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Flashcards in Systems 2 Deck (85):
1

What instruments are included in the standby instrument cluster? When might these instruments be used?

1. Airspeed, altimeter, attitude indicator, magnetic compass; might be used to provide backup indications in the event of a failure in the integrated flight instrument system.

2

How do you reset the flight time on the clock to zero?

Simultaneously pressing the FLIGHT TIME RESET button and placing the clock switch to the zero position.

3

Upon arriving at your transition base, you flew an ILS approach. Now you’re practicing VFR patterns and each time you’re on short final, you keep hearing an aural alert saying “Glideslope, Glideslope.” Which of the following actions allow you to prevent this alert from sounding on every pattern?
a. Press the GPWS TEST switch to inhibit the alert.
b. Press the GPWS TAC switch to inhibit the alert.
c. Press the GPWS FLP ORIDE switch to inhibit the alert.
d. Detune the NAV #1 radio from the ILS frequency.

d. Detune the NAV #1 radio from the ILS frequency.

4

Which Air Data Computer normally provides airspeed, altitude, and altitude rate information to the GPWS?

ADC #1.

5

5. What are the normal switch positions for the ELT?
a. ELT unit switch OFF and pedestal switch ON
b. ELT unit switch OFF and pedestal switch ARMED/RESET
c. ELT unit switch ON and pedestal switch ON
d. ELT unit switch ON and pedestal switch ARMED/RESET

b. ELT unit switch OFF and pedestal switch ARMED/RESET.

6

6. The green ELT ON light on the pedestal should normally be illuminated during flight.
a. True
b. False

b. False

7

7. TCAS resolution advisories are not issued at altitudes below __________ feet AGL.

1,000

8

8. TCAS relieves the pilot of the responsibility to see and avoid other traffic.
a. True
b. False

b. False

9

9. Ignoring or failing to follow a resolution advisory (RA) could lead to additional RAs in which alert and visual annunciations may not agree.
a. True
b. False

a. True

10

10. You have just complied with a TCAS preventive resolution advisory that directed you to climb, and have received a “Clear of conflict” advisory. Unless ATC directs otherwise, what should you do?

Expeditiously return to the applicable ATC clearance.

11

11. You should consider information displayed on the radio altimeter to be accurate at all times, unless a warning flag is in view in the instrument.
a. True
b. False

b. False

12

You’re on an ILS approach and the display on the pilot’s EADI starts flickering so badly that it’s nearly impossible to read. What can you do to allow the pilot to continue to fly the approach?

Set the pilot’s composite switch to the EHSI position. Combined heading and attitude information will be presented on the EHSI.

13

When both the pilot and copilot’s EFIS Master Warning Switchlights are illuminated, pressing either switchlight extinguishes both lights.
a. True
b. False

b. False

14

During cross-side operations, no comparator warnings are available, and the pilots should crosscheck position, attitude, and altitude with other reliable instruments, such as the standby instruments.
a. True
b. False

a. True

15

When using the MFD composite mode, which side’s data (pilot’s or copilot’s) is normally used to provide the modified EADI and EHSI displays?

Pilot’s

16

How do you disable an RTU?

You move the applicable RTU NORM/DISABL switch to DISABL.

17

You’ve experienced dual RTU failure. After completing the Dash-1 procedure, you determine you need to transmit and receive communications using VHF guard frequency (121.5 MHz). How can you accomplish this?
a. Pulling and resetting the RTU #1 circuit breaker.
b. Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker.
c. Using the CDU to tune the frequency.
d. Communication radios may not be retuned when you’ve experienced dual RTU failure.

b. Pulling and resetting the VHF circuit breaker.

18

What are the indications of an ADC failure?

Boxed ADC on the altimeter and Mach/Speed Indicator and inoperative flight director vertical modes.

19

Where do you find the various indications associated with avionics malfunctions?

Refer to Fig. 3-11 in TO 1T-1A-1

20

What is indicated when a yellow-boxed “PIT” indication is displayed on both EADIs?

Pilot and Copilot’s AHRS disagree in pitch attitude. Aircrew should monitor the standby attitude gyro and select the cross-side AHRS.

21

The T-1A hydraulic system provides hydraulic pressure to operate the following systems:
a.
b.
c.
d.

a. Landing gear
b. Flaps
c. Speed brakes
d. Power brakes

22

Lowering the landing gear handle
a. mechanically disconnects the uplocks for all three gear.
b. sends an electrical signal to initiate gear extension.
c. causes activation of the electric hydraulic pumps.
d. causes the landing gear warning tone to sound.

b. sends an electrical signal to initiate gear extension

23

Where are the brake pedals located?
a. Only on the top portion of the pilot’s rudder pedals
b. Beneath both sets of rudder pedals
c. On the inside portion of both sets of rudder pedals
d. The upper portion of both the pilot’s and copilot’s rudder pedals

d. The upper portion of both the pilot’s and copilot’s rudder pedals

24

Which of the following is a secondary flight control?
a. Spoilers
b. Roll trim
c. Elevator
d. Nosewheel steering

b. Roll trim

25

Which one of the following systems does not use hydraulic pressure to operate?
a. Landing gear
b. Flaps
c. Speed brakes
d. Spoilers

d. Spoilers

26

When full, the T-1A hydraulic reservoir contains __________ gallon(s).

1.2

27

The flow of hydraulic fluid from the reservoir to a pump can be stopped by closing the __________ valve.
a. bypass
b. shutoff
c. pressure relief
d. vacuum relief

b. shutoff

28

Which of the following controls the right hydraulic shutoff valve?
a. The R H/V CLOSE switchlight
b. The RH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight
c. The HYD PRESS switch
d. Both a and b

d. Both a and b

29

What happens if one of the filters in the hydraulic system clogs?
a. System pressure rises.
b. System pressure decreases.
c. The pressure relief valve opens.
d. The fluid bypasses the filter.

d. The fluid bypasses the filter

30

The left hydraulic pump has failed. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The flaps will not operate.
b. The autopilot will not engage.
c. All hydraulic systems will function properly.
d. The inboard main gear doors will not close during the gear extension sequence.

c. All hydraulic systems will function properly

31

The hydraulic valve package consists of valve assemblies for which three systems?

Landing gear, flaps, speed brakes

32

The system pressure relief valve starts to open at __________ psi.

1,650

33

At what pressure does the hydraulic system redline?

1,850 psi

34

During normal operation, the T-1A landing gear are __________ controlled and __________ operated.
a. manually; hydraulically
b. manually; pneumatically
c. electrically; hydraulically
d. electrically; pneumatically

c. electrically; hydraulically

35

A landing gear HORN CUT button (used to silence the landing gear warning tone) is located
a. next to the LDG GR handle.
b. on each pilot's audio control panel.
c. on the outboard grip of both control yokes.
d. under each pilot's EHSI.

c. on the outboard grip of both control yokes

36

Which of the following components is used to raise the landing gear if the landing gear downlock release lever fails to release in flight?
a. EMER L/G DOWN handle
b. Downlock release button
c. EMER DOOR CLOSE handle
d. HORN CUT button

b. Downlock release button

37

When turning the aircraft on the ground, you can cause the nosewheel to caster beyond 25 degrees (up to __________ degrees) by applying rudder, differential power, and differential braking.
a. 30
b. 35
c. 40
d. 45

d. 45

38

During the gear extension sequence, when does the main landing gear lower?
a. After the inboard main gear doors are fully open
b. Immediately after the handle is placed to the DN position
c. After the nose gear is fully extended
d. After the inboard main gear doors are fully closed

a. After the inboard main gear doors are fully open

39

Normal gear extension and retraction should take about __________ seconds.

seven

40

The uplock assemblies are __________ released during emergency gear extension.

mechanically

41

Airspeed limitations for landing gear extension are __________ KIAS for normal extension and __________ KIAS for emergency extension.

200; 150

42

The minimum strut extension for the main landing gear is __________ inches.

1.1

43

The maximum allowable altitude for inflight gear extension is __________ feet MSL

20,000

44

The normal strut extension for the nose gear is __________ inches.

3.5

45

What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?
a. Augment pressure from the nitrogen storage bottle
b. Serve as a source of nitrogen pressure for the emergency brake system
c. Raises the inboard main gear doors
d. Dampen pressure fluctuations from the hydraulic system

d. Dampen pressure fluctuations from the hydraulic system

46

Which component of the brake system permits braking from either pilot position?
a. Mixing valves
b. Power brake valve
c. Transducer
d. Shuttle valves

a. Mixing valves

47

If normal hydraulic pressure is not available to the power brake anti-skid control valve, the brake system automatically reverts to the __________ mode of operation.
a. manual
b. pneumatic
c. emergency
d. anti-skid

a. manual

48

Parking brakes prevent aircraft movement by
a. trapping pneumatic pressure.
b. mechanical brake tension.
c. a mechanical locking device.
d. trapping hydraulic pressure.

d. trapping hydraulic pressure

49

The nitrogen storage cylinder provides sufficient pressure for at least __________ to __________ brake applications. If nitrogen pressure has been used to close the main gear doors after an emergency extension, enough pressure remains for approximately __________ to __________ emergency brake applications.
a. 8 to 10; 7 to 9
b. 7 to 11; 6 to 10
c. 7 to 10; 7 to 9
d. None of the above

c. 7 to 10; 7 to 9

50

The anti-skid system operates with which of the following brake modes?
a. Power
b. Manual
c. Emergency
d. All of the above

a. Power

51

Which of the following statements is true concerning brake operations?
a. Do not set the parking brake in wet conditions.
b. Manual braking is a very effective means for stopping the aircraft.
c. Do not attempt normal braking when using the emergency brake system.
d. The ANTISKID FAIL annunciator illuminates if the gear is retracted and the anti-skid control box loses power.

c. Do not attempt normal braking when using the emergency brake system

52

Which of the following is a factor when determining the amount of energy absorbed by the brakes during a landing?
a. Approach speed
b. Rate of deceleration
c. Crosswind component
d. Brake application speed

d. Brake application speed

53

The maximum temperature generated by the brakes does not reach the outer surface of the wheel-brake assembly for __________ minutes or more.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 25
d. 30

b. 15

54

If __________ million foot-pounds of brake energy are absorbed, brake damage and failure may occur.
a. 5.9
b. 8.1
c. 12.3
d. 14.8

d. 14.8

55

Illumination of the R H PMP PRESS LO annunciator indicates the right hydraulic pump pressure is below __________ psi.
a. 500
b. 750
c. 1,000
d. 1,250

b. 750

56

When landing without hydraulic pressure, which one of the following components is operative?
a. Flaps
b. Power brakes
c. Spoilers
d. Speed brakes

c. Spoilers

57

Placing the hydraulic pressure bypass switch to the REL position
a. opens the relief valve and maintains system pressure at 1,650 psi.
b. vents all hydraulic fluid overboard.
c. disconnects both hydraulic pumps from the system.
d. routes all hydraulic fluid back to the reservoir

d. routes all hydraulic fluid back to the reservoir

58

Nitrogen storage bottle pressure is used to ____________ during emergency gear extension.
a. hold the gear in the down position
b. unlock the main landing gear
c. activate nosewheel steering
d. raise the fuselage gear doors

d. raise the fuselage gear doors

59

Which of the following statements concerning landing gear malfunctions is correct?
a. If normal hydraulic pressure is not available, perform the Alternate Gear Down Verification procedures.
b. Pulling the EMER L/G DOWN handle sends an electrical signal to release uplocks for the main gear doors and all three gear.
c. If both main landing gear are extended, but the nose gear is retracted, retract all the gear and land gear up.
d. If all gear are retracted, fly a normal approach with 30 degrees of flaps extended.

d. If all gear are retracted, fly a normal approach with 30 degrees of flaps extended

60

When landing without normal brakes, emergency braking is accomplished with
a. stored hydraulic pressure from the emergency accumulator.
b. stored hydraulic pressure from the normal system accumulator.
c. nitrogen pressure from the nitrogen storage cylinder.
d. manual hydraulic pressure applied by the pilots.

c. nitrogen pressure from the nitrogen storage cylinder

61

When landing without normal brakes,
a. anti-skid protection is available.
b. plan on using manual brakes.
c. normal braking should not be attempted while using the emergency brake system.
d. plan on using the parking brake accumulator.

c. normal braking should not be attempted while using the emergency brake system

62

If the anti-skid system fails, braking reverts to the
a. manual braking system.
b. emergency braking system.
c. emergency braking system accumulator.
d. power brakes.

d. power brakes.

63

When landing with a flat tire on one main gear,
a. land on the side of the runway corresponding to the good tire.
b. land in the center of the runway.
c. land on the side of the runway corresponding to the flat tire

a. land on the side of the runway corresponding to the good tire.

64

Which of the following flight control systems uses hydraulic power?
a. Roll trim
b. Spoilers
c. Elevator
d. Flaps

d. Flaps

65

What does the T-1A use for primary roll control?
a. Ailerons
b. Spoilers
c. Trim tabs
d. Flaps

b. Spoilers

66

Which of the following flight controls operate using only mechanical linkages?
a. Elevators
b. Horizontal stabilizer
c. Flaps
d. Speed brakes

a. Elevators

67

The rudder boost system is designed to assist in what type of condition?
a. High airspeed flight
b. High altitude flight
c. Landing in high crosswinds
d. Asymmetric thrust

d. Asymmetric thrust

68

The maximum airspeed to extend the flaps to 10 degrees is __________ KIAS and the maximum airspeed to extend the flaps beyond 10 degrees is __________ KIAS.

200; 170

69

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the flap system?
a. The flaps are powered by electric motors.
b. The flap gauge indicates the position of the left flap.
c. The aft flaps are mechanically linked to the main flaps.
d. After the flaps are extended to 30 degrees, the maximum allowable airspeed is 170 KIAS

c. The aft flaps are mechanically linked to the main flaps.

70

The flap asymmetry system freezes the flaps in their current position if it detects a difference of more than __________ degrees between the main flaps.
a. 4
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10

c. 7

71

What conditions cause the speed brakes to retract automatically?

Either throttle approaching the NORM T.O. position or the flaps are extended beyond 10 degrees

72

What is the maximum airspeed for extension of the speed brakes?
a. 180 KIAS
b. 200 KIAS
c. 250 KIAS
d. Any airspeed

d. Any airspeed

73

When does the pitch trim warning horn sound?

If the normal or emergency pitch trim is actuated continuously for longer than five seconds.

74

After advancing the power for takeoff, a beeping warning horn sounds. This indicates the
a. roll trim is not set for takeoff.
b. rudder trim is not set for takeoff.
c. pitch trim is not set for takeoff.
d. aircraft CG is out of limits

c. pitch trim is not set for takeoff.

75

If the rudder trim switch is pushed to the NOSE R position, which direction does the rudder trim tab move?

Left

76

Which of the following statements concerning the Controllability Check is correct?
a. Perform the check above 8,000 feet AGL.
b. Plan to touch down at the minimum controllable airspeed.
c. After conducting the procedure, raise the gear and retract the flaps and proceed to a recovery base.
d. During the procedure, slow the aircraft to the point at which full control deflection is required to maintain control.

a. Perform the check above 8,000 feet AGL.

77

Which of the following statements concerning jammed flight controls is correct?
a. A Controllability Check is normally not required.
b. With a jammed elevator, fly a no-flap straight-in approach.
c. With a jammed rudder, hold the nosewheel off the runway as long as possible during the landing roll.
d. If the stabilizer is jammed in the nose down position, attempt to move the aircraft center of gravity forward.

c. With a jammed rudder, hold the nosewheel off the runway as long as possible during the landing roll.

78

A jammed spoiler is indicated by
a. the control wheel not moving left or right.
b. roll trim not operating.
c. one or both ROLL TRIM indicators being frozen.
d. the SPD BRAKE EXT annunciator illuminating.

a. the control wheel not moving left or right

79

With jammed spoilers, use __________ for lateral control.

roll trim

80

When the TRIM INT & A/P DISENG switch is pressed, all trim systems are interrupted except
a. roll trim.
b. rudder trim.
c. normal pitch trim.
d. emergency pitch trim.

d. emergency pitch trim.

81

While using emergency pitch trim,
a. rudder trim is inoperative.
b. autopilot engagement is not possible.
c. the pitch trim gauge will not function.
d. trim response will be quicker than when using normal pitch trim.

b. autopilot engagement is not possible.

82

The flap asymmetry detection system alerts the crew of
a. a main flap asymmetry.
b. an aft flap asymmetry.
c. either main or aft flap asymmetry.
d. both main and aft asymmetry.

a. a main flap asymmetry

83

If the FLAP ASYM annunciator is illuminated,
a. the flap gauge is inoperative.
b. the flaps are frozen in their current position.
c. solenoids deactivate, causing automatic flap retraction.
d. the flaps continue to move until the flap handle is moved out of a detent.

b. the flaps are frozen in their current position.

84

If the rudder boost fails,
a. fly a no-flap approach.
b. higher rudder pedal forces will occur during single engine operation.
c. higher rudder pressure forces will be required for all flight regimes.
d. check the ROLL TRIM circuit breakers are in and refer to the checklist.

b. higher rudder pedal forces will occur during single engine operation

85

If the yaw damper doesn’t engage,
a. use the autopilot.
b. land as soon as possible.
c. do not fly above 28,000 feet.
d. manually hold the switch in the ENGAGED position.

c. do not fly above 28,000 feet.