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CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study Cards > Systems Test > Flashcards

Systems Test Flashcards

1
Q

When the main passenger door is unlocked, it will be associated with a

A

Warning message and aural alert

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2
Q

The galley service door is a _____ door.

A

Type 1/semi plug

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3
Q

The maximum weight allowed in the aft cargo compartment is

A

4,375 lbs

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4
Q

The maximum weight allowed in each section of the forward cargo bay is

A

850 lbs

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5
Q

The crew escape hatch is a _____ door.

A

Plug

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6
Q

The DC service switch on the overhead panel gets power from the

A

APU battery direct bus

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7
Q

What is the function of the IDG?

A

To convert variable N2 engine speed to constant generator speed

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8
Q

IDG stands for

A

Integrated Drive Generator

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9
Q

The CRJ900 has _____ TRU’s.

A

4

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10
Q

The function of the TRUs is to

A

Convert 115 V AC to 28 V DC

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11
Q

The TRUs are rated at

A

120 amps

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12
Q

The three main generators are rated at

A

40 KVA up to FL410

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13
Q

The ADG generator is rated at

A

15 KVA

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14
Q

In flight, the ADG will auto deploy with

A

total loss of AC power

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15
Q

If landing on ADG power, you must be fully configured for landing no later than

A

140 KIAS

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16
Q

Normal hydraulic system pressure is

A

3,000 PSI

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17
Q

High hydraulic pressure is

A

3,200 PSI

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18
Q

Hydraulic over pressure relief happens at

A

3,750 PSI

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19
Q

T/F: Hydraulic pump 3B will operate with the ADG regardless of switch position

A

True

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20
Q

T/F: The B hydraulic pump will automatically turn on if an associated A pump
(Switches auto/on)

A

False

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21
Q

Which hydraulic pumps are operating in cruise flight when the hydraulic switch is set to Auto/On?

A

1A, 3A, 2A

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22
Q

In the event of a depressurization, the cabin altitude warning will illuminate at

A

10,000 ft

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23
Q

The passenger oxygen masks will auto deploy at _____ cabin altitude.

A

14,000 feet

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24
Q

The cabin altitude caution will trigger at a cabin altitude of

A

8,500 ft

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25
Anytime there is cargo onboard, we have to be within ____ minutes of a suitable airport.
60
26
The continuous ignition must be selected on during operations on/in
Both A. & C. Contaminated runways, the vicinity of thunderstorms
27
The starter limitation for the first two attempts are
90 seconds on, 10 seconds off
28
The minimum battery voltage to start the APU is
22 volts
29
Where would you check the battery voltage prior to starting the APU?
DC synoptic page
30
The top altitude to start the APU is
FL370
31
The top altitude we can use APU bleed air is
FL250
32
On the overhead panel, the illumination of FAULT on the pressurization controller switchlight, along with the associated master caution indicates the loss of
Both pressurization controllers
33
Ram air is used for
All of the above. PACK pre-cooling, hydraulic system 1&2 cooling, unpressurized flight
34
A PACK fault could be triggered by
Both A. & B. PACK overpressure, PACK high temperature
35
Single PACK operation is limited to
FL250
36
There are _____ ways to keep the fuel balanced.
3
37
The fuel control computer will balance the fuel when there is a _____ imbalance.
200 lb
38
If there are at least 500 lbs of fuel in the center tank, there must be at least ____ of fuel in the wing tanks.
4,400 lbs
39
The crew oxygen bottle pressure relief happens at
2,800 PSI
40
The OXY LOW PRES caution will appear when the crew oxygen bottle depletes to
1,410 PSI
41
The maximum usable fuel when pressure re-fueling is
19,594 lbs
42
The maximum usable fuel when gravity refueling is
14,810 lbs
43
The engine fuel temperature must be at least ____ for takeoff
5 degrees C
44
Selecting DEPLOY on the EMER FLAP switch will deploy the
Flaps to 20, slats to 25
45
The EMER FLAP switch is inhibited above
220 KTS
46
What is the maximum available steering with using only the rudder pedals?
8 degrees
47
Which of the following are not depicted on the EICAS DOOR synoptic page?
Crew escape hatch, aft equipment door
48
The 5 rechargeable battery packs provide power to the emergency lights for
10 minutes
49
"Too Low Gear" will sound with the landing gear retracted and radio altitude
<500 AGL and <190 kts
50
The ADG (Air Driven Generator) is rated at
15 KVA, 115V(AC), 400HZ
51
How much thrust is provided from the bypass air (N1)?
80%
52
The outflow valve has__electric motors.
3
53
The FADEC alternator will supply electrical power to both channels above
50% N2
54
Ailerons provide lateral control with assistance of the MFSs
True
55
____ smoke detectors in the FWD cargo compartment and ____ in the AFT cargo compartment.
3, 2
56
The outboard brakes are supplied by
Hydraulic system 2
57
Alternate landing gear extension is supplied by
Hydraulic system 2
58
Landing gear extension is supplied by
Hydraulic system 3
59
Nosewheel steering is supplied by
Hydraulic system 3
60
Inboard brakes are supplied by
Hydraulic system 3
61
During an engine start, the FADEC will not provide protection for
Dry motoring
62
During a normal start, the starter will cut out at
50% N2
63
How is a cowl duct leak detected?
Pressure transducer
64
Hydraulic pumps 1B and 2B will operate when
Their respective buses are powered Any generator operating Flaps out of zero degrees
65
When operating in icing conditions and both wing and cowl anti-ice is selected on, the ICE caution message will become a green ICE advisory message when
Wing leading edge is greater than 39 degree C
66
With the APU door open and the APU not operating, maximum airspeed is restricted to
220 kts
67
How many outflow valve(s) are there?
1
68
The APU battery is rated at
43 ampere hour, 24 volt
69
During engine start, FADEC will provide protection for
Hot start & hung start
70
The nose wheel steering system provides__ degrees of steering.
80
71
How many APU start attempts can be made in 1 hour?
3
72
Visible moisture can be defined as fog (1 mile or less), standing water, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals.
True
73
In a PC runaway situation (bungee breakout) the SSCU will provide automatic onside MSF control?
True
74
The maximum fuel imbalance for takeoff is
300 lbs
75
The purpose of the HYD SOV switchlight is
To stop the flow of hydraulic fluid to EDP 1A or 2A
76
The minimum battery voltage for an APU start is
22V
77
What is the purpose of the HPV?
To provide high pressure 10th stage bleed air if required
78
The APR (automatic performance reserve) will activate on takeoff when
During an engine failure and FADEC senses a mismatch of 15% N1 between the two engines
79
On the CF34-8C5 engine, the core air are provides approximately___% of the thrust.
20
80
How many types of aural WARNINGS are provided to the flight crew?
10
81
The rudder is powered by 2 PCUs?
False
82
The Yaw Damper is controlled by the auto pilot system?
False
83
The AVAIL illumination on the AC External Power Switchlight, indicates
Correct, voltage, frequency and phase
84
In flight, what situation will cause the ADG to auto-deploy?
Complete loss of AC power
85
The three subsystems of the FADEC consist of fuel control, compressor airflow management, and engine starting ignition control
True
86
If the ground valve fails to fully close after the main cabin door is closed, an_____message is displayed
OVBD COOL
87
Maximum pressure relief differential is
8.7
88
The green line on the airspeed tape indicates
1.27 Vs
89
Engine oil is cooled by
Fuel/oil heat exchanger
90
With the horizontal stabilizer in motion for more than___seconds, the clacker will sound.
3
91
The highest priority when trimming the horizontal stabilizer is
Captain
92
The APU fuel source comes from the
Left collector tank
93
The pressurization system automatically pre-pressurizes the aircraft to
-150 ft

CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study Cards (9 decks)

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