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Flashcards in Systems Deck (66):
1

What does a white "avail" on APU power selector mean?

GPU AC power available and proper syncrophase is available

CONNECTED and GOOD POWER

2

Why does Batt 2 have an "auto" selection?

- Backup for batt 1
- automatically isolated for APU start with out AC power

3

What 4 items are on the AC ESS bus?

1. AC fuel pump 2
2. ACMP 3A hydraulic pump
3. 1 slat channel
4. 1 flap channel

4

What is powered by the AC standby bus? What is its main power source?

1. Engines 1 - 2 , exciters 1A - 2A
2. Power source: Inverter

5

When and how long does it take for the RAT to deploy? What's the minimum speed to operate?

1. Loss of AC normal power or manually
2. 8 seconds to spool up
3. 135kts
150: recommended

6

How can you close the HYD SOV?

1. Fire handle
2. QRH shutdown procedure

7

What it the PTU?

Power Transfer unit:

What:
- assists in gear extension and retraction

When:
- Engine 2, AC Hyd 2 or (EDP) Engine Driven Pump fails

How:
- Driven by system 1, operated by system 2
- think wheel spinning from hydraulic pressure on hyd 1, thus turning a similar connected wheel on hyd 2

Requirements:
- Engine 1, Hyd sys 1 operating normally
- 12% quantity Hyd sys 2

8

When does Hyd 3B activate?

When 3A fails, and 3B in Auto

9

What extra logic does Hyd system 2 have?

Dropping the brake activates system 2..

Hyd 2 pump will turn off six min after brake application and no release.. You will get an EICAS message. Simply release parking brake

10

If you lose hydraulic pumps, can you still brake?

Yes, via the emergency brake accumulator.. Good for 6 applications

11

You get an AI WING VALVE message on the EICAS. What is it?

- Normal Anti-ice test function
- message populates 10,000ft or 10min after departure
- test opens warms up wing edge 10°c

12

At what speed do you retract flaps?

Fbug or V2+10

13

Is it possible to get a low level fuel w/plenty of fuel? Would you declare an emergency?

- Yes, if scavengers fail, fuel flows out collector tank

- no emergency, if you have fuel. However, you must limit bank and pitch to no more than 15° pitch

14

Will the APU auto shutdown for a fire in Flight? Ground?

No, in flight,
Only: under speed, FADEC fail, overspeed

Yes, on ground
- underspeed
- faded fail
- overspeed

- signal loss (fadec)
- hi oil temp
- egt fail
- low oil pressure
- fire

15

What will happen if you push press DUMP in Auto mode?

- Recircs and PACKS turn OFF and close
- outflow valve opens
- cabin climbs to 12,400ft @ 2000fpm
- outflow valve closes
- cabin naturally leaks/decompressed

16

What is the function of lights on the IDG panel?

- illuminates with Hi oil temp or low oil pressure

- can be illuminated w/test function of "Annunciator test"

17

How will the engines be supplied fuel with the RAT deployed?

- AC fuel pump 2
- select LOW 1:
This activates AC fuel pump 2 and opens cross-feed

18

What is the stabilizer trim priority?

1. Backup
2. Captain
3. FO

19

When do the O2 masks deploy?

14,000-14,700 cabin pressure altitude

20

How long does that O2 last for the passengers?

12mins

21

How long does the O2 last for pilots?

above 10,000: 22min

Below 10,000: 1hr, 08 (98min)

22

What is the fuel logic or fuel pump priority?

Lowest: DC pump
AC power: AC pump 2
Engines running: Ejector motive flow

23

What systems have fire protection and extinguishing?

1. Engines
2. APU
3. Cargo compartment
4. Lavatories

24

What happens if you pull the fire handle?

1. Fuel SOV closes
2. Hyd SOV closes
3. Bleed SOV closes

25

What do we look for during the fire system test?

1. ALL fire buttons/handles illuminate red
2. Master Warning light
3. Triple chime and fireball aural
4. 5 EICAS messages (eng 1 - 2, APU, CARGO FWD / AFT)
5. FIRE inside ITT Gauges

26

With a fire indication. How long before the APU fuel SOV valve automatically closes?

- automatically 10 seconds after fire detected. EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN
- also, if TEST button pressed for 10 seconds

27

When will ATTCS automatically command a thrust increase on takeoff or go-around?

Thrust Levers set to TOGA
- Engine failure detected
- N1 difference of 15% between engines
- windshear

ATTCS MUST be ON for Takeoff

28

What component of the engine is N1?

-Shaft FAN
- low pressure compressor
- low pressure turbine

*Most of the air is accelerated by the fan then flows out of the engine, by passing the core, like a huge prop.

29

What is ITT?

Interstage Turbine Temperature
- measures engine temp
- Max ITT show w/red tick mark (815)

30

What is N2?

- Engine Core
- speed of the shaft linking the high pressure compressors and turbine

*N1 / N2 rotate independently, not mechanically connected

31

How is fuel flow measured?

PPH - Pounds per hour

32

What powers the AC Standby Bus? Why is it important?

DC Bus through Static Inverter (AC ESS Bus)
- Exciters 1A and 2A

This allows for engine start with no AC power

33

What powers the AC Essential Bus and why is it important?

DC ESS bus 3 through TRU ESS, the RAT powers during an electrical emergency

- Contains essential items for safe operation in the event of electrical emergency.
- AC Fuel pump 2A
- ACMP 3A (hydraulic)
- 1 slat channel 1 (sf-ace AC feed)
- 1 flap channel 2 (sf-ace AC feed)

34

What kind of batteries do we have? What do they power? How are they charged

- 2 - 24V (Sealed Lead Acid)
- power the DC Ess buses (when no AC power)
- Charged by an AC source through TRUs

35

What does the AMBER light near the knob on the electrical IDG panel indicate? How do you verify its function?

- low oil pressure
- low oil temp
- Associated EICAS message should populate
- verified during CA originating check

36

What does white "AVAIL" light mean on GPU panel mean?

AC power meet specific quality requirements:
- Voltage
- Amperage
- Frequency

37

What does battery 1 power?

- DC bus 2
- Hot Batt 1 bus

38

What does battery 2 power?

- DC bus 2
- APU start bus
- Hot batt 2 bus

39

What the different braking speeds for the autobrakes?

- LO: 2 ft per sec. (.12g's) - smooth/gentle
- MED: 4 ft per sec. (.24g's) - short/contaminated
- HI: 8 ft per sec. (.41g's) - aggressive

40

How do you apply MAX braking?

Apply MAX brake peddle pressure to toe brakes.

41

What are the (BCM) Brake Control Module protections

1. Antiskid: prevents tire skidding and maximizes brake efficiency
- active at 10kts or greater wheel speed

2. Automatic wheel braking: stops the main gear during gear retraction

3. Touchdown protection: prevents the airplane from touching down with brakes applied. On landing, it only allows for braking after:
- wheel speed above 50kts
- 3 seconds after touchdown

4. Locked wheel: prevents locked wheels by comparing inboard/outboard speeds
- active above 30kts

42

How do you engage steering?

1. Hyd 2 pressurized
2. Tiller pressed and released

43

How do you disengage steering?

1. Hyd 2 depressurized
2. Steering disconnect switch pressed (don't need to hold)
- taxi using differential braking and thrust
3. External steering disengaged (switch set to disengage)

44

Flight controls:

How does the flight controls system operate?

- Fly-By-Wire: except for ailerons

1. Flight Control input - sends info to ACE
2. Actuator Control Electronics: provide direct analogue control. Electronically connects to control surfaces by sending input info to FCM and PCU:
3. Flight control Module utilizes software assistance to the ACE's providing High Level functions and relaying compensated info to the PCU
4. Power Control Unit hydraulically actuates the control surfaces

45

How does the pitch trim work?

- moves horizontal stabilizer
- CA overrides FO
- Manual trim commands:
1. limited to 3 seconds
2. Half switch disables trim control if pressed more than 7 seconds
- Red button: AP/TRIM DISC: disables both trim channels when pressed and held (Memory Item: AP TRIM RUNAWAY)

46

How many Power Control unit's?

- 2 PCU's, but only 1 operates at a time (elevators)

47

Trim priority?

1. Backup
2. CA
3. FO
4. FCM (auto-trim) commands

48

How do you determine who should be PF with a jammed control column

- perform disconnect
- whichever control column identified free becomes PF
CA: Left aileron / elevator
FO: right aileron / elevator

49

When do the fuel quantity gauges change to amber / red?

Amber:
- individual: 1300lbs

Red:
- 660lbs

50

When referencing Hydraulics (like in the HOBO check) what are we looking for?

1. Temperatures
2. Pressures
3. Quantities (reservoirs)

51

What is the primary reason we need the PTU? Whats the purpose of any of the AC Motor Pumps?

- In case the #2, right engine, fails. In which case the hyd eng 2 driven pump would fail

- ACMP's serve as backups to the Engine driven pumps

52

How much quantity is required for the PTU to operate?

- operation requires EDP 1 to operative
- System 2 reservoir must be at least 12%

53

When does ACMP 1 turn on?

- Manually selected
- Automatically:
1. Takeoff (50kts ground speed or Thrust levers TOGA)
3. Landing (Flaps greater than 0)
4. Engine Driven Pump fails

54

When does ACMP 2 turn on?

- Manually selected
- Automatically:
1. SE: engine #1 running (parking brake release or set in last 6 min)
2. Takeoff (50kts ground speed or thrust levers TOGA)
3. Landing (Flaps greater than 0)
4. Engine driven pump fails

55

How does the FMS determine its position?

1. IRS: 2 units
- takes up to 17min. to align
- if 1 fails, reversion is automatic (disregards the unreliable or failed sensor)

2. GPS: 1 and 2
- WAAS equipped
- Automatically predicts RAIM at ETA
- RNAV approaches to LPV mins

3. VOR/DME:
- works if both GPS units fail/jam
- Auto tunes when set to auto

56

How long does it take to shutdown the APU normally?

- Pneumatic / bleed drops off immediately
- Power drops off after 2 min.
- allows for a 1 min cool down. EICAS "APU SHUTTING DOWN" msg
- This allows at least 1 min to re-select ON and restore operation, if you so decide.
** Ie.. MX shows up to take the plane to the hangar.

57

Are there any protections for the APU?

Ground:
- Underspeed:
- FADCE Fail
- Overspeed
- Sensor Fail
- Hi Oil Temp
- EGT APU overtemp
- Low Oil pressure
- Fire APU

Inflight:
- Underspeed
- FADCE fail
- Overspeed

58

When does the "Landing Gear" warning aural announce and can't be silenced?

• Flaps 0,1,2,3,4: No Gear
- RA below 700' and:
- 2 engine: TLA < 45º
- SE: TLA < 59º

• Flaps 5: No gear

• Dual RA fail:
- flaps 0,1,2,3,4

59

The Brake Control Module provides what protection?

1. Locked wheel:
• >30kts, commands zero pressure to assoc wheel pair
2. Anti-Skid:
• >10kts, reduces brake press
3. Auto Wheel braking: prevents spinning nose wheel during retraction
4. Touchdown: touching down w/brakes
- 3sec WoW, wheel speed >50kts

60

What does the AMS consist of?

1. Cabin pressure controller (CPC)
2. (1) Cabin Outflow valve (OFV)
3. (1) Negative press. relief valve (NPRV)
4. (1) Positive press. relief valve (Safety Valve)
5. Static Pressure Port.

61

Can the APU provide BLEED for the ANTI-ICE?

No,
- engine bleed only for anti-ice

62

Taxi 2 engines w/APU ON (ECS OFF TO)

What is the bleed air source for:

1. Taxi
2. TO
3. 500 AGL

1. Engines
2. APU
3. Engines

63

The Engine Bleed valve opens if?

1. Engine bleed source available
2. Bleed switch in auto
3. No fire in respective engine
4. No bleed duct leak is detected (amber bar)

64

What are the 5 requirements for the APU bleed valve to open?

1. Bleed switch in auto
2 APU bleed available
3. No APU & Left Duct leak detected
4. Left engine bleed is unavailable
5. Anti-ice not requested

65

When do we close bleed valves?

1. Ground air starts for engine
2. Bleed leak or Overpressure
3. When directed by QRH

66

If CPCS not available to operate automatically how do we control cabin pressure?

- manual mode: pilot directly control outflow valve using the QRH pressurization conversion table.