly

Ascites

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

(Thrombophlebitis migrans)

Splenomegaly due to PV thrombosis leading to portal HTN

118
Q

What is Courvossier’s law

A

In the presence of painless obstructive jaundice, a palpable gall bladder is unlikely to be due to stones

119
Q

Why does Coruvossier’s sign occur

A

Cause unlikely to be gallstones, gallstones form over an extended period of time resulting in a shrunken, fibrotic gall bladder that does not easily distend, this is less likely to be palpable on examination

In contrast, the gallbladder is more enlarged in pathologies that cause obstruction of the biliary tree over longer periods of time e.g. pancreatic malgiancny leading to passive distension from back pressure

120
Q

Ix in pancreatic carcinoma

Bloods

A

Cholestatic LFTs

Ca 19-9

Raised Ca

121
Q

Ix in pancreatic carcinoma

Imaging

A

USS: pancreatic mass, dilated ducts, hepatic mets, guide biopsy

EUS: better than CT/MRI for staging

CXR: mets

Laparoscopy: mets, staging

122
Q

ERCP in pancreatic caricnoma

A

Shows anatomy

Allows stenting

Biopsy of peri-ampullary lesions

123
Q

5y survival of pancreatic carcinoma

A

<2%

Mean survival <6m

124
Q

Mx of pancreatic carcinoma

A

Sx:

fit, nomets, tumour <3cm (<10% patients)

Whipple’s pancreaticoduodenectomy

Distal pancreatectomy

Post-op chemo delays progression

Palliation:

Endoscopic/percutaneous stenting of CBD

Paliative bypass surgery: cholecystojejunosostomy, gastrojejunostomy

Pain relief: may need coeliac plexus block

125
Q

Epidemiology of pancreatic endocrine neoplasia

A

30-60 y/o

15% associated with MEN1

126
Q

With which MEN are pancreatic endocrine neoplasias associated?

A

MEN1

127
Q

Fasting/exercise induced hypoglycaemia

Confusion, stuipor< LOC

Raised insulin, raised c-peptide, reduced glucose

A

Insulinoma

128
Q

Hypergastrinaaemia–> hyperchlorhydia—> PUD and chronic diarrhoea due to inactivation of pancreatic enzymes

A

Gastrinoma (Zollinger-Ellison)

129
Q

Raised glucagon

Necrolytic migratory erythema

A

Glucagonoma

130
Q
A

Necrolytic migratory erythema

Characteristic rash of glucagonoma

131
Q

Watery diarrhoea

Hypokalaemia

Achlorrhydia

Acidosis

A

VIPoma/ Verner-Morrison/ WDHA syndrome

132
Q

MOA somatostatin

A

Inhibits glucagon and insulin release

Inhibits pancreatic enzyme secretion

133
Q

DM

Steatorrhoea

Gallstones

Usually very malignant tumour with poor prognosis

A

Somatostatinoma

134
Q

Favoured sites are stomach and duodenum followed by jejunum and ileum

Usually located in submucosa

Maybe visualised as a sessile mass

May cause pain from localised inflammation or more rarely, mucosal bleeding

2% of tumours arise in this tissue

A

Ectopic pancreas

135
Q

Failuire of fusion of dorsal and ventral buds—> bulk of pancreas drains through smaller accessory duct.

Usually asymptomatic

May present with chronic pancreatitis

A

Pancreas divisum

136
Q

Fusion of dorsal and ventral buds around duodenum

May present with infantile duodenal obstruction

A

Annular pancreas

137
Q
A

Pancreas divisum

138
Q
A

Annular pancreas

139
Q

What is a Klatskin tumour

A

Typically occuring cholangiocarcinoma at confluence of right and left hepatic ducts

140
Q

Features of cholangiocarcinoma

A

Rare bile duct tumour

Adenocarcinoma

[Klatskin tumour[

141
Q
A

Klatskin tumour

142
Q

Risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma

A

PSC

UC

Choledocholithiasis

Hep B/C

Choledochal cysts

Lynch 2

Flukes

143
Q

Progressive painless obstructive jaundice

GB not palpable

Steatorrhoea

Weight loss

A

?Cholangiocarcinoma

144
Q

Ix in cholangiocarcinoma

A

Cholestatic LFTs

CA19-9

145
Q

Mx of cholangiocarcinoma

A

Poor Px

Palliative stenting

146
Q

Pathophysiology of Hydatid cyst

A

Zoonotic infection by Echinococcus granulosus

Occurs in sheep-rearing communities

Parasite penetrates the portal system and infects the liver—> calcified cyst

147
Q

Mostly asymptomatic

Pressure effects: non-specific pain, abdominal fullness, obstructive jaundice

Rupture: biliary colic, jaundice, urticaria, anaphylaxis, 2o infection

A

?Hydatid cyst

148
Q

Ix in hydatid cyst

A

Eosinophilia

CT

149
Q

Rx in hydatid cyst

A

Rx: albendazole

Sx: cystectomy for large cysts

150
Q

What are the aims of pre-operative assessment and planning

A

Informed consent

Assess risk vs benefits

Optimise fitness of patient

Check anaesthesia/analgesia type with anaesthetist

151
Q

OP CHECS

A

Operative fitness: cardiorespiratory comorbidities

Pills

Consent

History: MI, asthma, HTN, jaundice, complications of anaesthesia, DVT

Ease of intubation: neck arthritis, dentures, loose teeth

Clexane: DVT prophylaxis

Site: correct and marked

152
Q

Anticoagulants pre-op

A

Balance risk of haemorrhage with risk of thrombosis

Avoid epidural, spinal and regional blocks

153
Q

AED pre-op

A

Continue as usual

Post-op give IV or via NGT if unable to tolerate orally

154
Q

OCP/HRT pre-op

A

Stop 4w before major/leg sx

Restart 2w post-op if mobile

155
Q

Beta-blockers pre-op

A

Continue as normal

156
Q

What are the routine pre-op bloods?

A

FBC

U+Es

G+S

Clotting

Glucose

157
Q

What specific bloods are used pre-op

A

LFTs: liver disease, EtOH, jaundice

TFT: thyroid disease

Electrophoresis if from risk background

158
Q

Cross-match for gastrectomy

A

4u

159
Q

X-match for AAA

A

6u

160
Q

How is cardiorespiratory function assessed pre-operatively

A

CXR: cardiorespiratory disease/symptoms, >65 y/o

Echo: poor LV function,?murmurs

ECG: HTN, Hx of cardiac disease, >55y

Cardiopulmonary exercise testing

PFT: known pulmonary disease or obesity

161
Q

Why may you do an C spine XR pre-operatively

A

Flexion and extension views, in RA/AS

162
Q

What are the different ASA grades

A

1: Normally healthy
2: Mild systemic disease
3: Severe systemic disease that limits activity
4: Systemic disease which is a constant threat to life
5: Moribund, not expected to survive 24h even with operation

163
Q

NBM pre-op

A

>2h for clear fluids

>6h for solids

164
Q

Bowel prep indications

A

May be needed in left-sided operations

Not usually needed in right-sided procedures

Necessity is controversial

165
Q

What are the risks of bowel prep

A

Liquid bowel contents spilling during Sx

Electrolyte disturbance

Dehydration

Increased rate of post-op anastamotic leak

166
Q

Indications for prophylactic Abx

A

Gi Sx

Joint replacement

167
Q

Elective GI Sx post-op infection rate

A

20%

168
Q

When are prophylactic Abx given preoperatively

A

15-60 mins before Sx

169
Q

What are some bowel prep options

A

Picloax: picosulfate and Mg citrate

Klean-prep: macrogol

170
Q

Abx prophlyaxis for

Biliary sx

A

Cef 1.5g and met 500mg IV

171
Q

Abx prophlyaxis for

CR or appendicetomy

A

Cef and Met TDS

172
Q

Abx prophlyaxis for

Vascular Sx

A

Co-amoxiclav 1.2g IV TDS

173
Q

DVT prophylaxis in surgery

A

Low risk: early mobilisation

Medium risk: early mobilisation + TEDs + 20mg enoxaparin

High: early mobilisation + TEDS + 40mg enoxaparin and intermittent compression boots perioperatievely

174
Q

Risk of DM in surgery

A

Increased risk of post-operative complications

175
Q

How does DM increase the risk of post-operative complications?

A

Sx leads to the release of stress hormones which antagonise insulin

Patients are NBM

Increased risk of infection

Coexistant IHD and PVD

176
Q

What should be done in DM patients pre-operatively?

A

Urine dipstick: proteinuria

Venous glucose

U+Es: K

177
Q

What is the practical management of patients with IDDM when having surgery

A

Put patient first on list and inform surgeon and anaesthetist

Some centres prefer to use GKI infusions (mixture of glucose, insulin and potassium)

Sliding scale is not always necessary for minor ops, if in doubt, liase with diabetes specialist nurse

178
Q

Management of insuilin pre and peri-operatively

A

Stop long acting insulin the night before

Omit AM insulin if sx if in the morning

Start sliding scale

179
Q

Outline sliding scale

A

5% Dextroes with 20mmol KCl 125ml/hr

Infusion pump with c50u actrapid

Check CPG hourly and adjust insulin rate

180
Q

What is target glucose when on a sliding scale

A

7-11mM

181
Q

Post-op Mx of sliding scale

A

Continue sliding scale until tolerating food

Switch to SC regimen around meal

182
Q

Mx of NIDDM and surgery

A

If glucose control poor (fasting glucose >10mM) treat as IDDM

Omit oral hypoglycaemics on the AM of Sx

Eating post-op: resume oral hypoglycaemics with meal

Not eating post-op: check fasting glucose on AM of surgery, start insulin sliding scale. Consult specialist team about restrting PO Rx

183
Q

Mx of diet controlled DM in surgery

A

Usually no problem

Patient may be briefly insulin-dependant post-op

Monitor CPGs

184
Q

Risks of steroids and surgery

A

Poor wound healing

Infection

Adrenal crisis

185
Q

Mx of LT steroids and surgery

A

Need to increase steroids to cope with stress

Consider cover if high-dose steroids have been received within the past year

186
Q

Steroid Rx in major surgery

A

Hydrocortisone 50-100mg IV with pre-med then 6-8 hourly for 3d

Usual pre-operative steroids +25 mg hydrocortisone @ induction +100 mg day-1 for 48 – 72h

187
Q

Steroid Rx in minor surgery

A

As for major but only for 24h

188
Q

Jaundice and surgery

A

Best to avoid operating

Use ERCP instead

189
Q

Risks of jaundice and surgery

A

Patients with obstructive jaundice have increased risk of post-op renal failure, need to maintain a good UO

Coagulopathy

Increased infection risk—> cholangitis

190
Q

Pre-Op Mx of jaundice

A

Avoid morphine in pre-med due to possible spastic effect on the sphincter of Oddi

Check clotting and consider pre-op vit K

Give 1L NS pre-op unless CCF-> moderate diuresis

Catheterise to monitor UO

Abx prophlyaxis

191
Q

Intra-op Mx of jaundice

A

Hourly UO monitoring

NS titrated to output

192
Q

Post-op mx of jaundice

A

Intensive monitoring of fluid status

Consider CVP and frusemide if poor output despite NS

193
Q

Anticoagulated patients and surgery

A

Risk of haemorrhage vs risk of thrombosis

Consultant surgeon, anaesthetist and haemotologist

Very minor surgery can be undertaken without stopping warfarin if INR <3.5

Avoid spinal, epidural and regional blocks

In general continue aspirin/clopidogrel unless risk of bleeding is high, in which case stop 7d before surgery

194
Q

Mx of anticoagulated with low-thromboembolic risk e.g. AF

A

Stop warfarin 5d pre-op, need INR <1.5

Restart next day

195
Q

Mx of anticoagulated with high thromboembolic risk e.g. valves, recurrent VTE

A

Need bridging with LMWH

Stop warfaring 5d pre-op and start LMWH

Stop LMWH 12-18h pre-op

Restart LMWH 6h post-op

Restart warfarin next day

Stop LMWH when INR >2

196
Q

Mx of anticoagulated patients requiring emergency surgery

A

Discontinue warfarin

Vit K 5mg slow IV

Request FFP or PCC (prothrombin complext concentrate) to cover surgery

197
Q

Risks of COPD and surgery

A

Basal atelectasis

Aspiration

Chest infection

198
Q

Pre-op Mx of smoking/COPD

A

CXR

PFTs

Physio

Quit smoking at least 4w prior to surgery

199
Q

What are the aims of anaesthesia

A

Hypnosis, analgesia, muscle relaxation

200
Q

Principles of anaesthesia

A

Induction

Muscle relaxation

Airway control

Maintenance

End of anaesthesia

201
Q

Induction agent for anaesthesia

A

IV propofol

202
Q

Muscle relaxation for anaesthesia

A

Depolarising: suxamethonium

Non-depolarising: vecuronium , atracurium

203
Q

Airway control for anaesthesia

A

ET tube

LMA

204
Q

Maintenance for anaesthesia

A

Usually volatile agent added to NO2/O2 mix e.g. halothan, enflurane

205
Q

End of anaesthesia

A

Change inspired gas to 100% O2

Reverse paralysis: neostigmine and atropine (prevents muscarinic side effects)

206
Q

Pre-medications for anaesthesia

7As

A

Anxiolytics and Amnesia: temazepam

Analgesics: opioids, NSAIDs, paracetamol

Anti-emetics: ondansteron 4mg/ metoclopramide 10mg

Antacids: lansoprazole

Anti-sialogue: glycopyrolate (reduces secretion)

Antibiotics

207
Q

Features of regional anaesthesia

A

May be used for minor procedures or if unsuitable for GA

Nerve or spinal blocks

Use long-acting agents e.g. bupivacaine

208
Q

What are the contraindications to nerve/spinal blocks

A

Local infection

Clotting abnormality

209
Q

Complications of

Propofol induction

A

Cardiorespiratory depression

210
Q

Complications of

Intubation

A

Oro-pharyngeal injury with laryngoscope

Oesophageal intubation

211
Q

Complications of

Loss of pain sensation

A

Urinary retention

Pressure necrosis

Nerve palsies

212
Q

Complications of

Loss of muscle power in anaesthesia

A

Corneal abrasion

No cough—> atelectasis + pneumonia

213
Q

Complications of

Malignant hyperpyrexia

A

Rare complication precipitated by halothane or suxamethonium

AD inheritance

Rapid rise in temperature and masseter spasm

Rx: dantrolene and cooling

214
Q

Complications of

Anaphylaxis in anaesthetics

A

Rare

Possible triggers:

antibiotics

colloid

NM blockers

215
Q

What is the necessity of analgesia in surgery

A

Pain-> autonomic acitvation–> arteriolar constriction-> reduced wound perfusion–> impaired wound healing

Pain-> decreased mobilisation-> increased VTE and decreased function

Pain-> decreased respiratory excursion and decreased cough–> atelectasis and pneumonia

Humanitarian considerations

216
Q

General guidance for anaesthesia

A

Give regular doses at fixed intervals

Consider best route: PO if possible

PCA (patient-controlled) should be considered: morphine, fentanyl

Follow stepwise approach

Liaise with acute pain service

217
Q

Pre-op analgesia

A

Epidural e.g. bupivacaine

218
Q

End-op analgesia

A

Infiltrate wound edge with LA

Infiltrate major regional nerves with LA

219
Q

Features of spinal/epidural anaesthesia

A

Decreased SE as drugs more localised

First line for major bowel resection

Caution: respiratory depression, neurogenic shock (reduced BP)

220
Q

What is the WHO pain ladder

A

Non-opiod +/- adjuvants

Weak opiod + non-opioid +/- adjuvants

Strong opiod + non-opioid +/- adjuvants

221
Q

Non-opioid pain medications

A

Paracetamol

NSAIDs: ibuprofen, diclofenac

222
Q

Weak opioid pain medications

A

Codeine

Dihydrocodeine

Tramadol

223
Q

Strong opioid analgesia

A

Morphine

Oxycodone

Fentanyl

224
Q

What is ERAS

A

Enhanced recovery after surgery

Commonly employed in colorectal and orthopaedic surgery

225
Q

Aims of EPAR

A

Optimisie pre-op preparation for surgery

Avoid iatrogenic problems e.g. ileus

Minimise adverse physiological/immunological responses to surgery: (raised cortisol, reduced insulin) (hypercoagulbility) (immunosuppression)

Increase speed of recover and return to function

Recognise abnormal recovery and allow early intervention

226
Q

Pre-op approach EPAR

A

Optimisation:

Aggressive physiological optimisation e.g. Hydration, BP, anaemia, DM, co-morbidities

Smoking cessation >4w before surgery

Admission on day of surgery, avoidance of prolonged fast

Carb loading prior to surgery

Fully informed patient encouraged to participate in recovery

227
Q

Intra-op approach EPAR

A

Short-acting anaesthetic agents

Epidural use

Minimally invasive technqiues

Avoid drains and NGTs where possible

228
Q

Post-op approach to EPAR

A

Aggressive Rx of pain and nausea

Early mobilisation and PT

Early resumption of oral intake

Early discontinuation of IV fluids

Remove drains and urinary catheters ASAP

229
Q

How can surgical complications be characterised

A

Immediate (<24h)

Early (1d-1m)

Late (>1m)

230
Q

What are the immediate surgical complications

A

<24h

Intubation leading to oropharyngeal trauma

Surgical trauma to local structures

Primary or reactive haemorrhage

231
Q

What are the early surgical complications

A

1d-1m

Secondary haemorrhage

VTE

Urinary retention

Atelectasis and pneumonia

Wound infection and dehiscence

Antibitoic associated colitis

232
Q

What are the late surgical complications

A

>1m

Scarring

Neuropathy

Failure or recurrence

233
Q

How can post-op haemorrhage be classified?

A

Primary

Reactive

Secondary

234
Q

What is primary haemorrhage

A

Continuous bleeding starting during surgery

235
Q

What is reactive bleeding

A

Bleeding at the end of surgery or early post-op

2o to increased CO and BP

236
Q

What is secondary bleeding

A

Bleeding >24h post op

Usually due to infection

237
Q

What are the causes of post-op urinary retention?

A

Drugs: opioids, epidural/spinal, anti-AChM

Pain: sympathetic activation leading to sphincter contraction

Psychogenic: hospital environment

238
Q

What are the risk factors for post-op urinary retention?

A

Male

Increasing age

Neuropathy e.g. DM, EtOH

BPH

Surgery type: hernia and anorectal

239
Q

Mx of post-op urinary retention

A

Conservative:

Privacy, ambulation, void to running taps or in hot bath, analgesia

Catheterise +/- gent 2.5mg/kg IV stat

TWOC: if failed may be sent home with silicone catheter and urology output f/up

240
Q

Features of pulmonary atelectasis

A

Occurs after nearly every GA

Mucus plugging + absorption of distal air—> collapse

241
Q

What are the causes of pulmonary atelectasis

A

Pre-op smoking

Anaesthetic: increases mucus production, reduced mucociliary clearance

Pain inhibitng respiratory excursion and cough

242
Q

First 48 hours post-sx

Mild pyrexia

Dyspnoea

Dull bases with reduced air entry

A

?Pulmonary atelectasis

243
Q

Mx of pulmonary atelectasis

A

Analgesia to aid coughing

Chest PT

244
Q

Features of wound infection

A

5-7d post-op

S. aureus and coliforms

245
Q

How can operations be classified

A

Clean

Clean/cont

Contaminated

Dirty

246
Q

What is a clean operation

A

Incision of uninfected skin without opening viscus

247
Q

What is a clean/cont operation

A

Intraoperative beach of viscus (not colon)

248
Q

What is a contaminated operation?

A

Breach of viscus and spillage or opening of colon

249
Q

What is a dirty operation

A

Site already contaminated- faeces, urine, trauma

250
Q

How can the risk factors for post-op wound infection be classified?

A

Pre-operative

Operative

Post-operative

251
Q

What are the pre-op risk factors for wound infection

A

Increasing age

Comorbidities e.g. DM

Pre-existing infection e.g. appendix perf

Patient colonisation e.g. MRSA

252
Q

What are the operative risk factors for wound infection?

A

Op classification and wound infection risk

Duration

Technical: pre-op Abx, asepsis

253
Q

What are the post-operative risk factors for wound infection

A

Contamination to wound from staff

254
Q

Mx of wound infection

A

Regular wound dressing

Abx

Abscess drainage

255
Q

Occurs 10d post-op

Preceded by serosanguinous discharge from wound

A

Wound dehiscence

256
Q

How can the risk factors for wound dehiscence be classified?

A

Pre-op

Op

Post-op

257
Q

What are the pre-op risk factors for wound dehiscence?

A

Increasing age

Smoking

Obesity, malnutrition, cachexia

Comorbidities e.g. DM, uraemia, chronic cough, Cancer

Drugs: steroids, chemo, RTx

258
Q

What are the operative risk factors for wound dehiscence?

A

Length and orientation of incision

Closure technique: follow Jenkin’s rule

Suture material

259
Q

What is Jenkin’s rule?

A

It is a rule for closure of the abdominal wound. It states that for a continuous suture, the length of suture used should be at least four times the length of the wound with sutures 1cm apart and with 1cm bites of the wound edge

(More recent research has shown that the optimal ratio may in fact be 6:1)

260
Q

What are the post-operative risk factors for wound dehiscence?

A

Increased IAP e.g. prolonged ileus leading to distension

Infection

Haematoma/seroma formation

261
Q

Mx of wound dehiscence

A

Replace abdo contents and cover with sterile soaked gauze

IV Abx: cef and met

Opioid analgesia

Call senior and arrange theatre

Repair:

wash bowel, debride wound edge, close with deep non-absorbable sutures e.g. nylon

May require VAC dressing or grafting

262
Q

What are the Cxs of cholecystectomy

A

Conversion to open: 5%

CBD injury: 0.3%

Bile leak

Retained stones needing ERCP

Fat intolerance/ loose stools

263
Q

What are the early complications of inguinal hernia repair?

A

Haematoma/seroma formation: 10%

Intra-abdominal injury (laparoscopic)

Infection

Urinary retention

264
Q

What are the late complications of inguinal hernia repair?

A

Recurrence (<2%)

Ischaemic orchitis (0.5%)

Chronic groin pain/paraesthesia (5%)

265
Q

What are the complications of appendicectomy

A

Abscess formation

Fallopian tube trauma

Right hemicolectomy e.g. for carcinoid, caecal necrosis

266
Q

What are the early complications of colonic surgery?

A

Ileus

AAC (acute acalculous cholecystitis)

Anastomotic leak

Enterocutaneous fistulae

Abdominal or pelvic abscess

267
Q

What are the late complications of colonic surgery?

A

Adhesions leading to obstruction

Incisional hernia

268
Q

What are the causes of post-op ileus?

A

Bowel handling

Anaesthesia

Electrolyte imbalance

269
Q

Post surgery:

Distension

Constipation +/- vomiting

Absent bowel sounds

A

?post-op ileus

270
Q

Mx of post-op ileus

A

IV fluids and NGT

TPN if prolonged

271
Q

What are the complications of anorectal surgery?

A

Anal incontinence

Stenosis

Anal fissure

272
Q

What are the complications of small bowel surgery?

A

Short gut syndrome (<250cm)

273
Q

Def: short gut syndrome

A

Malabsorption disorder caused by the surgical removal of a large portion of the small intestine

274
Q

Abdominal pain

Diarrhea and steatorrhea (oily or sticky stool, which can be malodorous)

Fluid depletion

Weight loss and malnutrition

Fatigue

A

?Small gut syndrome

May also have complications caused by malabsorption in vitamin absoprtion e.g. anaemia, hyperkeratosis, easy brusing, muscle spasms, poor blood clotting and bone pain

275
Q

What are the complications of splenectomy

A

Gastric dilatation 2o to gastric ileus: prevent with NGT

Thrombocytosis-> VTE

Infection: encapsulated organisms

276
Q

What are the complications of arterial surgery

A

Thrombosis and embolisation

Anastomotic leak

Graft infection

277
Q

What are the complications of aortic surgery?

A

Gut ischaemia

Renal failure

Aorto-enteric fistula

Anterior spinal syndrome

Emboli: distal ischaemia–> trash foot

278
Q

Complications of breast surgery

A

Arm lymphoedema

Skin necrosis

Seroma

279
Q

What are the complications of urological surgery?

A

Sepsis

Uroma: extravasation or urine

280
Q

What are the complications of prostatectomy?

A

Urinary incontinence

Erectile dysfunction

Retrograde ejaculation

Prostatitis

281
Q

What are the complications of thyroidectomy?

A

Wound haematoma–> tracheal obstruction

Recurrent laryngeal nerve trauma-> hoarse voice

  • transient in 1.5%
  • permanent in 0.5%

Damage to R nerve more common due to it being more medial

Hypoparathyroidism—> hypocalcaemia

Thyroid storm

Hypothyroidism

282
Q

What are the complications of tracheostomy?

A

Stenosis

Mediastinitis

Surgical emphysema

283
Q

What are the complications of # repair?

A

Mal/non-union

Osteomyelitis

AVN

Compartment syndrome

284
Q

What are the complications of hip replacement?

A

Deep infection

VTE

Dislocation

Nerve injury: sciatic, SGN

Leg length discrepancy

285
Q

What are the complications of cardiothoracic surgery

A

Pneumo/haemothorax

Infection: mediastinitis, empyema

286
Q

How can post-op pyrexia be classified?

A

Early 0-5d

Delayed >5d

287
Q

What are the early causes of post-op pyrexia

A

0-5d post-op

Blood transfusion

Physiological: SIRS from trauma, 0-1d

Pulmonary atelectasis: 24-48hr

Infection: UTI, superficial thrombophlebitis, cellulitis

Drug reaction

288
Q

What are the delayed causes of post-op pyreixa

A

>5d post-op

Pneumonia

VTE: 5-10d

Wound infection: 5-7d

Anastomotic leak: 7d

Collection: 5-20d

289
Q

Examination work up in post-op pyrexia

A

Obs, notes and drug chart

Wound

Abdo + DRE

Legs

Chest

Lines

Urine

Stool

290
Q

What are the Ix in post-op pyrexia?

A

Urine: dip, MC+S

Bloods: FBC, CRP, cultures +/- LFTs

Cultures: wound swabs, CVP tip for culture

CXR

291
Q

Cause of post-op pneumonia

A

Anaesthesia-> atelectasis

Pain-> reduced cough

Sx-> immunosuppression

292
Q

Rx of post-op pneumonia

A

Chest physio: encourage coughing

Good analgesia

Abx

293
Q

Malaise

Swinging fever, rigors

Localised peritonitis

Shoulder tip pain (if subphrenic)

Post-op

A

?Collection

294
Q

What are the locations of collections?

A

Pelvic: 4-10d post-op

Subphrenic: present 7-21d post-op

Paracolic gutters

Lesser sac

Hepatorenal recess (Morrison’s space)

Small bowel (interloop spaces)

295
Q

What is Morrison’s space

A

Hepatorenal recess

296
Q

Ix in collection

A

FBC, CRP, cultures

USS, CT

Diagnostic lap

297
Q

Rx of post-op collection

A

Abx

Drainage/washout

298
Q

Def: cellulitis

A

Acute infection of subcutaneous connective tissue

299
Q

Cause of cellulitis:

A

Beta haemolytic strep and staph aureus

300
Q

Pain, swelling, erythema and warmth

Systemic upset

+/- lymphadenopathy

A

Cellulitis

301
Q

Rx of cellulitis

A

Benpen IV

Pen V and fluclox PO

302
Q

Def: diverticulum

A

Out-pouching of tubular structure

303
Q

True diverticulum

A

Composed of complete wall e.g. Meckel’s

304
Q

Def: false diverticulum

A

Composed of mucosa only (pharyngeal, colonic)

305
Q

Diverticular disease

A

Symptomatic diverticulosis

306
Q

Def: diverticulitis

A

Inflammation of diverticula

307
Q

Epidemiology of diverticular disease

A

30% have diverticulosis by 60 years

F>M

308
Q

Pathophysiology of diverticular disease

A

Associated with increased intraluminal pressure: low fibre diet has no osmotic effect to keep stool wet

Mucosa herniates through muscularis propria at points of weakness i.e. where perforating arteries enter

Most commonly located in the sigmoid colon

309
Q

What is Saint’s triad

Unifying factor?

A

Hiatus hernia

Cholelithiasis

Diverticular disease

?Obesity

310
Q

Symptoms of diverticular disease

A

Altered bowel habit +/- left sided colic, relieved by defecation

Nausea

Flatulance

311
Q

Altered bowel habit +/- left sided colic, relieved by defecation

Nausea

Flatulance

A

?Diverticular disease

312
Q

Rx for diverticular disease

A

High fibre diet

Mebeverine may help

Elective resection for chronic pain

313
Q

Pathophysiology of diverticulitis

A

Inspissated faeces-> obstruction of diverticulum

Think in elderly patient with previous history of constipation

314
Q

Presentation of diverticulitis

A

Abdominal pain and tenderness

Typically LIF

Localised peritonitis

Pyrexia

315
Q

Abdominal pain and tenderness

Typically LIF

Localised peritonitis

Pyrexia

A

Diverticulitis

316
Q

Ix in diverticulitis: bloods

A

FBC

Raised WCC

Raised CRP/ESR

Amylase

G+S/x-match

317
Q

Ix in diverticulitis: imaging

A

Erect CXR: ?perforation

AXR: fluid level/air in bowel wall

Contrast CT

Gastrograffin enema

318
Q

Ix in diverticulitis: endoscopy

A

Flexi sig

Colonscopy (not used in acute attack)

319
Q

What can be used to grade diverticulitis perforation

A

Hinchey grading

320
Q

Hinchey 1

A

Localised para-colonic abscess- surgery rarely needed

321
Q

Hinchey 2

A

Large abscess extending into pelvis

May resolve without surgery

322
Q

Hinchey 3

A

Generalised purulent peritonitis

Surgery needed

323
Q

Hinchey 4

A

Generalised faecal peritonitis

Surgery needed

324
Q

Mx of mild acute diverticulitis

A

Can be treated at home with bowel rest (fluids only)

and abx- some conflicting evidence about use of abx in uncomplicated diverticular disease.. (augmentin +/- met)

325
Q

Indications for admission acute diverticulitis

A

Unwell

Fluids can’t be tolerated

Pain can’t be controlled

326
Q

Medical Mx of acute diverticulitis

A

NBM

IV fluids

Analgesia: paracetamol

Antibiotics: cef and met

Most cases settle

327
Q

NSAIDs and opioid analgesics in diverticulitis

A

Have been identified as risk factors for perforation

328
Q

Indications for surgical management of diverticulitis

A

Perforation

Large haemorrhage

Stricture leading to obstruction

329
Q

Surgical procedure used in diverticulitis

A

Harmann’s to resect diseased bowel

330
Q

Complications of diverticulitis

A

Perforation

Haemorrhage

Abscess

Fistulae

Strictures

331
Q

Sudden onset pain

Generalised peritonitis and shock

+/- preceding diverticulitis

A

?Perforation

332
Q

Mx of perforation in diverticulitis

A

CXR: free air under the diaphragm

Rx: Hartmann’s

333
Q

Suddeen painless, bright red PR bleed

Following diverticulitis

A

?Haemorrhage

334
Q

Ix in ?haemorrhage in diverticulitis

A

Mesenteric angiography or colonoscopy

335
Q

Mx of haemorrhage in diverticulitis

A

Usually stops spontaneously

May need transfusion

Colonoscopy +/- diathermy/adrenaline

Embolisation

Resection

336
Q

Walled off perforation

Swinging fever

Localising signs e.g. boggy rectal mass

Leukocytosis

Hx of diverticulitis

A

?Abscess

337
Q

Mx of diverticulitis abscess

A

Abx + CT/US guided drainage

338
Q

Types of of fistulae following diverticulitis

A

Enterocolic

Colovaginal

Colovesicular

339
Q

Pneumaturia + intractable UTIs

A

?Colovesciular fistula

340
Q

What may occur after diverticulitis

A

Colon may heal with fibrous strictures

341
Q

Mx of strictures post diverticulitis

A

Resection (usually with primary anastomosis)

Stenting

342
Q

How can bowel obstruction be classified

A

Simple

Closed loop

Strangulated

343
Q

Simple bowel obstruction

A

1 obstructing point + no vascular compromise

May be partial or complete

344
Q

Closed-loop bowel obstruction

A

Bowel obstructed at two points

Left CRC with competent ileocaecal valve. Volvulus

Gross distension can lead to perforation

345
Q

Strangulated bowel obstruction

A

Compromised blood supply

Localised, constant pain + peritonism

Fever and raised WCC

346
Q

What are the commonest causes of SBO

A

Adhesions: 60%

Hernia

347
Q

What are the commonest causes of LBO

A

Colorectal neoplasia (60%)

Diverticular stricture (20%)

Volvulus 5%

348
Q

How can bowel obstruction be classified

A

Non-mechanical

Mechanical

349
Q

What is non-mechanical bowel obstruction?

A

Paralytic ileus

350
Q

Causes of paralytic ileus

A

Post-op

Peritonitis

Pancreatitis or any localised inflammation

Posions/drugs: anti-AChM

Pseudo-obstruction

Metabolic: hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypomagnesia, uraemia

Mesenteric ischaemia

351
Q

Intestinal pseudo-obstruction

A

Intestinal pseudo-obstruction is a clinical syndrome caused by severe impairment in the ability of the intestines to push food through. It is characterized by the signs and symptoms of intestinal obstruction without any lesion in the intestinal lumen.[1] Clinical features can include abdominal pain, nausea, severe distension, vomiting, dysphagia, diarrhea and constipation, depending upon the part of the gastrointestinal tract involved.[2] The condition can begin at any age and it can be a primary condition (idiopathic or inherited) or caused by another disease (secondary).[3]

It can be chronic[4] or acute.[5]

352
Q

How can mechanical bowel obstruction be classified?

A

Intraluminal

Intramural

Extramural

353
Q

What are the intraluminal causes of bowel obstruction

A

Impacted matter: faeces, worms, bezoars

Intussuception

Gallstones

354
Q

What are the intramural causes of mechanical obstruction?

A

Benign stricutre: IBD, Sx, ischaemic colitis, diverticulitis, RTx

Neoplasia

Congenital atresia

355
Q

What are the extramural causes of bowel obstruction

A

Hernia

Adhesions

Volvulus (sigmoid, caecal, gastric)

Extrinsic compression: pseudocyst, abscess, haematoma, tumour e.g. ovarian, congenital bands e.g. Ladds

356
Q

Ladd’s bands

A

Ladd’s bands, sometimes called bands of Ladd, are fibrous stalks of peritoneal tissue that attach the cecum to the abdominal wall and create an obstruction of the duodenum. This condition is found in malrotation of the intestine.

357
Q

Presentation of bowel obstruction

A

Abdominal pain:

Colicky, central but level depends on gut region, constant/localised pain suggest strangulation or impending perforation

Distension:

with lower bowel involvement

Vomiting:

early in high, late or absent in low

Absolute constipation

358
Q

Abdominal pain:

Colicky, central but level depends on gut region, constant/localised pain suggest strangulation or impending perforation

Distension:

with lower bowel involvement

Vomiting:

early in high, late or absent in low

Absolute constipation

A

?Bowel obstruction

359
Q

Absolute constipation

A

Of flatus and faeces

360
Q

Examination findings in bowel obstruction

A

Tachycardia: hypovolaemia, strangulation
Dehydration, hypovolaemia

Fever: suggests inflammatory disease or strangulation

Surgical scars

Hernias

Mass: neoplastic or inflammatory

Bowel sounds: increased in mechanical obstruction, reduced in ileus

PR: empty rectum, rectal mass, hard impacted stool, blood from higher pathology

361
Q

Bowel obstruction, increased bowel sounds

A

Mechanical obstruction

362
Q

Bowel obstruction, reduced bowel sounds

A

Ileus

363
Q

Ix in bowel obstruction: bloods

A

FBC: raised WCC

U+Es: dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities

Amylase: ++ in strangulation/perforation

VBG: raised lactate in strangulation

G+S, clotting: may need Sx

364
Q

Ix in bowel obstruction: imaging

A

Erect CXR

AXR +/- erect film for fluid levels

CT: can show transition point

365
Q

Ix in bowel obstruction: gastrograffin studies

A

Look for mechanical obstruction: no free flow

Follow through or enema

Follow through may relive mild mechanical obstruction, usually adhesional

366
Q

Ix in bowel obstruction: colonoscopy

A

Can be used in some cases

Risk of perforation

May be used to therapeutically stent

367
Q

AXR findings in ileus

A

Both small and large bowel may be visible

No clear transition point

368
Q

SBO AXR findings

A

Diameter >3

Central

Valvulae coniventes: completely across

LB gas absent

Many loops

Many, short fluid levels

369
Q
A
370
Q

LBO AXR findings

A

>6cm (caecum >9cm)

Peripheral loccation

Haustra- partially across

LB gas present in rectum

Few loops

Few, long fluid levels

371
Q
A
372
Q
A
373
Q

Def: Meckel’s diverticulum

A

Ileal remnant of vitellointestinal duct

Joins yoke sac to midgut lumen

374
Q

Features of Meckel’s diverticulum

A

A true diverticulum

2 inches long

2ft from ileocaecal vavle on antimesenteric border

2% of population

2% symptomatic

Contain ectopic gastric or pancreatic tissue

375
Q

Symptomatic Meckel’s presentation

A

Rectal bleeding from gastric mucosa

Diverticulitis mimicking appendicitis

Intussuception

Volvulus

Malignant change: adenocarcinoma

Raspberry tumour: musoca protruding at umbilicius: vitello-intestinal fistula

Littre’s hernia

376
Q

Rectal bleeding from gastric mucosa

Diverticulitis mimicking appendicitis

Intussuception

Volvulus

Malignant change: adenocarcinoma

Raspberry tumour: musoca protruding at umbilicius: vitello-intestinal fistula

Littre’s hernia

A

Meckels diverticulum

377
Q

Littre hernia

A

Littre hernia is a hernia containing a Meckel’s diverticulum. Also known as a persistent omphalomesenteric duct hernia. It is most frequently encountered in the inguinal region.

378
Q

Dx of Meckel’s

A

Tc pertechnecate scan +ve in 70% (detects gastric mucosa)

379
Q

Rx Meckels

A

Surgical resection

380
Q

Def: intussuception

A

Portion of the intestine (the intussuception) is invaginated into its own lumen (the intussuscipiens)

381
Q

Causes of intussuception

A

Hypertrophied Peyer’s patch

Meckel’s

HSP

Petuz-Jeghers

Lymphoma

382
Q

Presentation of intussuception

A

6-12mo

Colicky abdo pain: episodic incosolable crying, drawing up legs +/- bilious vomiting

Redcurrent jelly stools

Sausage shaped abdominal mass

383
Q

6-12mo

Colicky abdo pain: episodic incosolable crying, drawing up legs +/- bilious vomiting

Redcurrent jelly stools

Sausage shaped abdominal mass

A

Intussuception

384
Q

NB intussuception in adults

A

Rarely occurs

If it does, consider neoplasm as a lead point

385
Q

Mx of intussusception

A

Resuscitate and X-match, NGT

US + reduction by air enema

Sx if irreducible

386
Q

Def: mesenteric adenitits

A

URTI/viral infeciotn-> enlargement of mesenteric LNs= pain tenderness and fever

387
Q

Differentiating features of mesenteric adenitis

A

Post URTI

Headache + photophobia

Higher temperature

Tenderness is more generalised

Lymphocytosis

388
Q

Gross anatomy: External ear

A

Auricle

External auditory meatus

389
Q

Gross antomy: middle ear

A

Tympanic:

malleus, incus and stapes

390
Q

Gross anatomy: inner ear

A

Semicircular canals, vestibule, cochlea

391
Q
A
392
Q

Purpose of audiometry

A

Quantify loss and determine its nature

393
Q

Features of pure tone audiometry

A

Headphones deliver tones at different frequencies and strengths

Patient indicates when sound appears and disappears

Mastoid vibrator- bone conduction threshold

Threshold at different frequences are plotted to give an audiogram

394
Q

Purpose of tympanometry

A

Measures stiffness of the ear drum

Evaluates middle ear function

395
Q

Flat tympanogram=

A

Mid ear fluid or perforation

396
Q

Shifted tympanogram=

A

+/- mid ear pressure

397
Q

Features of evoked response audiometry

A

Auditory stimulus with measurement of elicited brain response by surface electrode

Used for neonatal screening if otoacoustic emission test negative

398
Q

Presentation of otitis externa

A

Watery discharge

Itch

Pain and tragal tenderness

399
Q

Watery discharge

Itch

Pain and tragal tenderness

A

?Otitis externa

400
Q

Causes of otitis externa

A

Moisture e.g. swimming

Trauma e.g. fingernails

Absence of wax

Hearing aid

401
Q

Organisms causing otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas

Staph aureus

402
Q
A

OE

403
Q
A

OE

404
Q

Mx of otitis externa

A

Conservative: remove precipitating factors

Medical:

Analgesia e.g. paracetamol or ibuprofen

Treat inflammation:

Topical acetic acid

For more severe cases consider topical antibitoic +/- corticosteroid

Surgical:

?Cleaning of ear if required

405
Q

Rx in non-infected eczematous OE

A

Betamethasone

406
Q

Combination therapies for OE

A

Betamethasone with neomycin

Hydrocortisone with gentamicin

407
Q

Rx for fungal OE

A

Consider clotrimazole

408
Q

Consideration for amingoglycoside treatment of OE

A

If perf can lead to ototoxicity

409
Q

Severe otalgia which is worse at night

Copious otorrhoea

Granulation tissue in the canal

(90% in DM)

A

Malignant otitis externa

410
Q

Implications of malignant OE

A

Life-threatening infection which can lead to skull osteomyletitis

Look for tenderness of mastoid process

411
Q

Rx of malignant OE

A

Admit for IV abx

+/- surgical debridement

412
Q
A

Malignant OE

413
Q

Def: bullous myringitis

A

Painful haemorrhagic blisters on deep meatal skin and tympanic membrane

Associated with influenza infection

414
Q

With what is bullous myringitis associated

A

Influenza infection

415
Q
A

Bullous myringitis

416
Q

What are the symptoms of TMJ dysfunction

A

Earache (referred pain from auriculo temporal nerve)

Facial pain

Joint-clicking/popping

Teeth-grinding (bruxism)

Stress (associated with depression)

417
Q

Joint tenderness exacerbated by lateral movements of open jaw

A

?TMJ dysfunction

418
Q

Ix of TMJ dysfunction

A

MRI

419
Q

Mx of TMJ dysfunction

A

NSAIDs

stabilising orthodontic occlusal prostheses

420
Q

How can OM be classified?

A

Acute

OME

Chronic

Chronic suppurative OM

421
Q

Acute OM=

A

Acute phase OM

422
Q

OME=

A

Effusion after symptom regression

423
Q

Chronic OM=

A

Effusion >3mo if bilateral or >6mo if unilateral

424
Q

Def: chronic suppurative OM

A

Ear discharge with hearing loss and evidence of central drum perforation

425
Q

Presentation of acute OM

A

Usually children post viral UTI

Rapid onset ear pain, tugging

Irrritability, anorexia, vomiting

Purulent discharge if perforation

426
Q

Usually children post viral UTI

Rapid onset ear pain, tugging

Irrritability, anorexia, vomiting

Purulent discharge if perforation

A

Acute OM

427
Q

Bulging red TM

Fever

A

Acute OM

428
Q

Rx in acute OM

A

Paracetamol

Amoxicillin: may used delayed presecription

429
Q

How can the cx of OM be classified

A

Intratemporal

Intracranial

Systemic

430
Q

Intratemporal complications of OM

A

OME

Perforation of TM

Mastoidis

Facial N. palsy

431
Q

Intracranial Cxs of OM

A

Meningitis/encephalitis

Brain abscess

Sub/epidural abscess

432
Q

Systemic cxs of OM

A

Bacteraemia

Septic arthritis

IE

433
Q
A

Acute OM

434
Q

Features of delayed antibiotic prescribing strategies

A

Should be started if symptoms not improving within 4d of onset of symptoms or signficiant worsening of symptoms

Safety net

435
Q

Inattention at school

Poor speech development

Hearing impairment

A

?OME

436
Q
A

OME

Retracted, dull TM

Fluid level

437
Q

Audiometry in OME

A

Flat tympanogram

438
Q

Mx of OME

A

Usually resolves spontaenously

Consider grommets if persistent hearing loss

SE: infections and tympanosclerosis

439
Q

Painless discharge with hearing loss

A

Chronic suppurative OM

440
Q
A

Chronic suppurative OM

441
Q

Rx chronic suppurative OM

A

Aural toilet

Abx/steroid ear drops

442
Q

Complications of chronic suppurative OM

A

Cholesteatoma

443
Q

Def: mastoiditis

A

Middle-ear inflammation-> destruction of mastoid air cells and abscess formation

444
Q

Fever

Mastoid tenderness

Protruding auricle

A

?Mastoiditis

445
Q

Ix in mastoiditis

A

CT

446
Q

Mx in mastoiditis

A

IV Abx

Myringotomy and mastoidectomy

447
Q

Def: cholesteatoma

A

Locally destructive expansion of stratified squamous epithelium within the middle ear

448
Q

How can cholesteatoma be classified?

A

Congenital

Acquired: secondary to attic perforation in chronic suppurative OM

449
Q

Foul smelling white discharge

Headache/pain

CN involvement: vertigo, deafness, facial paralysis

A

?Cholesteatoma

450
Q
A

Cholesteatoma

Pearly white with surrounding inflammation

451
Q

Cx of cholesteatoma

A

Deafness (ossicle destruction)

Meningitis

Cerebral abscess

452
Q

Mx of cholesteatoma

A

Sx

453
Q

Def: tinnitus

A

Sensation of sound without external sound stimulation

454
Q

How can causes of tinnitus be classified?

A

Specific

General

Drugs

455
Q

Specific causes of tinnitus

A

Meniere’s

Acoustic neuroma

Otosclerosis

Noise-induced

Head injury

Hearing loss e.g. presbyacusis

456
Q

Presbyacusis

A

Loss of hearing that gradually occurs in most individuals as they grow older

457
Q

General causes of tinnitus

A

Raised BP

Anaemia

458
Q

Drugs causing tinnitus

A

Aspirin

Aminoglycosides

Loop diuretics

ETOH

459
Q

Components of tinnitus history

A

Character: constant or pulsatile

Unilateral (acoustic neuroma)

FHx: otoscleoris

Alleviating/exacerbating factors e.g. worse at night

Associations:

Vertigo: Meniere’s, acoustic neuroma

Deafness: Meniere’s, acoustic neuroma

Causes e.g. head injury, noise, drugs, Fhx

460
Q

Def: otosclerosis

A

Hereditary disorder causing progressive deagness due to bone overgrowth in the inner ear

461
Q

Examination in tinnitus

A

Otoscopy

Tuning fork tests

Pulse and BP

462
Q

Ix in tinnitus

A

Audiometry and tympanogram

MRI if unilateral to exclude acoustic neuroma

463
Q

Mx of tinnitus

A

Treat underlying causes

Psych support: tinnitus retraining therapy

Hypnotics at night may help

464
Q

Def: vertigo

A

The illusion of movement

465
Q

How can the causes of vertigo be classified

A

Peripheral/vestibular

Central

Drugs

466
Q

Peripheral causes of vertigo

A

Meniere’s

BPPV

Labyrinthitis

467
Q

Central causes of vertigo

A

Acoustic neuroma

MS

Vertebrobasilar insufficiency

Stroke

Head injury

Inner ear syphillis

468
Q

Drugs causing vertigo

A

Gentamicin

Loop diuretics

Metronidazole

Co-trimoxazole

469
Q

Components of vertigo history

A

Is it true vertigo or light-headedness: which way are things moving: spinning/whirling when not moving (vertigo), sense of imbalance or staggering when walking (disequilibirium), light headedness (presyncope), dizziness caused by hyperventilation

Timespan

Associated symptoms: n/v, hearing loss, tinnitus, nystagmus

470
Q

Nystagmus

A

Condition of involuntary eye movement

can be physiological or pathological

471
Q

Examinations and tests in vertigo

A

Hearing

Cranial nerve

Cerebellar and gait

Rombergs +ve= vestibular or proprioception

Hallpike manouvre

Audiometry, calorimetry, LP, MRI

472
Q

Meniere’s triad

A

Vertigo

Tinnitus

Hearing loss

473
Q

Pathology of Meniere’s disease

A

Dilatation of endolymph spaces of membranous labyrinth (endolymphatic oedema)

474
Q

Attacks occuring in clusters lasting up to 12h

Progressive SNHL

Vertigo and n+v

Tinnitus

Aural fullness (pressure in the ears)

A

?Meniere’s

475
Q

Audiometry showing low frequency SNHL which fluctuates

A

Meniere’s

476
Q

Mx: Meniere’s disease

A

Medical:

Symptomatic reliefe: prochlorperazine (if severe) or betahistine or cyclizine

Surgical:

Gentamicin instillation via grommets

Saccus decompression

477
Q

Follows febrile illness (e.g. URTI)

Sudden vomiting

Severe vertigo exacerbated by head movemenet

A

Vestibular neuronitis/viral labyrinthistis

478
Q

Mx of viral labyrinthitis

A

Cyclizine

Improvement in days

479
Q

Pathology of BPV

A

Displacement of otoliths in semicircular canals

Common after head injury

480
Q

Sudden rotational vertigo for <30s
Provoked by head turning

Nystagmus

A

BPV

481
Q

Features of classic BPPV

A

Geotropic nystagmus with the problem ear down

Predominantly rotatory fast phase toward undermost ear

Latency (a few seconds)

Limited duration (< 20 s)

Reversal upon return to upright position

Response decline upon repetitive provocation

482
Q

How can nystagmus be classified

A

Begins as a slow pursuit movement followed by a fast rapid, resetting phase

Named by direction of the fast phase

Right or left beating (horizontal nystagmus)

Up-beating or down-beating (vertical)
Or direction changing

If the movements are not horizontal or vertical then the nystagmus is rotational (clockwise or counter-clockwsie)

Can also have visual evoked nystagamus (VER)- implies central lesion

483
Q

Causes of BPV

A

Idiopathic

Head injury

Otosclerosis

Post-viral

484
Q

Dx of BPV

A

Hallpike manoeuvre-> upbeat torsional nystagmus

485
Q

Rx of BPV

A

Self-limiting

Epley manoeuvre

Betahistine

486
Q

Difference between primary and secondary otalgia

A

Primary there is usually abnormality on examination

Secondary is normal looking ear

487
Q

Causes of primary otalgia

A

OE/OM

FB

Barotrauma

Rarely:

OME

Ramsay hunt

Perichorditis

Cellulitis

Relapsing polychondritis etc.

488
Q

Causes of secondary otalgia

A

Can be classified on basis of nerve territory

e.g.

Trrigeminal TMJ problems

Facial: CPA lesions etc

Glossopharyngeal: tumours in PNS/pharynx

Vagus: tumours in pharynx/larynx, GORD

Spinal nerves: arthritis/tumours

489
Q

Borders of the anterior triangle of the neck

A

Mandible

Midline

Sternocleidomastoid

490
Q

Borders of the posterior triangle of the neck

A

Sternocleidomastoid

Trapezius

Clavicle

491
Q

Quinsy=

A

Peritonsillar abscess

492
Q

Definition of a definitive airway

A

In the trachea

Cuffed below the vocal cords

Attached to oxygen

Secured

493
Q

What are the indications for intubation

A

A: protection and patency

B: respiratory failure, increase FRC, decreased WOB, secretion management, to facilitate bronchoscopy

C: minimise oxygen consumption and optimise O2 delivery

D: unresponsive to pain, prevent brain injury

E: temperature control

494
Q

Causes of stridor

A

Children: croup, inhaled FB, tracheitis, abscess (retropharyngeal, peritonsillar), anaphylaxis, epiglottits, laryngomalacia, VC dysfunction, subglottic stenosis, laryngeal web, laryngeal tumours, tracheomalacia, choanal atresia, tracheal stenosis

Adults: anaphylaxis, laryngitis, epiglottits/supraglottitis, FB, abscess, laryngospasm, tumour

495
Q

Sound of stridor

A

Insipiratory

NB: stridor can be biphasic if obstruction is at the level of the glottis

496
Q

Causative organisms in epiglottits

A

Strep

Staph

HiB

Pseudomonas

Moraxella catarrhalis

TB

497
Q

Rapid onset

Unwell

Odynophagia

Drooling

Fever

Anterior tenderness over hyoid bone

Lymphadenopathy

Tripod sign

Progressing rapibldy to SOB, resp distress, airway obstruction, stridor

A

?Epiglottis/supraglottits

498
Q

Ix in epiglottits

A

Airway prep

Lateral neck XR

Bloods +/- cultures

499
Q

Mx of epiglottits

A

IV antibiotics: usually 3rd gen cephalosporin

Steroids

Intubation +/- cricothyroidotomy c trachy if airway obstructed

500
Q

Mx of stridor

A

ABCDE

Appropriate area e.g. A&E resus

Adrenaline (1:1000) nebulised

Steroids: budenoside nebs + IV dex

O2

Intubation if needed

Cricothyroidotomy either needle or surgical

501
Q

Site of location of cricothyroidotomy?

A

Through cricothyroid membrane inbetween thyroid cartilage and cricoid

Can be done with large bore cannulae or surgically

502
Q

Mx of epistaxis

A
  1. External compresion: 90% anterior, 10% posterior, lean forward and distal part of nose, spit anything that enters mouth
  2. Packing:

Anterior: merocel (nasal tampon)/ Rapid rhino

48hrs

After removal cauterise and give naseptin cream (NB contain peanut oil)

Posterior packing: urinary catheter, insert until tip seen at back of mouth, inflate balloon slowly, don’t let go of catheter

  1. Cautery using silver nitrate
  2. Theatre

Surgical ligation of the sphenopalantine artery

503
Q

What is Little’s area?

A

AKA Kiesselbach’s plexus

Kiesselbach’s plexus, which lies in Kiesselbach’s area, Kiesselbach’s triangle, or Little’s area, is a region in the anteroinferior part of the nasal septum where four arteries anastomose to form a vascular plexus. The arteries are:[1]

Anterior ethmoidal artery and posterior ethmoidal artery (both from the ophthalmic artery)

Sphenopalatine artery (terminal branch of the maxillary artery)

Greater palatine artery (from the maxillary artery)

Septal branch of the superior labial artery (from the facial artery)

90% of nosebleeds occur here due to the drying effect of air

504
Q

What are the red flags in epistaxis?

A

Age >50y

Nasal obstruction

Facial pain

Hearing loss

Proptosis/double vision

Lymphadenopathy, weight loss

505
Q

Middle-aged Chinese people with epistaxis think

A

?Nasopharyngeal carcinoma as high incidence

506
Q

Occupational exposure to dust/chemicals with epistaxis

A

Think nasopharyngeal carcinoma as RF

507
Q

Epistaxis in child <2

A

Shouldn’t happen

?NAI

508
Q

Risk factors for mastoiditis

A

Young children

Immunocompromised

Cholesteatoma

509
Q

Organisms causing mastoiditis

A

Strep pneumonia, pyogenes, staph, pseudomonas, HiB

510
Q

Unwell

Fever

Painful over mastoid process

Swollen and boggy

Young children: irritable, pinna protrusion +/- discharge

TM perforation

Hx of otitis media

Chronic: recurrent otalgia, headache, fever, OME/suppurative OM

A

?Mastoiditis

511
Q
A

Mastoiditis

512
Q

O/E

6th or 7th nerve palsy

Conductive deafness

Boggy swelling behind ear

A

?Mastoiditis

513
Q

Ix in mastoiditis

A

FBC, CRP, blood cultures

Ear swab

CT/MRI

Audiogram

514
Q

Mx of mastoiditis

A

High dose broad specrutm IV Abx

Analgesia

Emergency mastoidectomy for cholesteatoma and mastoid oteitits or intracranial spread or not improving

515
Q

Dizziness what other questions should you ask?

A

N+V

Tinnitus

Hearing loss

Feeling of aural fullness

Headaches

Visual changes

Weakness

Numbness

516
Q

Usually preceded by paranasal sinusitits

Medical emergency

Also caused by local trauma, insect or animal bites, FB, URTI

A

Periorbital cellulitis

517
Q

Ocular pain

Eyelid swelling

Erythema

A

?Periorbital cellulitis

518
Q

What differentiates between periorbital cellulitis and orbital cellulitis

A

Orbital also presents with painful eye movements, proptosis, opthalmoplegia, visual impairment, chemosis

519
Q

Aetiology of SNHL

A

Usually idiopathic

520
Q

Mx of idiopathic SNHL

A

Short-course high dose steroids (+/- PPI cover)

With repeat audiogram F/U

521
Q

Def: acoustic neuroma

A

Benign slow-growing tumour of the vestibular nerve (vestibular schwanomma)

522
Q

Sudden onset or progressive SNHL, tinnitus, balance issues, vertigo

A

?Acoustic neuroma

523
Q

Local effects of acoustic neuroma

A

5th trigeminal causing facial numbness and tingling

Facial nerve can also be affected

If very large can compress the brainstem or cuse raised ICP

524
Q

Most common site of acoustic neuroma growth

A

Cerebellopontine angle

525
Q

Mx of acoustic neuroma

A

Watchful waiting with MRI/audiogram

Stereotactic radiotherapy

526
Q

Cx of acoustic neuroma sx?

A

Loss of hearing

Damage to other cranial nerves esepcially the 7th

527
Q
A

Bell’s palsy

528
Q

Sudden onset unilateral facial droop

+/- hyperacusis

Loss of sensation in anterior 2/3rds of tongue

A

Bell’s palsy

529
Q

What differentiates between LMN and UMN Bell’s palsy

A

UMN lesions have forehead sparing as frontalis receives innervation from both hemispheres)
For it to be true Bell’s it must not have forehead sparing

530
Q

Why should Lyme disease serology be done in Bell’s palsy in endemic areas

A

As LD can lead to facial nerve palsy

531
Q

Mx of Bell’s palsy

A

Short term high dose (60-80mg) steroids + eye care (drops with taping at night)

532
Q

Bell’s palsy px

A

Incomplete lesions have better prognosis

533
Q

What is Ludwig’s angina

A

Submandibular space infection

Aggressive and rapidly spreading cellulits from which patients can become quickly septic with compromised airway

534
Q

Unwell

Fever

Mouth pain

Drooling

Dysphagia

A

Ludwig’s angina

535
Q

Mx of Ludwig’s angina

A

IV Abx with anaerobe cover

Close monitoring

Airway +++

536
Q

Def: conductive hearing loss

A

Impaired conduciton anywhere between auricle and round window

537
Q

How can the causes of conductive hearing loss be classified?

A

External canal obstruciton

TM perforation

Ossicle defects

Inadequate eustachian tube ventilation of midddle air

538
Q

Causes of external canal obstruction Leading to conductive hearing loss

A

Wax

Pus

FB

539
Q

Causes of TM perforation Leading to conductive hearing loss

A

Trauma

Infection

540
Q

Causes of ossicle defects leading to conductive hearing loss?

A

Otosclerosis

Infection

Trauma

541
Q

Def: sensorineural hearing loss

A

Defects of cochlea, cochlear nerve or brain

542
Q

Which drugs can cause sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Aminoglycosides

Vancomycin

543
Q

Which post-infective syndromes are associated with sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Meningitis

Measles

Mumps

Herpes

544
Q

What are some miscellaneous causes of sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Meniere’s

Trauma

MS

CPA lesions e.g. acoustic neuroma

Low B12

545
Q

Acoustic neuroma=

A

Benign slow-growing tumour of superior vestibular nerve

546
Q

􀁸 Slow onset, unilat SNHL, tinnitus ± vertigo
􀁸 Headache (↑ICP)
􀁸 CN palsies: 5,7 and 8
􀁸 Cerebellar signs

A

?Acoustic neuroma

547
Q

All patients with unilateral tinnitus/deafness should receive
an?

A

MRI

548
Q

What syndrome associated with acoustic neuromas?

A

NF2

549
Q

What accounts for 80% of CPA tumours?

A

Acoustic neuromas

550
Q

Common cause of CPA syndrome?

A

Acoustic neuromas

551
Q

Bruns nystagmus

A

Dancing eyes

Seen in large tumours due to compression of the flocculi in CPA syndrome

552
Q

Features of CPA syndrome

A

Tumours within nerve cannaliculi: unilateral SNHL, tinnitus or disequilibirium

Tumours extending into the CPA may present with disequilibrium and ataxia

With brainstem extension, midfacial and corneal hypesthesia, hydrocephalies and other CN palsies become more prevalent

(speech discrimination out of proportion to hearing loss and difficulty talking on the telephone are frequent accompaniements)

553
Q

DDx slow onset unilateral SNHL

A

Meningioma

Cerebellar astrocytoma

Mets

554
Q

Otosclerosis

A

AD condition characterised by fixation of the stapes at the oval window

F>M 2:1

555
Q

Begins early in adult life

Bilateral conductive deafness + tinnitus

HL improved in noisy places (Willis’ paracousis)

Worsened by pregnancy/menstruation

A

Otosclerosis

556
Q

>65y

Bilateral slow onset hearing loss

+/- tinnitus

A

Age-related hearing loss i.e. presbyacussis

557
Q

Congenital causes of conductive hearing loss in children

A

Anomalies of pinna, external auditory canal, TM or ossicles

Congenital cholesteatoma

Pierre-Robin

558
Q

Congenital causes of SNHL in children

A

AD: Waardenburgs: SNHL, heterochromia + telecanthus

AR: Alports (SNHL + haematuria), Jewell-Lange-Nielson

X-Linked: Alports

Infections: CMV, rubella, HSV, toxo, GBS

Ototoxic drugs

559
Q

Perinatal causes of paediatric hearing loss

A

Anoxia

CP

Kernicterus

Infeciton: meningitis

560
Q

Acquired causes of paediatric hearing loss

A

OM/OME

Infection: meningitis, measles

Head injury

561
Q

What are some congenital anomalies seen in the ear

A

1st and 2nd branchial arches form auricle while 1st branchial groove forms external auditory canal

Malfusion leads to accessory tags/auricles and preauricular pits, fistulae or sinuses

Sinuses may get infected

562
Q

Features of pinna heamatoma

A

Blunt trauma leading to subperichondrial haematoma

Can lead to ischaemic necrosis of cartilage and subsequent fibrosis to cauliflower ears

563
Q

Mx of pinna haematoma

A

Aspiration and firm packing to auricle contour

564
Q

Def: exostoses

A

Smooth, symmetrical bony narrowing of external canals

565
Q

Pathology of exostoses

A

Bony hypertrophy due to cold exposure e.g. from swimming/surfing

Asymptomatic unless narrowing occludes the canal leading to conductive deafness

566
Q

Causes of TM perforation

A

OM

Trauma

Barotrauma

FB

567
Q

What are the classifications of allergic rhinosinusitis?

A

Seasonal

Perennial

568
Q

Pathology of allergic rhunosinusitis?

A

T1HS Ig-E mediated inflammation from allergen exposure leading to mediator relesase from mast cells

Allergens include pollen, house dust mites

569
Q

Sneezing

Pruritus

Rinorrhoea

A

?Allergic rhinosinusitis

570
Q

Swollen, pale and boggy nasal turbinates

Nasal polyps

A

?Allergic rhinosinusitis

571
Q

External nose parameters

A

Extends from the nasal bones and surrounding parts of the maxilla and frontal bone

Supported by the central septal cartilage and its lateral processes

At the apex there are two major alar cartilages

Near the maxilla there are smaller minor alar cartilages

572
Q
A
573
Q

Internal nose parameters

A

Comprises two paired nasal cavities which extend and expand supero-posteriorly from the anterior nares

Nasal septum separates left and right

Hard palate makes up the floor of the cavities and separates them from the oral cavity

Posterior nares open posteriorly into the nasopharynx

574
Q

What are the three regions of the internal nose?

A

Vestibular: just inside nostrils

Respiratory: ciliated epithelium making up the bulk of the cavity walls

Olfactory: specialised olfactory epithelium on the roofs of the cavities

575
Q

What are found on the lateral walls of each nasal cavities?

A

Superior middle and inferior conchae

576
Q

Which bone do the superior and middle conchae arise from?

A

Ethmoid

577
Q

Which bone do the inferior conchae extend from?

A

The maxilla

578
Q

What do the conchae form?

A

Narrow air passages known as the superior, middle and inferior meatus

579
Q

What is the major route for nerve entry into the nasal cavity?

A

Sphenopalatine formaen and is found on the postero-lateral wall of the superior meatus

580
Q

What is the space above the superior concha called?

A

The spheno-ethmoidal recess

581
Q

What are the 4 paranasal sinuses?

A

Ethmoidal

Sphenoidal

Maxillary

Frontal

582
Q
A
583
Q
A
584
Q

Features of the ethmoidal sinus

A

Collection of specialised ethmoidal air cells in the respiratory region of the nose

Openings in the bulla ethmoidalis on the lateral wall of the middle meatus

Cells between medial and lateral plates of the ethmoid labyrinths

585
Q

Features of the sphenoidal sinuses?

A

Posterior to the nasal cavity within the sphenoid bone

Openings in the posterior wall of the spheno-ethmoidal recess

Immediately antero-inferior to the pituitary fossa

586
Q

What is the largest of the nasal sinuses?

A

Maxillary

587
Q

Features of the maxillary sinus

A

Beyond the lateral walls of the nasal cavity within the maxillae

Openings in the hiatus semilunaris floor on the lateral wall of the middle meatus

Drain at the apex- prone to filling with fluids that are hard to drain

588
Q

Features of the frontal sinus

A

Superior to the nasal cavities within the frontal bone

Openings in the hiatus semilunaris roof on the lateral wall of the middle meatus

Drains through the frontonasal duct to the ethmoidal infundibulum

589
Q

What is the course of the nasolacrimal duct?

A

Carries tears from the corner of the eye opening in the inferior meatus, inerfo-anterior to the hiatus semilunaris

590
Q

Whence does the blood supply of the nose come?

A

Internal and external carotid arteries

591
Q

What are the significant arteries supplying the nose?

A

Sphenopalantine artery

Greater palantine artery

Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries

592
Q
A
593
Q

Features of the sphenopalatine artery?

A

Terminal branch of the maxillary artery- branch of external carotid

Enters the cavity through the sphenopalatine formaen

Gives lateral branches supplying most of the lateral wall and medial branches to medial wall

594
Q

Features of the greater palatine artery

A

Branch of maxillary artery: branch of external carotid

Enters the anterior floor of the nasal cavity through the incisive canal and supplies the anterior septum and floor

Anastomoses with septal branches of the sphenopalatine artery

595
Q

From which artery do the ethmoidal arteries branch and what carotid does it originate from?

A

Ophthalmic artery

Internal carotid

596
Q

How do the ethmoidal arteries enter the nasal cavity?

A

Through the cribiform plate

597
Q

Course of the anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries

A

Anterior: anastomoses with branches of the sphenopalatine artery and terminates as the external nasal artery

Posterior division supplies the upper lateral and medial walls

598
Q

Whence comes the general sensory innervation of the nose?

A

Ophthalmic and maxillary division of V

599
Q

What innervates the mucous glands in the nose?

A

Parasympathetic fibres of the facial nerve: arise form the pterygopalatine ganglion and run with V2 fibres

600
Q

Branches of the facial nerve

To Zanzibar By Motor Car

A

Temporal

Zygomatic

Buccal

Mandibular

Cervical

601
Q

Branches of the trigeminal nerve

A

Ophthalmic

Maxillary

Mandibular

602
Q

Cranial exits of trigeminal nerve branches

Standing

Room

Only

A

Superior orbital fissure

Foramen rotundum

Foramen ovale

603
Q

Features of ophthalmic nervous supply of the nose

A

Two key branches: ethmoidal nerves

Anterior branch: travels with anterior ethmoidal artery and supplies the anterior medial and lateral walls before terminating as the external nasal nerve

Posterior branch supplies the ethmoidal air cells and does not enter the nasal cavity

604
Q

Features of maxillary nerve supply of nasal cavity

A

Lateral branches supply the lateral wall

Nasopalantine nerve supplies the medial wall before terminating in the oral muscoa

605
Q
A
606
Q

Ix in allergic rhinosinusitis

A

Skin-prick testing to find allergnes

RAST

607
Q

Mx of allergic rhinitis

A

Allergen avoidance: regulalry washing bedding, avoid pollen

Rx:

1st Line:

PRN: Oral antihistamine e.g. cetirazine, desloratidine or intranasal e.g. azelastine

Preventative: intranasal corticosteroid e.g. beclometasone (if nasal blockage or polyps) or oral antihistamine

2nd line:

Intranasal steroid + antihistamine (oral)

3rd line:

Zafirlukast (leukotriene antag)

4th line:

Immunotherapy: to induce desensitisation to allergen

Oral corticosteroids can be considered for severe symptoms

608
Q

What are some adjuvant nasal decongestants?

A

Pseudoephedrine, otrivine

609
Q

Pathophysiology of sinusitis

A

Viruses-> mucosal oedema and decreased mucosal ciliary actions leading to mucus retention and secondary bacterial infection

610
Q

Causative organisms acute bacterial sinusitis?

A

Pneumococcus, Haemophilus, Moraxella

611
Q

Causative organisms chronic bacterial sinusitis

A

S. aureus, anaerobes

612
Q

Causes of sinusitis

A

Majority are bacterial infection 2o to viral

5% due to dental root infections

Diving/swimming in infected water

Anatomical variation may leave individuals susceptile e.g. deviated septum, nasal polyps

Systmic disease e.g. PCD/Kartagener’s

613
Q

Pain increasing on bending/straining

Discharge from nose-> foul taste

Nasal obstruciton/congestion

Anosmia or cacosmia (bad smell without external source)

Systemic symptoms

A

?Bacterial sinusitis

614
Q

Which sinus liklely to be invovled if cheek/teeth pain in sinusitis

A

Maxillary

615
Q

Which sinus liklely to be invovled if pain between eyes in sinusitis

A

Ethomidal

616
Q

Ix in sinusitis

A

Nasendoscopy +/- CT

617
Q

Mx of acute single episode of sinusitis

A

Bed-rest, decongestants, analgesia

Nasal douching and topical steroids

Abx of uncertain benefit

618
Q

Mx of chronic/recurrent sinusitis?

A

Usually a structural or drainage problem

Stop smoking and fluticasone nasal spray

Functional endoscopic sinus sx if medical therapy fails

619
Q

Complications of sinusits (rare)

A

Mucoceles-> pyoceles

Orbital cellulitis/abscess

Ostemoyelitis e.g. staph in frontal bone

Intracranial infection e.g. meningitis, encephalitis, abscess, CVST

620
Q

What are the sites of nasal polyps

A

Middle turbinates

Middle meatus

Ethmoids

621
Q

Water, anterior rhinorrhoea

Purulent post-nasal drip

Nasal obstruciton

Sinusitis

Headaches

Snoring

A

?Nasal polyps

622
Q

Mobile pale insensitive growths in nasal cavity

A

?Nasal polyps

623
Q

What are the associations of nasal polyps?

A

Allergic/non-allergic rhinitis

CF

Aspirin hypersensitvity

Asthma

624
Q

Single unilateral nasal polyp

A

May be a sign of rare but sinister pathology e.g.

Nasopharyngela Ca

Glioma

Lymphoma

Neuroblastoma

Sarcoma

CT + histology

625
Q

Nasal polyps in children

A

Rare in <10, must consider neoplastic disease or CF

626
Q

Mx of nasal polyps

A

Drugs:

Betamethasone for 2/7

Short course of oral steroids

Endoscopic polypectomy

627
Q

No direct response but intact conseunsual response to light

Cannot initiate consensual response in contralteral eye

Dilatation on moving light from normal to abnormal eye

What is the defect?

A

Afferent defect

628
Q

Cause of afferent pupillary defect?

A

Total CNII lesion

629
Q

Marcus-Gunn pupil=

A

RAPD

630
Q

Minor constriction to direct light

Dilatation on moving light from normal to abnormal eye

A

RAPD- Marcus Gunn pupil

631
Q

Causes of RAPD

A

Optic neuritis

Optic atrophy

Retinal disease

632
Q

Dilated pupil does not react to light

Initiates consensual response in contralateral pupil

Ophthalmoplegia and ptosis

A

Efferent defect

633
Q

Cause of efferent pupillary defect

A

3rd nerve palsy

634
Q

Medical 3rd nerve palsy

A

Pupil sparing as the visceral constrictive fibres run on the outisde of the nerve so are spared in vascular aetiologies

635
Q

Complete 3rd nerve palsy=

A

“surgical third”

636
Q

Ptosis

Down and out pupil

Dilated pupil

A

?3rd nerve palsy

637
Q

Causes of third nerve palsy

A

DM (75% pupil sparing)

Temporal arteritis

SLE

MS

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Amyloid

PCA aneurysm

Tumour

638
Q

Ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia

A

Weber syndrome= midbrain stroke

639
Q

Whence does the CNIII arise?

A

Rostral midbrain

640
Q

What are the nuclei of CNIII?

A

Oculomotor nucleus (somatic fibres)- eye movements

Edinger-Westphal nucleus (visceral fibres)- pupillary constriciton

641
Q

Course of the oculomotor nerve?

A

Passes between the posterior cerebral and superior cerebellar arteries and then through the cavernous sinus and out through the superior orbital fissure

642
Q

Branches of CNIII

A

Superior branch- levator palpebrae

Inferior branch- MR, IR and IO muscles and carries the visceral fibres

643
Q
A

3rd nerve palsy

ptosis

‘down and out’ pupil

dilated pupil

644
Q

DDx of a fixed, dilated pupil

A

Mydriatics e.g. tropicamide

Iris trauma

Acute glaucoma

CN3 compression: tumour, coning

645
Q
A
646
Q
A

RAPD

647
Q

Young woman with sudden blurring of near vision

Initially unilateral and then bilateral pupil dilatation

Dilated pupil has no response to light and sluggish response to accomodation

= a tonic pupil

A

Holmes-Adie pupil

648
Q

Iris shows spontaneous wormy movmenets on slit-lamp examination

Iris streaming

A

Holmes-Adie pupil

649
Q

Aetiology of Holmes-Adie pupil

A

Damage to postganglionic parasympathetic fibres

Idiopathic: may have viral aetiology

650
Q
A

Homes-Adie pupil

651
Q

Tonic pupil + absent knee/ankle jerks + reduced BP=

A

Holmes-Adie syndrome

652
Q

Johann Horner

A

Swiss opthalmologist

653
Q

Features of Horner’s syndrome

PEAS

A

Ptosis: partial (superior tarsal muscle)

Enophthalmos

Anhydrosis

Small pupil

654
Q
A

Horner’s syndrome

655
Q

How can the causes of Horner’s syndrome be classified?

A

Central

Pre-ganglionic

Post-ganglionic

656
Q

What are the central causes of Horner’s