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System Questions 1 Flashcards

(96 cards)

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1
Q

What is the maximum wind for takeoff and landing?

A

50 Knots (including gusts)

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2
Q

What is the maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing?

A

35 Knots (including gusts)

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3
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude with flaps and/or slats extended?

A

20,000 feet

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4
Q

What is the maximum gear extension altitude?

A

25,000 feet

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5
Q

What is the maximum operating airspeed (SL to FL 246)?

A

350 KIAS

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6
Q

What is the maximum operating mach number (above FL 246)?

A

.82M

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7
Q

Icing conditions exist when OAT (on the ground and for takeoff) or TAT (inflight) is _____ and visible moisture exists.

A

10° C or below

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8
Q

The maximum service ceiling for the aircraft is:

A

39,000 ft

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9
Q

Engine Anti-ice must be on for all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the temperature is ________?

A

Below -40° C SAT

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10
Q

What is the minimum height for use of the autopilot after takeoff in SRS mode?

A

100 feet AGL

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11
Q

What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between captain and first officer PFD altitude displays for RVSM operations?

A

200 feet

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12
Q

The cockpit door will automatically unlock during a decompression or if electrical power is lost.

A

True

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13
Q

If you lose electrical power to the cockpit door:

A

Cockpit door will automatically unlock

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14
Q

To evacuate through the door escape panel:

A

Remove the two quick release pins

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15
Q

Which hydraulic system supplies hydraulic pressure to open and close the cargo doors?

A

Yellow System

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16
Q

If the Yellow electric pump is not available, ground personnel can open or close the cargo doors by:

A

Using a hand pump on the hydraulic maintenance panel

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17
Q

Which of the following DOES NOT provide input to the pressurization controllers?

A

FADECs

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18
Q

The input provided by the Flight Management and Guidance Computers (FMGCs) enable the pressurization controllers to:

A

Know the planned cruise altitude and plan the cabin climb profile accordingly.

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19
Q

The following areas are not pressurized:

A

Radome, landing gear bays, air conditioning compartment and tail.

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20
Q

The pressurization controllers use the elevation of your destination airport to plan the descent profile. In normal operations, this information is provided:

A

By the FMS database once you enter the destination airport into the MCDU.

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21
Q

The two pneumatic pressurization safety valves:

A

Open automatically when it becomes necessary to relieve excess positive or negative cabin pressure differentials.

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22
Q

After landing, the active and standby pressurization controllers:

A

Automatic transfer occurs after 70 seconds.

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23
Q

With the pressurization in manual mode, the outflow valve is now controlled by:

A

The MAN V/S control switch.

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24
Q

With MODE SEL in MAN, moving the MAN V/S:

A

UP opens the outflow valve and DN closes it.

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25
The ditching pushbutton is used to:
Close all fuselage openings below the floatation line.
26
On landing, cabin altitude will be:
Slightly lower than field pressure altitude.
27
In Ground Mode, the outflow valve will:
Gradually open during landing rollout.
28
Pressurization Abort Mode:
Is activated if aircraft must return to the departure airport after takeoff.
29
With the GALY and CAB pb in the AUTO position and only one engine generator operating:
Automatic Galley Bus shedding occurs for the main galley, in-seat power supply, and in-flight entertainment.
30
A FAULT light in the GALY and CAB pb appears when any generator load is above 100% of its rated output.
True
31
All circuit breakers on the overhead panel are associated with systems which are powered:
While in the emergency electrical configuration.
32
Color coding is used to identify circuit breakers with different characteristics.
Green colored circuit breakers are monitored by the flight warning computers.
33
Activation of the RAT MAN ON pb will cause immediate deployment of the RAT except when no power is on the aircraft.
False
34
The electrical system consists of:
Two aircraft batteries. Two engine driven IDG’s. APU Generator An emergency generator (RAT)
35
When external power is connected to the aircraft, a green AVAIL light indicates:
External power is connected with acceptable voltage and frequency.
36
During non-normal conditions, the IDG may be disconnected for its engine and:
The IDG pushbutton should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds. Once disconnected, the IDG cannot be reconnected in flight. The IDG pushbutton should only be used when the engine is running or wind milling.
37
The RAT automatically deploys when
Power is not available for AC Bus 1 and AC Bus 2 and airspeed greater than 100 knots.
38
You can deploy the RAT and activate the emergency generator using the MAN ON pb.
True
39
The APU generator always takes priority over an engine driven generator and/or external power.
False
40
The APU driven generator:
Can be used as the sole source of electrical power on the ground.
41
When the APU generator is on and no other AC sources are available, the APU can power the entire electrical system on the ground.
True
42
The AVAIL light illuminated on the EXT PWR pb means:
Voltage and frequencies are acceptable
43
What does the OFF message under the APU GEN on the ELEC page indicate?
APU GEN pb has been selected OFF with the APU running.
44
What electric source has priority with the engines off, APU available and the EXT PWR pb switch is ON
EXT PWR
45
Disconnecting an IDG:
Renders the associated electrical generator inoperative
46
To avoid damage to the IDG, what must not be pressed for more than 3 seconds?
IDG disconnect pbs
47
The “RAT OUT” memo on the E/WD indicates:
The RAT has deployed
48
Select the statement which best describes the normal A319 fuel feed after takeoff with the slats retracted.
Center tank then wing tank inner cell
49
Which statement is true regarding fuel pressure for the APU?
Fuel pressure is normally supplied by the fuel tank pumps pressurizing the fuel manifold.
50
How is fuel transferred from the wing outer cell to the wing inner cell?
Transfer valves
51
The fuel system is also used for:
IDG oil cooling.
52
What does the Green ECAM memo CTR TK FEEDG in the memo Section mean?
At least one CTR tank pump is delivering fuel to the engines.
53
The white OFF light on the fuel pump pb indicates:
The fuel pump pb is selected off.
54
Alternate braking WITH antiskid activates automatically following:
Failure of the Green hydraulic system
55
The nose wheel steering is electrically controlled and hydraulically operated by the __________ hydraulic system.
Green (basic aircraft) or Yellow (enhanced aircraft)
56
The main gear and doors are electrically controlled and hydraulically operated by the _________ hydraulic system.
Green
57
Above______knots, provided the ground spoilers are armed, moving the thrust levers to idle signals the flight control system to deploy the ground spoilers.
72
58
The two Landing Gear Control Interface Units (LGCIU 1 and LGCIU 2):
Swap roles as controlling and back up of gear extension and retraction each time the landing gear is raised.
59
The maximum indicated airspeed for gear extension is ______ knots and for gear retraction is ______ knots.
250, 220
60
The landing gear is controlled by ____ Landing Gear Control Interface Units, or LGCIUs
Two
61
The LGCIUs send information to various systems about whether the aircraft is on ground or in flight.
True
62
Braking and nose wheel steering are controlled by the _________ Unit.
BSCU
63
Prior to takeoff, autobrakes can be armed using the ______ pushbutton
MAX
64
Autobrakes MAX is used only for takeoff.
True
65
When MAX is armed, maximum auto braking is immediately applied when the ______________ signal is triggered.
Ground spoiler deployment order
66
For normal braking:
- Green hydraulic system pressure must be available. - At least one channel of the BSCU must be operational. - The A/SKID and NW STRG switch must be selected to ON.
67
If both the Green and Yellow hydraulic systems fail, braking is still possible through a________.
Dedicated accumulator
68
Alternate braking is available with accumulator pressure from the ________ hydraulic system.
Yellow
69
The chemical generators when activated will provide passengers with approximately how many minutes of oxygen flow?
15 min
70
The cabin oxygen masks can be manually deployed at any time by:
Pushing the guarded pb labeled MASK MAN ON.
71
The status of the flight deck oxygen system is found on what system page of the ECAM?
DOOR
72
On the DOOR/OXY page, what is the current pressure of the flight deck oxygen system?
1850psi
73
At approximately what cabin altitude will the automatic cabin mask deployment signal be sent?
14,000 ft
74
After maintenance replaces your crew oxygen bottle, you notice the `CKPT OXY` indication is showing 980 psi in green, with an amber half-frame around the numeric value. What does this mean to you?
The pressure has dropped below 1000 psi.
75
When the “CKPT OXY” amber message is displayed in the upper right hand corner of the ECAM DOOR page and all other indications appear normal, this informs you that:
The CREW SUPPLY pb is selected to OFF on the oxygen panel on the overhead.
76
Illumination of PASSENGER `SYS ON` light on the OXYGEN overhead panel indicates that:
A signal has been sent automatically or manually to open the storage doors.
77
Engine-Ice must be turned ON during all ground and flight operations in icing conditions. The definition of icing is:
OAT is less than or equal to 10 degrees C and visible moisture.
78
Referencing this FMA, which Flight Director(s) is(are) selected on?
CA
79
Referencing this FMA, which Autopilot(s) are in use?
Both CA and FO
80
When either Autopilot is engaged, the Autothrust also automatically engages.
False
81
You are hand flying with the Autopilot OFF. If you are not going to follow the Flight Director guidance, you should turn the Flight Directors OFF.
True
82
FMGC 1 normally controls the autothrust system, regardless of which autopilot is engaged.
False
83
A/THR in white on the FMA indicates that:
the autothrust is active.
84
During flight, with the autothrust engaged, pulling the thrust levers out of the CLB detent and positioning them at the midway point will,
Limit the amount of thrust available, autothrust will remain engaged.
85
During flight, if the thrust levers are positioned to the idle detent, the autothrust is:
Disconnected.
86
The difference between TOGA Lock and Thrust Lock is:
TOGA Lock provides maximum thrust and Thrust Lock maintains the current thrust being used.
87
The pilot pushed the speed, heading, and altitude knobs. Which type of guidance are the speed, vertical, and lateral modes now?
Managed
88
What color shows managed speed and managed altitude targets?
Magenta
89
Which color indicates an engaged mode of the FMA?
Green
90
What effect on the autothrust system does setting the thrust levers below the CL detent have?
The autothrust active range is now limited to the thrust lever position.
91
Which of these vertical modes will respect any altitude constraints in the FMGS?
CLB
92
What is the preferred method of disengaging the autothrust?
Match the TLA’s to current thrust and then press the instinctive disconnect pb on the thrust levers.
93
It is important that pilots fly with both flight directors ON or both flight directors OFF.
True
94
An autopilot may be engaged as soon as:
100’ on takeoff
95
The overwing escape slides are continuously armed and will automatically deploy when the exit is opened.
True
96
Escape slide lights, built into the fuselage, will not illuminate automatically upon deployment of any slide.
False

Airbus Stuff (5 decks)

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