System Questions 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum wind for takeoff and landing?

A

50 Knots (including gusts)

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2
Q

What is the maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing?

A

35 Knots (including gusts)

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3
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude with flaps and/or slats extended?

A

20,000 feet

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4
Q

What is the maximum gear extension altitude?

A

25,000 feet

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5
Q

What is the maximum operating airspeed (SL to FL 246)?

A

350 KIAS

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6
Q

What is the maximum operating mach number (above FL 246)?

A

.82M

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7
Q

Icing conditions exist when OAT (on the ground and for takeoff) or TAT (inflight) is _____ and visible moisture exists.

A

10° C or below

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8
Q

The maximum service ceiling for the aircraft is:

A

39,000 ft

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9
Q

Engine Anti-ice must be on for all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is ________?

A

Below -40° C SAT

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10
Q

What is the minimum height for use of the autopilot after takeoff in SRS mode?

A

100 feet AGL

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11
Q

What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between captain and first officer PFD altitude displays for RVSM operations?

A

200 feet

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12
Q

The cockpit door will automatically unlock during a decompression or if electrical power is lost.

A

True

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13
Q

If you lose electrical power to the cockpit door:

A

Cockpit door will automatically unlock

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14
Q

To evacuate through the door escape panel:

A

Remove the two quick release pins

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15
Q

Which hydraulic system supplies hydraulic pressure to open and close the cargo doors?

A

Yellow System

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16
Q

If the Yellow electric pump is not available, ground personnel can open or close the cargo doors by:

A

Using a hand pump on the hydraulic maintenance panel

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17
Q

Which of the following DOES NOT provide input to the pressurization controllers?

A

FADECs

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18
Q

The input provided by the Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs) enable the pressurization controllers to:

A

Know the planned cruise altitude and plan the cabin climb profile accordingly.

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19
Q

The following areas are not pressurized:

A

Radome, landing gear bays, air conditioning compartment and tail.

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20
Q

The pressurization controllers use the elevation of your destination airport to plan the descent profile. In normal operations, this information is provided:

A

By the FMS database once you enter the destination airport into the MCDU.

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21
Q

The two pneumatic pressurization safety valves:

A

Open automatically when it becomes necessary to relieve excess positive or negative cabin pressure differentials.

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22
Q

After landing, the active and standby pressurization controllers:

A

Automatic transfer occurs after 70 seconds.

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23
Q

With the pressurization in manual mode, the outflow valve is now controlled by:

A

The MAN V/S control switch.

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24
Q

With MODE SEL in MAN, moving the MAN V/S:

A

UP opens the outflow valve and DN closes it.

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25
Q

The ditching pushbutton is used to:

A

Close all fuselage openings below the floatation line.

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26
Q

On landing, cabin altitude will be:

A

Slightly lower than field pressure altitude.

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27
Q

In Ground Mode, the outflow valve will:

A

Gradually open during landing rollout.

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28
Q

Pressurization Abort Mode:

A

Is activated if aircraft must return to the departure airport after takeoff.

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29
Q

With the GALY and CAB pb in the AUTO position and only one engine generator operating:

A

Automatic Galley Bus shedding occurs for the main galley, in-seat power supply, and in-flight entertainment.

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30
Q

A FAULT light in the GALY and CAB pb appears when any generator load is above 100% of its rated output.

A

True

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31
Q

All circuit breakers on the overhead panel are associated with systems which are powered:

A

While in the emergency electrical configuration.

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32
Q

Color coding is used to identify circuit breakers with different characteristics.

A

Green colored circuit breakers are monitored by the flight warning computers.

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33
Q

Activation of the RAT MAN ON pb will cause immediate deployment of the RAT except when no power is on the aircraft.

A

False

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34
Q

The electrical system consists of:

A

Two aircraft batteries.
Two engine driven IDG’s.
APU Generator
An emergency generator (RAT)

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35
Q

When external power is connected to the aircraft, a green AVAIL light indicates:

A

External power is connected with acceptable voltage and frequency.

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36
Q

During non-normal conditions, the IDG may be disconnected for its engine and:

A

The IDG pushbutton should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds.
Once disconnected, the IDG cannot be reconnected in flight.
The IDG pushbutton should only be used when the engine is running or wind milling.

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37
Q

The RAT automatically deploys when

A

Power is not available for AC Bus 1 and AC Bus 2 and airspeed greater than 100 knots.

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38
Q

You can deploy the RAT and activate the emergency generator using the MAN ON pb.

A

True

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39
Q

The APU generator always takes priority over an engine driven generator and/or external power.

A

False

40
Q

The APU driven generator:

A

Can be used as the sole source of electrical power on the ground.

41
Q

When the APU generator is on and no other AC sources are available, the APU can power the entire electrical system on the ground.

A

True

42
Q

The AVAIL light illuminated on the EXT PWR pb means:

A

Voltage and frequencies are acceptable

43
Q

What does the OFF message under the APU GEN on the ELEC page indicate?

A

APU GEN pb has been selected OFF with the APU running.

44
Q

What electric source has priority with the engines off, APU available and the EXT PWR pb switch is ON

A

EXT PWR

45
Q

Disconnecting an IDG:

A

Renders the associated electrical generator inoperative

46
Q

To avoid damage to the IDG, what must not be pressed for more than 3 seconds?

A

IDG disconnect pbs

47
Q

The “RAT OUT” memo on the E/WD indicates:

A

The RAT has deployed

48
Q

Select the statement which best describes the normal A319 fuel feed after takeoff with the slats retracted.

A

Center tank then wing tank inner cell

49
Q

Which statement is true regarding fuel pressure for the APU?

A

Fuel pressure is normally supplied by the fuel tank pumps pressurizing the fuel manifold.

50
Q

How is fuel transferred from the wing outer cell to the wing inner cell?

A

Transfer valves

51
Q

The fuel system is also used for:

A

IDG oil cooling.

52
Q

What does the Green ECAM memo CTR TK FEEDG in the memo Section mean?

A

At least one CTR tank pump is delivering fuel to the engines.

53
Q

The white OFF light on the fuel pump pb indicates:

A

The fuel pump pb is selected off.

54
Q

Alternate braking WITH antiskid activates automatically following:

A

Failure of the Green hydraulic system

55
Q

The nose wheel steering is electrically controlled and hydraulically operated by the __________ hydraulic system.

A

Green (basic aircraft) or Yellow (enhanced aircraft)

56
Q

The main gear and doors are electrically controlled and hydraulically operated by the _________ hydraulic system.

A

Green

57
Q

Above______knots, provided the ground spoilers are armed, moving the thrust levers to idle signals the flight control system to deploy the ground spoilers.

A

72

58
Q

The two Landing Gear Control Interface Units (LGCIU 1 and LGCIU 2):

A

Swap roles as controlling and back up of gear extension and retraction each time the landing gear is raised.

59
Q

The maximum indicated airspeed for gear extension is ______ knots and for gear retraction is ______ knots.

A

250, 220

60
Q

The landing gear is controlled by ____ Landing Gear Control Interface Units, or LGCIUs

A

Two

61
Q

The LGCIUs send information to various systems about whether the aircraft is on ground or in flight.

A

True

62
Q

Braking and nose wheel steering are controlled by the _________ Unit.

A

BSCU

63
Q

Prior to takeoff, autobrakes can be armed using the ______ pushbutton

A

MAX

64
Q

Autobrakes MAX is used only for takeoff.

A

True

65
Q

When MAX is armed, maximum auto braking is immediately applied when the ______________ signal is triggered.

A

Ground spoiler deployment order

66
Q

For normal braking:

A
  • Green hydraulic system pressure must be available.
  • At least one channel of the BSCU must be operational.
  • The A/SKID and NW STRG switch must be selected to ON.
67
Q

If both the Green and Yellow hydraulic systems fail, braking is still possible through a________.

A

Dedicated accumulator

68
Q

Alternate braking is available with accumulator pressure from the ________ hydraulic system.

A

Yellow

69
Q

The chemical generators when activated will provide passengers with approximately how many minutes of oxygen flow?

A

15 min

70
Q

The cabin oxygen masks can be manually deployed at any time by:

A

Pushing the guarded pb labeled MASK MAN ON.

71
Q

The status of the flight deck oxygen system is found on what system page of the ECAM?

A

DOOR

72
Q

On the DOOR/OXY page, what is the current pressure of the flight deck oxygen system?

A

1850psi

73
Q

At approximately what cabin altitude will the automatic cabin mask deployment signal be sent?

A

14,000 ft

74
Q

After maintenance replaces your crew oxygen bottle, you notice the CKPT OXY indication is showing 980 psi in green, with an amber half-frame around the numeric value. What does this mean to you?

A

The pressure has dropped below 1000 psi.

75
Q

When the “CKPT OXY” amber message is displayed in the upper right hand corner of the ECAM DOOR page and all other indications appear normal, this informs you that:

A

The CREW SUPPLY pb is selected to OFF on the oxygen panel on the overhead.

76
Q

Illumination of PASSENGER SYS ON light on the OXYGEN overhead panel indicates that:

A

A signal has been sent automatically or manually to open the storage doors.

77
Q

Engine-Ice must be turned ON during all ground and flight operations in icing conditions. The definition of icing is:

A

OAT is less than or equal to 10 degrees C and visible moisture.

78
Q

Referencing this FMA, which Flight Director(s) is(are) selected on?

A

CA

79
Q

Referencing this FMA, which Autopilot(s) are in use?

A

Both CA and FO

80
Q

When either Autopilot is engaged, the Autothrust also automatically engages.

A

False

81
Q

You are hand flying with the Autopilot OFF. If you are not going to follow the Flight Director guidance, you should turn the Flight Directors OFF.

A

True

82
Q

FMGC 1 normally controls the autothrust system, regardless of which autopilot is engaged.

A

False

83
Q

A/THR in white on the FMA indicates that:

A

the autothrust is active.

84
Q

During flight, with the autothrust engaged, pulling the thrust levers out of the CLB detent and positioning them at the midway point will,

A

Limit the amount of thrust available, autothrust will remain engaged.

85
Q

During flight, if the thrust levers are positioned to the idle detent, the autothrust is:

A

Disconnected.

86
Q

The difference between TOGA Lock and Thrust Lock is:

A

TOGA Lock provides maximum thrust and Thrust Lock maintains the current thrust being used.

87
Q

The pilot pushed the speed, heading, and altitude knobs. Which type of guidance are the speed, vertical, and lateral modes now?

A

Managed

88
Q

What color shows managed speed and managed altitude targets?

A

Magenta

89
Q

Which color indicates an engaged mode of the FMA?

A

Green

90
Q

What effect on the autothrust system does setting the thrust levers below the CL detent have?

A

The autothrust active range is now limited to the thrust lever position.

91
Q

Which of these vertical modes will respect any altitude constraints in the FMGS?

A

CLB

92
Q

What is the preferred method of disengaging the autothrust?

A

Match the TLA’s to current thrust and then press the instinctive disconnect pb on the thrust levers.

93
Q

It is important that pilots fly with both flight directors ON or both flight directors OFF.

A

True

94
Q

An autopilot may be engaged as soon as:

A

100’ on takeoff

95
Q

The overwing escape slides are continuously armed and will automatically deploy when the exit is opened.

A

True

96
Q

Escape slide lights, built into the fuselage, will not illuminate automatically upon deployment of any slide.

A

False