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K4 Capt Upgrade > Systems Oral > Flashcards

Systems Oral Flashcards

1
Q

What is the wingspan of the B777F?

FCOM 1.10.1

A

212’7”

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2
Q

What is the minimum payement needed to make a 180 degree turn?

FCOM 1.10.4

A

157’4”

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3
Q

When are the taxi lights not illuminated?

FCOM 1.30.6

A

When the nose landing gear is not down and locked.

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4
Q

What is controlled through the Master Brightness Control system?

FCOM 1.30.3, 1.40.4

A

1.Controls the brightness of all panel lights and displays (dome lights, flood lights, and circuit breakers are NOT controlled by this switch:
2. Overrides individual brightness control settings
3. Limits adjustment range of individual brightness controls
4. Has full adjustment range of all lights when all individual brightness controls are set to the center detent
5.Display brightness is automatically adjusted based on ambient lighting when the MASTER BRIGHTNESS is on

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5
Q

What turns on the emergency lighting system automatically?

FCOM 1.40.5

A

DC power fails or is turned off, with system armed

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6
Q

With the Emergency Lights switch on the flight deck armed and the 1L door mode select lever in the armed position, what will cause the exterior and interior emergency lights to illuminate?

FCOM 1.40.5

A

If flight deck switch is armed, and door mode select lever is in armed position, moving door handle to the open position will cause the exterior fuselage light and the interior emergency light at that door to illuminate.

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7
Q

What lights make up the interior emergency light system?

FCOM 1.40.6

A

Interior emergency lighting - door, aisle, exit lights, and luminescent exit signs. An additional battery-powered exit identifer light is located at each cabin exit.

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8
Q

How long will emergency lights last on a fully charged battery?

FCOM 1.40.5

A

At least 15 minutes of operation
(Powered by remote batteries and the battery charge is maintained by airplane electrical system)

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9
Q

When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign automatically illuminate regardless of switch position?

FCOM 1.40.5

A

FASTEN SEAT BELTS:
1.Landing gear down (“not up and locked”)
2.Flaps down (“Flap lever not up”)
3.Airplane altitude below 10,000 ft
4.Cabin altitude above 10,000ft
5. Supernumary oxygen ON
NO SMOKING:
- Permanently illuminated

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10
Q

When will the supernumerary O2 masks deploy with the switch in NORM?

FCOM 11.40.7

A

Mask automatically drop from the PSUs if cabin altitude exceeds approximately 13,500ft

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11
Q

Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? Up to what altitude?

FCOM 7.30.1

A

Yes up to 22,000ft

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12
Q

What causes the Equipment Cooling to go into OVRD mode?

FCOM 2.20.6

A

1.Loss of both equipment cooling fans
2.low airflow in equipment cooling system
3.Smoke detected in forward equipment cooling system or equipment ventilation system
4.either lower Cargo fire arm switch ARM’ed
5.OVRD switch pushed

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13
Q

What is the temp range of the flight deck with the selector in Auto?

FCOM 2.10.2

A

65F - 85F

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14
Q

When would you need to push the AIR COND RESET switch?

FCOM 2.10.2

A

1.Attempt to reset any closed pack valve flow control valve or trim air valve held closed because an overheat, control failure, or valve failure has occured.
2.Attempt to reset a failed recirculation fan
3.Reset fault protection

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15
Q

What are the Landing Field limits with the Landing Alt knob pushed in?

FCOM 2.30.2

A

1000ft below sea level to 14,000ft above sea level

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16
Q

The Center Isolation valve is normally closed except when?

FCOM 2.40.2

A

During engine start, or single-bleed source operation

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17
Q

APU bleed air is supllied to which duct?

FCOM 2.10.7

A

Left duct

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18
Q

Where is Duct Pressure displayed?

FCOM 2.10.9

A

1.Secondary engine instruments on lower EICAS when at least one Fuel Switch is in CUTOFF and N2 is below idle (FCOM 7.10.6)
2.AIR synoptic page
3.Upper EICAS on Pressurization System Indications when landing altitude MAN displayed, either OUTFLOW VALVE switch is in MAN, or during any of multiple non-normal conditions.

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19
Q

Under normal conditions, air is vented out through which outflow valve?

FCOM 2.30.1

A

Aft outflow valve

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20
Q

Pressurization system indications are displayed when?

FCOM 2.10.9

A
  1. Landing altitude MAN is displayed
  2. Either OUTFLOW VALVE switch is in MAN
  3. Cabin altitude is abnormal (in amber above normal range or in red excessive range)
  4. Cabin differential pressure is abnormal
  5. Duct pressure is abnormal
  6. AIR synoptic pressed
  7. EICAS message displayed: CABIN ALTITUDE, CABIN ALTITUDE AUTO, LANDING ALTITUDE, OUTFLOW VALVE AFT, OUTFLOW VALVE FWD
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21
Q

What areas receieve anti-ice protections?

FCOM 3.20.1

A
  1. engine cowls
  2. wing leading edges
  3. forward windows
  4. Probes
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22
Q

Under what weather conditions is nacelle anti-ice required to be ON?

FCOM SP.16.3

A

Must be selected ON immediately after both engines are started and remain on for all ground operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, (visible moisture and 10c to -40c)

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23
Q

Is the TAT probe heated? When?

FCOM 3.20.4

A

Yes electrically heated during flight

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24
Q

What indications do we have that engine anti-ice is on? Wing anti-ice?

FCOM 3.10.2

A

EAI displayed in green above N1 on EICAS

WAI displayed in green above EGT on EICAS

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25
Q

When is automatic WAI operation inhibited?

FCOM 3.20.2

A

TAKEOFF mode selected and less than 10 minutes after liftoff

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26
Q

With TAT>10c, WAI selector on. How long after takeoff is WAI inhibited?

FCOM 3.20.2

A

Inhibited for 5 minutes after liftoff

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27
Q

Which windows are provided Anti-ice and Anti-fogging protection?

FCOM 3.20.3

A

Forward windows have anti-ice protection (electrically heated on exterior)

Forward windows and all side windows have anti-fogging protection (electrically heated on interior)

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28
Q

When does anti-fogging system operate automatically on the forward windows?

FCOM 3.20.3

A

Backup anti-fog system operates automatically if primary window heat system fails

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29
Q

How do we reset a windshield heat controller fault?

FCOM 3.20.3

A

Turn off windshield heat, wait 10 seconds, and turn it back on

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30
Q

When are the AOA and Static ports heated?

FCOM 3.20.4

A

Electrically heated for anti-icing protection when either engine is running.

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31
Q

What occurs when CAPT is selected on the OBS Audio Selector on the Aft Aisle stand panel?

FCOM 5.10.11, 5.10.12

A

Basically connects all Capt’s audio components (hand mic, headphone, boom mic/headset, oxygen mask mic, speaker, and mic/interphone switches) to the First Observer audio control panel

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32
Q

When illuminated, what does the ‘Offside Tuning’ light indicate?

FCOM 5.10.3

A

Radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel
Or, radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this panel

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33
Q

How many VHF radios are installed?

FCOM 5.20.2

A

Three total - Left, Center, and Right (both C and R are capable of Data)

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34
Q

What protection does the 777 have in the even of a stuck mic on the ground?

FCOM 5.20.3

A

Any VHF radio that transmits more than 35 seconds is automatically disabled and an intermittent tone is heard through the audio system for that radio

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35
Q

How can you monitor for an IM signal during a CAT II approach?

FCOM 5.10.1, 5.10.2

A

Audio indication - select MKR with knob on lower right corner of Audio Control Panel and push in Volume knob to select audio

Visual indication - Marker beacon is displayed flashing on upper right corner of the PFD

(However, not required for CAT II unless approach has “RA Not Authorized” in the minimums

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36
Q

How can we tune DATA into the C VHF?

FCOM 5.20.2

A

Select default data radio in the MFD COMM page
Data can be selected on that radio by selecting a frequency higher or lower than the allowable VHF frequency range, then move that to the active window

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37
Q

How is the oxygen mask operation verified during preflight?

FCOM NP.21.18

A

-Display STATUS page on MFD to view oxygen pressure
-Press RETEST/TEST switch - check for yellow cross in Oxygen Flow Indicator
-While holding RESET/TEST, press the EMERGENCY/TEST for 5 seconds - verify yellow cross shows continuously
-Verify that crew oxygen pressure does not decrease more than 50 PSI
-Release both TEST switches and verify that yellow cross no longer shows
-Check that Normal/100% selector is set to 100%

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38
Q

In the event the loadmaster is on the main deck during flight and needs to return to their seat, what action would you take?

FCOM 5.10.12, 5.10.13

A

Press the MAIN DK ALERT button on Call Panel, on aft aisle stand
(Activates main deck aural warning and flashes main deck sidewall lights for several seconds)

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39
Q

How man PTT switches are in the cockpit?

FCOM 5.20.1

A

L,C,R Radio Tuning Panels (3)
L & R Sidewall Panels (2)
L & R Yoke (2)
Hand Mics (2 min)
Total = 9 (+ optional observer hand mic switches)

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40
Q

Selecting the SERV interphone switch to ON does what?

FCOM 5.10.9

A

Connects the service and flight interphone systems

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41
Q

What does IDG stand for?

FCOM 6.20.1

A

Integrated Drive Generator
(combined constant speed drive and starter-generator)

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42
Q

How many AC power sources are available to the aircraft?

FCOM 6.20.1

A

Primary sources:
-Left and right engine IDGS
-APU generator
-Primary and Secondary external power

Backup Sources:
-Two Backup Generators

Standby Sources:
-Standby Inverter
-Ram Air Turbine (RAT)

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43
Q

What turns on an IDG DRIVE light?

FCOM 6.20.2

A

Low oil pressure

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44
Q

What would cause the IDG to disconnect automatically?

FCOM 6.20.2

A

High oil temperature

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45
Q

What does the AVAIL light on the Primary EXT Power switch represent?

FCOM 6.20.2

A

Primary power source voltage and frequency are within limits and available to be manually selected on

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46
Q

What bus normally powers the ground service bus? Is there an alternate means to power the bus?

FCOM 6.20.5

A

Right Main AC bus
-Alternate power sources: APU, Primary external power
(Ground service bus powers: main battery charger, misc cabin lights and system loads)

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47
Q

What is the power source for the ground handling bus?

FCOM 6.20.5

A

Powered only on the ground by Primary External power or the APU
(Powers ground loads such as cargo handling, fueling/defuling, and other ground-only equipment)

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48
Q

What would occur for a Backup Generator to power essential airplane equipment?

FCOM 6.20.7

A

Automatically powers one or both Transfer busses when:
-Only one AC generator (including APU) is available
-Power is lost on one or both Main AC busses
-APP mode selected for an autoland
-System automatically self-tests after each respective engine start

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49
Q

Within the backup generator are PMs that are used to power what?

FCOM 6.20.11

A

PMs supply power to 3 Flight Control DC (FCDC) buses through 3 Power Supply Assemblies (PSA)

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50
Q

What alititude is the airplane limited to with the RAT extended?

FCOM 6.20.13

A

RAT “has no operating time limits, and operates at all airspeeds and altitudes (so 43,100ft)

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51
Q

What are the primary engine indications on the upper EICAS?

FCOM 7.10.1

A

N1 and EGT

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52
Q

When will you see the EGT Start Limit line displayed?

FCOM 7.10.4

A

Fuel Control Switch in CUTOFF, or
N2 RPM below idle

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53
Q

If the EGT limit is exceeded on takeoff, what is indicated? What indications remain if any, after EGT returns to the normal range?

FCOM 7.20.3

A

Max continuous limit (amber) is inhibited during takeoff for 5 minutes
If max takeoff limit is exceeded - digital indication, box, pointer, and dial all turn red
When back in normal range - box around the number remains red (can cancel/recall this with cancel/recall switch)

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54
Q

The amber line on the N1 indicator represents what?

FCOM 7.20.3

A

Max continuous thrust limit

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55
Q

What valves are controlled by the fuel control switch with AUTOSTART?

FCOM 7.10.15

A

RUN - opens spar fuel valve and arms engine fuel valve (opened by EEC when required)
-Arms selected ignitors
CUTOFF - closes both fuel valves, removes ignitor power, arms engine fire switch

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56
Q

When will continuous ignition come on automatically?

FCOM 7.20.8

A

When a flameout condition is detected, until 3 seconds after it’s cleared, whenever:
-flaps are out of the UP position, or
-engine anti-ice is on

57
Q

What protections are provided by the EEC?

FCOM 7.20.4, 7.20.5

A

-N1 and N2 red line overspeed protection (normal and alternate modes)
-Thrust (max continuous, yellow) protection (normal mode only)
-Trust control malfunction (uncontrolled high thrust on the ground)

58
Q

When is approach idle active?

FCOM 7.20.5

A

In flight when:
-Engine anti-ice is operating
-Flaps are commanded to 25 or more
-One hydraulic system air-driven demand pump is inop and flaps are extended
-Opposite engine bleed air valve is closed

59
Q

What are the APU operating modes?

FCOM 7.30.2

A

Attended - either engine running or starting, or in flight
-For fire, automatically shuts down but fire bottle must be discharged manually
-For high EGT, high oil temp, or low oil pressure, shows APU LIMIT on EICAS but must be manually shut down

Unattended
-Any malfunction causes it to automatically shutdown immediately
-For APU fire, bottle extinguishes automatically

60
Q

When will the APU be commanded to start automatically?

FCOM 7.30.2

A

Loss of power on both AC transfer busses in flight

61
Q

How many fire bottles are on the 777F?

FCOM 8.20

A

Engine fire bottles - 2
APU fire bottle - 1
Lower cargo fire bottles - 5
Lavatory fire bottle - 1
Total: 9

62
Q

What does the fire and overheat detection system testing automatic fault test do?

FCOM 8.20.6

A

-Engine and APU - fire/overheat detector loops monitored continuously for faults
-Cargo and wheel well system - monitored continuously for any system faults
-If fault detected, system automatically sonfigures for single loop operation
-Complete system failure indicated by an EICAS advisory message

63
Q

With the engine fuel switch in run, can the fire switch be pulled?
Pulling an ENGINE FIRE SWITCH does what?

FCOM 8.10.1

A

Yes, but override switch must be pushed while pulling switches (unless unlocked automatically for fire warning)
-Closes spar and engine fuel valves
-Trips associated generator offline
-Closes engine bleed air valve
-Shuts off supply of hydraulic fluid to engine driven hydraulic pump
-Depressurizes engine hydraulic pump
-Arms both fire extinguishers
-Removes power from the thrust reverser isolation valve

64
Q

With a MAIN DECK CARGO FIRE, arming the MAIN DECK FIRE switch does what?

FCOM 8.10.3, 8.20.5

A

1.Configures one pack off and the other to a low flow mode
2.Turns off both recirculation fans
3.Turns off lav/galley vent fans
4.Turns off cargo heat in respective compartment
5.Turns off electrical power outlets in respective compartment
6.Commands pack to supply air to flight deck and supernumerary areas only
7.Turns off the Nitrogen Generation System
8.Commands EE cooling to provide pack air to flight deck equipment
9.Turns off main deck cargo compartment air in-flow
10.Turns off aft cargo air conditioning supply and exhaust
11.Inhibits lower cargo compartment fire warnings
(Subsequent discharge initiates controlled depressurization to a cabin altitude of approximately 23,000ft with aircraft at 25,000ft)

65
Q

With a LOWER FWD CARGO FIRE, pressing the CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch does what?

FCOM 8.20.5

A

Two extinguisher bottles discharge immediately into selected compartment
After a 20 minute time delay, remaining three extinguisher bottles discharge at a reduced rate. If airplanes lands before all bottles discharged, one remaining bottle is discharged at a reduced rate.

66
Q

Are the engine fire loops an AND or an OR logic system?

FCOM 8.20.1

A

AND - normally both need to detect fire, unless one is inop

67
Q

What fire protection do we have in the wheel well?

FCOM 8.20.4

A

None
(Main wheel detection only with two fire detector loops)

68
Q

How many overheat loops are installed for the APU?

FCOM 8.10.5

A

No overheat loops - fire detection loops only

69
Q

Where is the APU ground control panel located?

FCOM 8.10.5

A

Aft side of nose wheel well, on nose wheel gear

70
Q

What are the Primary Flight Control System modes?

FCOM 9.20.5

A

Normal
Secondary
Direct

71
Q

What flight envelop protections are provided by the PFC’s in the normal mode?

FCOM 9.20.6

A

Stall (reset trim reference speed to min maneuver speed)
Overspeed (reset trim reference speed to max maneuver speed)
Bank angle (if bank angle of 35 deg exceeded, provides input to move back to 30)

72
Q

The stabilizer is powered by which hydraulic systems?

FCOM 9.20.11

A

Center and Right hydraulic systems

73
Q

What protection does the NORM position of the STAB Cutout Switches provide?

FCOM 9.20.11, 9.20.12

A

If uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed, hydraulic power to stab trim control module which caused motion is automatically shut off, STABILIZER L or STABILIZER R advisory message on EICAS. Stab trim still available from remaining controller.
(STABILIZER warning message on EICAS iffull system failure)
(With full failure, elevators are used to change trim reference speed with the elevators)

74
Q

Wheel to rudder cross-tie is available in the normal mode when?

FCOM 9.20.15

A

In flight below 210 kts
(Controls initial effects of an engine failure using control wheel inputs only. Can deflect rudder up to 8 degrees.)

75
Q

During takeoff at what speed does the rudder become aerodynamically effective?

FCOM 9.20.3

A

60kts

76
Q

When will the thrust asymmetry compensation system automatically add rudder?

FCOM 9.20.14

A

Thrust differential of 10% or more between engines
Available above 70kts on the ground and in flight
Automatically disengages if engine thrust data is lost (i.e. N1)

77
Q

In which primary flight control modes is thrust asymmetry compensation available?

FCOM 9.20.7

A

Normal mode only

78
Q

In the Alternate mode, flap and slat extension is sequenced how?

FCOM 9.20.18

A

Flaps and slats extend simultaneously
(Slat retraction is inhibited until flaps are up)
(Limited to flaps 20 and slats midrange)
(No protections or load relief available)

79
Q

Flap and slat extension from the UP position is inhibited when?

FCOM 9.20.17

A

Above 20,000 feet
Speed more than 275kts

80
Q

When is the pitch limit indicator displayed on the PFD?

FCOM 10.10.6

A

Flaps are extended (out of up) or at low speeds with flaps up

81
Q

The selected speed on the PFD displays what?

FCOM 10.10.12, 10.10.13

A

With MCP speed window open, displays MCP selected speed.
With MCP speed window closed, displays FMC-computed speed for that phase of flight (i.e. ECON speed)

82
Q

What identifies the active waypoint on the ND?

FCOM 10.40.3

A

Waypoint shown in magenta on the map displayed
Active waypoint text in upper right corner, displayed in mageta along with ETA (as computed using current speed and distance, not FMC calculated) and distance

83
Q

The altitude range arc displays what information?

FCOM 10.40.12

A

Shows approximate map position where MCP altitude will be rached, based on present vertical speed and groundspeed

84
Q

What is displayed when the DATA switch on the EFIS control panel is pushed?

FCOM 10.10.32

A

Displays FMC-computed ETA, altitude, and altitude constraints at each waypoint on map display

85
Q

The display select panel can still display which synoptics on the lower center display if the EICAS display has automatically moved to the lower center display?

FCOM 10.20.3

A

Only ENG, AIR and FUEL - pressing one of those will display a compacted block of info on the EICAS display.

86
Q

In what ND modes will weather radar be displayed?

FCOM 11.20.11, 10.40.14

A

In all modes except:
1.Plan
2.VOR Center
3.Approach Center

Displays in: MAP, MAP CTR, VOR, APP

87
Q

What indications an active route modification on the ND?

FCOM 10.40.12

A

Short dashes in white along the modified route line between waypoints.

88
Q

Where will the source of navigation performance for the navigation scales be displayed?

FCOM 10.10.19

A

Near the top left corner of the ATT display on the PFD
-Possible combinations are:
1.ILS
2.LOC/VNAV
3.LNAV/GS
LNAV/VNAV

89
Q

When will the localizer and glideslope pointers and scales display and when will they fill in solid?

FCOM 10.10.11

A

In view when localizer or glideslope are received, respectively
Fills in solid when respective withing 2-1/2 dots from the center, for each

90
Q

What is the maximum amount of usable fuel we can carry in pounds with a fuel density of 6.7 lbs per gallon?

FCOM 12.20.1

A

69.0 + 69.0 +182.8 = 320.8

91
Q

When will the center tanks pumps shutoff automatically?

FCOM 12.20.2

A

After 15 seconds of continuous low pressure

92
Q

On the ground with both center fuel pump switches on, when will both pumps operate?

FCOM 12.20.2

A

When 2 electrical power sources are available.

93
Q

When will the DC fuel pump operate automatically?

FCOM 12.20.4

A

On the ground with APU selected on and no AC power available.

In flight, the DC fuel pump operates automatically for quick left engine relight with the loss of both engines and all AC power.

94
Q

Where is the DC fuel pump located?

FCOM 12.20.3

A

Left main tank

95
Q

What is the purpose of the Nitrogen Generation System?

FCOM 12.20.2

A

Converts bleed air to nitrogen-enriched air to reduce flammability of the center wing tank fuel during all phases of flight and for a brief period after landing
(Shuts down if: engine out, equipment cooling switch off, or cargo fire arm switch armed)

96
Q

Where is the fuel temp displayed?

FCOM 12.10.3, 12.10.6, 12.10.7, 12.20.2

A

Fuel temperature is displayed on the primary EICAS display
-Normally displayed in white
-Displayed in amber when fuel temp approaches the fuel freeze temp
Lower left corner of the FUEL synoptic page

97
Q

What is the significance of the fuel imbalance pointer on the EICAS?

FCOM 12.10.4

A

Points to main fuel tank with lowest quantity
Solid white pointer if:
-Main tank fuel differs by more than 10,000lbs or
-Main tank fuel differs by more than 200lbs and X-feed valve is open
Pointer flashes if fuel balancing is going the wrong direction
When fuel is back within 200lbs, indication FUEL BALANCED shows and flashes for 5 seconds
IMBALANCE message on fuel quantity display-varies with total main tank quantity

98
Q

Where do you read the fuel “TO REMAIN” when the Fuel Jettison ARM switch is ARMED?

FCOM 12.10.5

A

Shown on lower right corner of EICAS
Replaces Fuel Temperature display
Also shown on fuel synoptic display

99
Q

Will center tank fuel be jettisoned with the center tank pumps off?

FCOM 12.10.2

A

No

100
Q

What would cause a Demand Pump FAULT light to illuminate?

FCOM 13.10.2

A

Low demand pump output pressure
Excessive fluid temperature
Pump selected OFF
Normal to see FAULT light on when load shedding

101
Q

What will activate a hydraulic demand pump if the selector is in AUTO?

FCOM 13.10.2

A

System and/or primary pump(s) pressure is low, or when control logic anticipates a large system demand

102
Q

What components are powered by the right hydraulic system?

FCOM 13.20.1

A

Primary flight controls, normal brakes, right thrust reverser, right stabilizer trim

103
Q

What components will be affected by the loss of center hydraulic system? How will having a single ground power source affect the center PRIMARY pumps?

FCOM 13.20.2

A

1.Flap/slats
2.Landing gear actuation
3.Alternate brakes
4.Main gear steering
5.Nosegear steering & reserve brakes - isolated above 60kts
Flight controls still powered by left and right hydraulic systems
With single ground power source:

On ground:
-C2 pump will not run if C1 is selected on
-Will run if one engine generator is running, or two power sources

In flight:
-May load shed if:
–All ofther electric pumps running
–Single source of electrical power
–generator capacity is exceeded

104
Q

In flight, what does RF indicate on the STATUS display?

FCOM 13.10.3

A

RF = hydraulic reservoir requires refilling
(both RF and OF inhibited in flight on hydraulic display)

105
Q

How are the hydraulic demand pumps driven?

FCOM 13.20.1

A

Left and Right hydraulic demand pumps - electric
Center hydraulic demand pumps - pneumatic (bleed air)

106
Q

What hydraulic components does the RAT provide power to?

FCOM 13.20.2

A

Only primary flight controls on the Center hydraulic system

107
Q

What would cause the RAT to deploy automatically in flight?

FCOM 13.20.2

A

1.Failure of both engines with low center hydraulic pressure
2.Low hydraulic pressure in all three systems
3.Loss of power on both AC transfer busses

108
Q

How can the RAT be stowed if it has been deployed in flight?

FCOM 13.20.3

A

It can’t.

109
Q

How many tires does the B-777 have?

FCOM 14.10.6

A

14 tires

110
Q

After landing, autobrake application begins when?

FCOM 14.20.5

A

Wheels spin up
Both thrust levers at idle

111
Q

What does the EICAS message BRAKE SOURCE indicate?

FCOM 14.20.3

A

Both right and center/reserve hydraulic system pressures are low

112
Q

How does the alternate landing gear extension system extend the landing gear?

FCOM 14.20.2

A

-Uses dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic pump and center hydraulic system fluid to release all door and gear uplocks
-Gear free-fall to down and locked
-Gear doors remain open

113
Q

What is the maximum speed at which the gear can be operated?

FCOM L.10.11

A

Vmo = 270kts, Mmo = 0.73

114
Q

When does TO autobrake setting command maximum braking pressure?

FCOM 14.20.5

A

RTO commands max braking pressure if:
-airplane on the ground
-groundspeed greater than 85kts
-both thrust levers retarded to idle

115
Q

What does a white hashed box displayed on the EICAS gear position indicator mean?

FCOM 14.10.5

A

-One or more landing gear are in transit
-Display changes to an Expanded Gear Position Indication if non-normal, and shows in-transit for individual gear

116
Q

How long does the gear UP indication remain displayed on the EICAS?

FCOM 14.10.5

A

10 seconds

117
Q

Main gear steering automatically operates when?

FCOM 14.20.3

A

Nosewheel steering greater than 13 degrees

118
Q

What does the Taxi Brake Release system do?

FCOM 14.20.3

A

Alternately releases pressure in wheel pairs to reduce brake wear and temperatures
-Inhibited above 45kts

119
Q

What are the different EICAS alert message priority levels?

FCOM 15.20.1

A

(Least to greatest priority)
-Advisory
-Caution
-Warning

120
Q

Can EICAS warning messages be canceled by pushing the CANC/RCL switch?

FCOM 15.20.2

A

No

121
Q

What is indicated by [ ] preceding an EICAS message?

FCOM 15.10.1

A

Procedural steps, notes, or other information of which the crew must be made aware exists for that message
“Annunciated” non-normal checklist

122
Q

What are the different CONFIG warning messages?

FCOM 15.30.1

A

There are 9:

CONFIG DOORS - at TO thrust set
CONFIG FLAPS - at TO thrust set
CONFIG GEAR - thrust lever closed below 800ft RA or when flaps in landing position
CONFIG GEAR STEERING - at TO thrust set
CONFIG PARKING BRAKE - at TO thrust set
CONFIG RUDDER - not centered, at TO thrust set
CONFIG SPOILERS:
-speedbrake not down at TO thrust set
-speedbrake lever extended beyond ARMED in flight with climb thrust or greater
CONFIG STABILIZER - stab not in greenband at TO thrust set
CONFIG WARNING SYS - fault in the configuration warning system

123
Q

When is PWS enabled to provide windshear alerts?

FCOM 15.20.26

A

Takeoff - begins scanning with TO thrust on either engine, up to 1200ft
-Cautions inhibited from 80kts until 400ft RA
-Warning inhibited from 100kts until 50ft RA
Landings - starts scanning at 2300ft, enabled below 1200ft

124
Q

What conditions exist if a DONT’ SINK Voice Annunciation is heard?

FCOM 15.20.28

A

Altitude loss with flaps and/or gear up after takeoff or go-around

125
Q

Pushing the EICAS EVENT Record switch does what and how many times?

FCOM 15.20.38

A

-Records currently displayed engine indications and additional EICAS maintenance information
-Records up to 5 events, with the first five pushes
(Also records out of limit parameters and related conditions automatically when a system parameter is exceeded.

126
Q

What does a Status message indicate?

FCOM 15.20.2

A

Indicates equipment faults which may affect airplane dispatch capability

127
Q

What does the TCAS Voice Annunciation TRAFFIC, TRAFFIC indicate?

FCOM 15.20.12, 15.20.15

A

-New Traffic Advisory (TA) voice annunciation
-Prediction that another aircraft will enter the conflict airspace in 25 to 45 seconds.

128
Q

What switch displays TCAS traffic on the ND?

FCOM 15.10.7

A

TFC on EFIS control Panel

129
Q

What is the max ZFW?

FCOM L.10.6

A

547,000 lbs

130
Q

What is the MTOW?

FCOM L.10.6

A

766,000 lbs

131
Q

What is the Max Taxi Weight?

FCOM L.10.6

A

768,000 lbs

132
Q

What is the Max Landing Weight?

FCOM L.10.6

A

575,000 lbs

133
Q

What is the maximum tailwind speed for takeoff and landing?

FCOM L.10.6

A

15 kts

134
Q

Max Operating Altitude?

FCOM L.10.2

A

43,100 ft (MSL)

135
Q

What is the maximum tailwind speed for an Autoland?

FCOM L.10.6

A

15 kts

136
Q

What is the Max Altitude for Flap extension?

FCOM L.10.8

A

20,000 ft MSL

137
Q

Without LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated, when must the autopilot be disengaged?

FCOM L.10.6

A

200 ft AGL

138
Q

Minimum autopilot engagement altitude after takeoff is?

FOM L.10.6

A

200 ft AGL

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