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Flashcards in Systems Validation Questions Bank Deck (317):
1

What is the aircrafts Maximum Landing Weight (MLW)?

74,957 lbs

2

True or False: In the event of a landing below -40 degrees C, the aircraft may not takeoff without further maintenance inspection.

True

3

What is the minimum battery temperature?

-20 C

4

What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?

20,000 ft

5

What is VLO (landing gear operation speed) for retraction?

250 KIAS

6

What is VLO (landing gear operation speed) for extension?

250 KIAS

7

What is VLE (landing gear extended speed)?

250 KIAS

8

What is the maximum speed to open the direct vision window?

160 KIAS

9

What is the turbulent air penetration target speed maximum below 10,000 ft.?

250 KIAS

10

What is the turbulent air penetration target speed maximum at or above 10,000 ft.?

270 KIAS or Mach 0.76 (Whichever is slower)

11

What is VFE (maximum flaps extended speed) for Flaps 1?

230 KIAS

12

What is VFE (maximum flaps extended speed) for Flaps 2?

215 KIAS

13

What is VFE (maximum flaps extended speed) for Flaps 3?

200 KIAS

14

What is VFE (maximum flaps extended speed) for Flaps 4 and Flaps 5?

180 KIAS

15

What is VFE (maximum flaps extended speed) for Flaps Full?

165 KIAS

16

What is the maximum tire ground speed?

195 KIAS

17

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?

15 KTS

18

What is the maximum crosswind limit (including gust factor) for a dry runway?

38 KTS

19

What is the maximum crosswind limit (including gust factor) for a wet runway?

31 KTS

20

What is the maximum crosswind limit (including gust factor) for a runway with compacted snow?

20 KTS

21

What is the maximum crosswind limit (including gust factor) for a runway with standing water/slush/wet snow/dry snow?

18 KTS

22

What is the maximum crosswind limit (including gust factor) for a runway with ice (including wet ice)?

12 KTS

23

What is the maximum N1 allowed with brakes applied and tailwinds greater than 10 kts.?

60%

24

What is the maximum permitted imbalance between fuel tanks?

794 lbs

25

What is the minimum fuel tank temperature?

-37 C

26

True or False: The Crossfeed selector knob isn't required to be set to OFF during takeoff and landing.

False

27

The maximum altitude allowed for starting the APU is _____ feet.

30,000 ft

28

The maximum altitude allowed for operating the APU is _____ feet.

33,000 ft

29

The cooling periods after each APU start attempt are _____ for the first and second attempts and _____ for the third attempt.

60 Sec / 5 Min

30

What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start?

-40 C

31

Dry motoring duty cycle limits are _____ seconds for the first motoring and _____ seconds for the 2nd through 5th motorings.

90 seconds / 30 seconds

32

With regard to starting duty cycle limits (NOT dry motoring limits), the first and second motorings are limited to _____ on the ground and _____ in flight, with a _____ cooldown.

90 seconds / 120 seconds / 10 second

33

With regard to starting duty cycle limits (NOT dry motoring limits), the third through fifth motorings are limited to _____ on the ground and __________ inflight with a _______ cooldown

90 seconds / 120 seconds / 5 Minute

34

What is the maximum differential pressure?

8.4 psi

35

What is the maximum differential overpressure?

8.8 psi

36

What is the maximum differential negative pressure?

-0.5 psi

37

What is the maximum differential pressure for takeoff and landing?

0.2 psi

38

True or False: There is no temperature limitation for automatic operation of the anti-icing system.

True

39

On the ground, the TO DATASET MENU on the MCDU must be set to ENG when OAT is between _____ degrees if there is a possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1,700 ft. AFE and when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on the engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

5-10 C

40

On the ground, the TO DATASET MENU on the MCDU must be set to ALL when OAT is below _____ degrees if there is a possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1,700 ft. AFE and when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on the engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

5 C

41

With regard to operating in icing conditions, the engine and wing anti-ice systems operate automatically when the ice protection mode selector is in the _____ position, and if either one or both ice detectors have failed, the crew must set the mode selector to ON when icing conditions exist or are anticipated below _____ with visible moisture.

Auto / 10 C

42

What is the maximum airspeed for windshield wiper operation?

250 KIAS

43

The minimum engagement height for the autopilot is _____ ft. and the minimum use height is _____ ft.

400' / 50'

44

Which of the following are limitations of the aircrafts WiFi system?

Prohibited from use on flight deck
Flight attendant acting as crew shall be onboard

45

Which of the following are limitations of flighdeck power?

Restricted to company issued iPads & Personal Cell phones
Not to be used during critical phases of flight
Cords cannot impede the movement of flight controls

46

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the use flightdeck power and phase of flight?

Not to be used during critical phases of flight
Cords cannot impede the movement of flight controls

47

True or False: When using flightdeck power, do not position cord as to impede the movement of any flight control or restrict emergency egress paths.

True

48

Regarding turning radius, what is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?

59 ft 2 in

49

True or False: The rudder pedals are in a fixed position and cannot be adjusted.

False

50

What is the maximum ramp weight of the aircraft?

85,870 lbs

51

What is the maximum takeoff weight of the aircraft?

85,517 lbs

52

What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the aircraft?

69,886 lbs

53

True or False: The air conditioning packs are located in the wing to fuselage fairings.

True

54

How many primary display units are in the flight deck?

Two PFDs Primary Flight Displays

55

The flight deck is designed under which of the following concepts?

Dark and Quiet Flightdeck

56

In flight, when all aircraft systems are operating normally, you should expect which of the following?

Overhead, main, glareshield, and control pedestal panels have no lights on

No aural warnings are being issued

The selector knobs are positioned at twelve o’clock. A white striped bar illuminates on any button to indicate that it is not in its normal position.

57

True or False: Both the Captain's and First Officer's consoles contain a nose wheel steering tiller.

False

58

Which classification of circuit breakers are found in the flightdeck?

Thermal

59

Which classification of circuit breakers are found in the Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies (SPDAs) in the electronics bays?

Electronic (SPDAs only electronic circuit breaker location)

60

How can the PAX cabin temperature control be transferred from the flighdeck to the cabin?

Turn the temperature selector all the way down to the transfer to flight attendant position

61

Where are the fans drawing air from in order to cool the FWD E-BAY?

Flight Deck

62

True or False: The air conditioning system is controlled using the AIR COND/PNEUMATIC panel located on the overhead.

True

63

What does FPA stand for?

Flight Path Angle

64

Where is the pack status displayed?

ECS Synoptic Page

65

At which temperature will the gasper shutoff valve open?

35 C (95 F)

66

Selected temperature for the air conditioning system is displayed where?

ECS Synoptic Page

67

In order to set the target temperature from the overhead panel for the air conditioning, you would do what?

Adjust cockpit/cabin temperature rotating knob

68

How many recirculation fans are there?

6 (Three in forward E-Bay, three in center E-Bay)

69

How does the forward E-BAY air cooling system monitor its temperature?

A flow sensor is used for fan/flow health monitoring

70

The flightdeck pack emergency ram air ventilation valve is commanded to open when _______.

• Airplane is on the ground and until 17,500 feet during the climb phase.
• Airplane is below 17,000 feet during descent.
• Pressurization Dump Button is activated.
• RAT is deployed.
• Anti-ice system is activated. The AMS controller commands one of the RAIDs to OPEN when one of the
following conditions occur:
- Related ECS pack failure.
- Related ECS pack is commanded OFF by
automatism or manual pilot command.

71

True or False: During normal operations, air from Pack 1 is delivered directly to the flight deck.

True

72

True or False: There are two fans installed in the aft electronic bays for cooling.

False.
No fans in aft electronic bays. Air flowing from passenger cabin provides cooling

73

Which of the following apply during a smoke removal situation?

Both packs will be commanded off
Flight deck emergency ram air ventilation will be commanded open

74

The gasper air distribution system provides air to _______.

Each individual passenger seat

75

True or False: A single bleed air consumer can receive bleed air from multiple sources at the same time.

True

76

True or False: There is an indication of outflow valve position on the status page of the MFD.

True

77

The CPCS can operate in which modes?

Automatic & Manual

78

Which of the following are components of the CPCS?

Cabin pressure controller (CPC)
One cabin outflow valve (OFV)
One negative pressure relief valve (NPRV)
One positive pressure relief valve (safety valve)
Static pressure port

79

The pressurization panel is found where?

Overhead console

80

True or False: The basic function of the CPC is to modulate the outflow valve in order to maintain proper cabin pressure.

True

81

True or False: The CPC modulates the outflow valve based on information received from the cabin pressure sensors.

True

82

True or False: The CPC is a quad channel controller.

False (Two channels with a manual mode on each)

83

True or False: If a CPC channel should fail, an EICAS message will be displayed.

False (Both have to fail to provide a caution)

84

The outflow valve _______ to increase cabin pressure and _______ to decrease cabin pressure.

Closes / Opens

85

True or False: Normally, the outflow valve is modulated automatically by the CPC.

True

86

What is the proper way to increase cabin pressure while operating in the manual mode?

Mode Manual
Cabin ALT down

87

The Negative Pressure Relief Valve serves which purpose?

Its function is to protect the airplane structure against damage due to a negative differential pressure

88

The Negative Pressure Relief Valve is operated how?

Spring loaded check valve

89

At which point will the Negative Pressure Relief Valves open?

pressure differential exceeds -0.5 psi

90

True or False: The Negative Pressure Relief Valve requires no electricity to operate.

True

91

The Positive Pressure Relief Valve is operated how?

Spring loaded check valve

92

True or False: The Positive Pressure Relief Valve opens when the pressure differential exceeds 8.6 PSI.

True

93

True or False: The Positive Pressure Relief Valve is connected to its own static port.

True (Mechanically connected)

94

True or False: The Positive Pressure Relief Valve is installed to prevent damage to the aircraft structure due to excessive positive overpressure.

True

95

True or False: The Positive Pressure Relief Valve’s static port is not electrically heated, due to the fact that it does not protrude from the fuselage.

False

96

At which point would the Positive Pressure Relief Valve activate?

Pressure differential exceeds 8.6 psi

97

True or False: DUMP cannot be used in the automatic mode to relieve pressure if needed. This is only done through manual mode.

False (OFV will not open when operating in manual mode)

98

What information does the CPCS take into account when scheduling a target cabin altitude and cabin pressure variation?

LFE
Cruise Altitude
Gross Weight

99

True or False: The Negative Pressure Relief Valve only works if the Positive Pressure Relief Valve is operational.

False

100

What is the default cabin altitude value if no input is made into the CPCS?

8,000' LFE is the default if no data is available

101

True or False: When cruise altitude is not available from the FMS, the cabin pressure schedule is based on ambient pressure.

True

102

True or False: The Negative Pressure Relief Valve works independently from the normal Outflow Valve.

True

103

In regard to the CPCS, what are the special procedures for high altitude operations?

There are no special procedures for high altitude operations

104

How is the DUMP function activated for the CPCS?

pressing the guarded dump button on the pressurization panel

105

What happens when the DUMP function is activated?

ECS packs and recirculation fans OFF
controls OFV to cabin climb at 2,000 fpm to 12,400 then natural leak down of pressure.

106

True or False: When the CPCS is in manual mode, no pilot input is necessary to adjust cabin pressurization.

False

107

What will occur if the cabin altitude reaches 9,700 ft.?

CABIN ALT HI EICAS Message

108

Automatic mode for the CPCS has which of the following modes?

Ground
Taxi
Takeoff
Climb
Cruise
Descent
Ground
Abort

109

When the CPCS is in GROUND mode, what position is the outflow valve in?

Fully open

110

True or False: There is a pressurization ABORT mode in the event a return to field after takeoff is necessary.

True

111

What happens when the DUMP button is activated?

ECS packs and recirculation fans OFF
controls OFV to cabin climb at 2,000 fpm to 12,400 then natural leak down of pressure.

112

The outflow valve is manually modulated by _______.

Pilot input on the pressurization panel
Cabin ALT up or down

113

True or False: The Negative Pressure Relief Valve works with a static port in order for it to function properly.

False

114

True or False: Cruise altitude entered in the MCDU has no effect on CPC pressurization calculations.

False

115

What does AFCS stand for?

Automatic Flight Control System

116

AFCS includes which of the following components?

Flight Director (FD)
Autopilot (AP) with coupled Go-Around (GA)
Yaw Damper (YD)

117

What is the purpose of the AP/FD TCS button?

To momentarily override the auto pilot

118

The flight guidance panel provides which of the following?

Lateral guidance control
AFCS management control
Vertical guidance control

119

True or False: The Flight Guidance Panel has one independent channel.

False (A and B)

120

The lateral control area is used for which of the following?

NAV button
HDG button
HDG selector knob
Bank button
APP button

121

What is the purpose of the speed and mode control area?

FMS and manual switching of SPD modes
Pressing the speed knob changes readout IAS & Mach

122

How would you get approach annunciations to display on the FMA?

Press the APP button on lateral guidance panel

123

The flight directors are automatically displayed on the PFDs if which of the following occurs?

TO/GA Pressed
Manual selection of any vertical or lateral mode
Autopilot engagement
Windshear detection

124

True or False: When the autopilot is disengaged, pressing either FD button removes the Flight Director from both displays.

True

125

The aircraft is equipped with a _____ channel autopilot?

Single (Single autopilot with dual channels)

126

The autopilot has a servo for which of the following?

One for pitch
One for roll
one or two for rudder (options)
(Connected to flight deck controls)

127

True or False: Both pitch and roll have their own autopilot servo.

True

128

How is the AP engaged in flight?

Pressing the AP button on the guidance panel

129

True or False: Autopilot engagement is possible on the ground.

False

130

Pressing the AP/TRIM DISC once accomplishes what?

Disengages the autopilot

131

True or False: Pressing the AP/TRIM DISC a second time cancels the AUTOPILOT aural warning and cancels FMA “AP” annunciation.

True

132

The AP will disengage if which of the following occurs?

• AP button is pressed on the guidance panel;
• Either manual pitch trim switch is actuated;
• Either stick shaker is activated.
• Windshear escape guidance is activated.

133

What does pressing the BANK Button on the Guidance Panel accomplish?

Enables and disables bank angle limit of 17° used by the Heading Mode.

134

What does pressing the APP button on the Guidance Panel accomplish?

Arms approach modes based on NAV source
Provides approach status unnunciation at the top of the FMA

135

What does Flight Path Angle (FPA) accomplish?

Selects and deselects FPA mode
Manually select desired flight path angles

136

True or False: Autothrottle can be engaged in flight at any time and under any circumstance.

False

137

When can the autothrottle be engaged in flight?

• No AT active failures.
• AT button pressed on the guidance panel.
• Airplane at or above 400 feet AGL.

138

When can the autothrottle be engaged on the ground?

• No AT active failures.
• AT button pressed on the guidance panel.
• Both thrust levers above 50° TLA.

139

True or False: If performing a holding pattern at the FAF, the VGP mode should be armed only after exiting the hold; otherwise, the mode may intercept the final approach descent path during the hold.

True

140

True or False: If the glide path is below the current aircraft altitude and the APP button is pressed, the VGP mode will not engage and will require a manual descent to intercept the final approach path.

False

141

True or False: The transition to VFLCH from VPATH automatically occurs if the landing gear/flap speed is exceeded by more than 10 kts.

True

142

The normal method of disengaging the autopilot is _______.

Pressing the AP/TRIM DISC once accomplishes what?

143

The yaw damper is automatically engaged _______.

After power up of either hydraulic system 1 or 3

144

The color _______ indicates an FMS-commanded engaged mode in the FMA.

Magenta

145

The color _______ indicates a non-FMS-commanded engaged mode on the FMA.

Green

146

In the takeoff and go-around modes, pitch is limited to a minimum of _______ degrees and a maximum of _______ degrees.

8 / 18

147

The requirements to engage APPR 1 are _______.

• RA/BARO selector set to BARO.
• NAV frequency set to the correct LOC frequency in the MCDU.
• V/L or preview selected.

148

True or False: Normal disengagement of the autothrottle is accomplished by pressing either the A/T DISC button on the thrust levers or by pressing the AT button on the Guidance Panel.

True

149

The autothrottle disengages when the difference in the TLA is greater than _______ degrees.

8 degrees

150

The autothrottle disengages when the difference in the TLA is greater than _______ degrees.

8 degrees

151

How many VHF communication radios is the aircraft equipped with?

3

152

True or False: The VHF communication radios cannot be operated simultaneously.

False

153

True or False: VHF communication radios 2 and 3 are exclusively used for voice communication and VHF1 is normally dedicated to ACARS.

False

154

To select a frequency using the CCD, what action should be taken?

Select backup tuning page using ccd and display unit

155

True or False: The BACKUP RADIO page appears automatically on MCDU 2 for some failure conditions.

True

156

How many identical Audio Control Panels are there in the flightdeck?

3

157

There are three options for transmitting on the communication device. Which of the following is not one of those options?

Glareshield PTT
PA PTT
Hand MIC PTT

158

True or False: Only the Captain’s and First Officer’s seats have a microphone built in to the oxygen mask.

False

159

True or False: Along with an audible chime in the cabin, there is also a visual indication when the pilots call the flight attendants (either normal or emergency call).

True

160

What does ACARS stand for?

Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System

161

If an incoming ACARS message (MSG) appears, a notification will be displayed on the _______.

Amber PFD "MSG"
MCDU scratchpad

162

How many minutes after aircraft power-down does the DVDR system record?

10

163

The BKUP RADIO page can be accessed from which MCDU?

2

164

True or False: The oxygen mask microphone and flightdeck speakers are automatically activated as soon as the oxygen mask stowage box doors are opened.

True

165

Which radio is dedicated to ACARS data?

VHF 3

166

The interphone systems _______.

Provides communications between flightcrew, flight attendants, and ramp personnel

167

True or False: Announcements from the cabin take priority and override all other announcements.

False

168

The DVDR records the last _______ minutes of audio information.

120 min

169

The DVDR records the last _______ hours of flight data.

25 hours

170

The electrical system on this aircraft consists of a _____ V AC system and a _____ V DC system.

115 / 28

171

True or False: Four (4) Integrated Control Centers and two (2) Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies provide control and power distribution of electrical power.

True

172

True or False: The output of the APU-driven generator is more power than output by the IDGs.

False (40 KVA)

173

True or False: The APU-driven generator can be used on the ground and in flight.

True

174

True or False: Once the APU is started and the generator comes on line, external power must be manually deselected before the APU generator can power all AC buses.

False

175

True or False: When the APU generator and AC external power is available, both will supply power to the aircraft at the same time.

False (APU over GPU)

176

True or False: When the aircraft is parked, AC external power can supply power to the entire electrical system.

True

177

After AC power has been restored following a total AC power loss, when will the RAT retract?

Manually on the ground (maintenance)

178

How long does the RAT take to provide power to the AC and DC ESS BUSES after it has been deployed?

8 Seconds

179

True or False: In the event of a total loss of AC power, the Ram Air Turbine must be manually deployed.

False

180

If the aircraft slows to a speed below _______ kts., the RAT may only supply power to the AC ESS BUS and the batteries power the DC ESS BUSES and STANDBY AC BUS.

130 kts

181

Inflight, what is the altitude restriction for RAT deployment?

None

182

The static inverter converts _______ V DC power from the batteries to _______ V AC power.

28 / 115

183

TRU 1 normally provides DC power to which of the following buses?

DC BUS 1, DC ESS BUS 1, DC GND SVC BUS, HOT BATT BUS 1 and battery #1 charging.

184

What does TRU ESS provide power to?

DC ESS BUS 3

185

Which of the following is displayed on the Electrical synoptic when a TRU has failed?

TRU 1 (2) (ESS) FAIL

186

During an electrical emergency, when the RAT is not fully deployed or the stall speed is reached, the batteries are capable of supplying essential electrical loads for _______ minutes.

10 minutes

187

The aircraft is equipped with two SPDAs, located in the _______.

FWD electronics bay / Center electronics bay respectively

188

True or False: Failure of an SPDA would be indicated via an EICAS message.

True SPDA FAIL Advisory

189

Sources of AC power include _______.

IDG (40 KVA), APU Gen (40 KVA), GPU, RAT (15 KVA), Static Inverter

190

True or False: Once disconnected, whether manually or automatically, an IDG cannot be reconnected in flight.

True

191

The APU generator can perform which of the following?

Can supply power to all AC buses.

192

Under normal operating conditions, DC power is provided by _______ Transformer Rectifier Units and _______ batteries.

3 / 2

193

True or False: TRU ESS provides AC power to DC ESS BUS 3.

True

194

True or False: BATT 2 will also power the APU START BUS if needed.

True

195

System logic provides electrical power for the aircraft according to which of the following source priorities?

Onside IDG, APU Gen, GPU, Opposite IDG

196

Which of the following is NOT on the AC Essential Bus?

DC BUS 1 or 2, DC ESS Bus 1 or 2, Hot BATT buss 1 or 2, BATT 1 or 2.

197

To open the window in the flight deck in an emergency, you must _______.

Press lock button, pull handle in and backwards

198

True or False: Operation of the cabin doors and the service doors is identical.

True

199

What is a PBE

Protective Breathing Equipment

200

When donned properly, a PBE should provide oxygen for approximately how many minutes?

15 Min up to 40,000 ft

201

When donned properly, a PBE should provide oxygen for approximately how many minutes?

15 Min up to 40,000 ft

202

True or False: For Flight Attendant mobility when a pressurization problem occurs, there are portable oxygen bottles in the cabin.

True

203

True or False: When the ELT has been activated, the ELT alert light flashes to alert the flight crew.

True

204

How many smoke detectors are located in the forward cargo compartment?

3

205

How many smoke detectors are located in the aft cargo compartment?

2

206

Where is the lavatory fire extinguisher bottle located?

Near the trash recepticle

207

The Master WARN and Master CAUT switchlights are located on the _______.

Glareshield panel

208

True or False: The lavatory smoke detectors are tested by pressing the switch located in the forward galley.

True (press for 9 seconds)

209

The Engine fire protection system provides _______.

• Engine fire detection;
• Engine fire extinguishing and;
• Continuous Built-In Tests to detect internal faults.

210

The Engine fire protection system provides _______.

• Engine fire detection;
• Engine fire extinguishing and;
• Continuous Built-In Tests to detect internal faults.

211

If an engine fire is detected, which of the following will occur?

AURAL
• Aural Warning (fire bell)
LIGHTS
• The applicable fire extinguisher handle illuminates
• The master WARNING lights illuminate EICAS MESSAGES
• The FIRE warning icon on the respective ITT indicator illuminates
• The EICAS WARNING message ENG 1 (2) FIRE is displayed

212

How could the aural warning be silenced in the event of an engine fire?

Fire condition no longer present

213

By pulling the Fire Handle, which of the following will occur?

• The engine fuel shutoff valve
• The engine hydraulic shutoff valve
• The engine bleed air shutoff valve

214

The APU fire protection system provides which of the following?

• APU fire detection
• APU fire extinguishing
• Continuous Built-In Test to detect internal faults

215

True or False: In the event of an APU fire, pressing either master WARN switchlight silences the master WARN aural alert.

False (Fire condition no longer present)

216

If an APU fire is detected, which of the following will occur?

AURAL
• Aural warning (fire bell)
LIGHTS
• The red striped bar of the APU emergency stop button illuminates
• The master WARNING lights illuminate
EICAS MESSAGES
• The EICAS WARNING message APU FIRE is displayed

217

True or False: The cargo compartments are constantly being monitored for smoke.

True

218

There are a total of _______ bottles available to extinguish an engine fire and _______ bottles available to extinguish an APU fire.

2 / 1

219

If a smoke condition is sensed in either cargo compartment, which of the following will occur?

Forward
• Air circulation fan is turned off
• The high-rate fire extinguishing bottle is armed and
• The forward cargo compartment ventilation outflow valve is commanded closed

Aft
• The high-rate fire extinguishing bottle is armed.

220

To extinguish a fire in the forward cargo compartment, pilots must _______.

pressing the associated cargo compartment button

221

In flight, the low rate bottle will discharge automatically after one minute, providing protection from re-ignition for _______ minutes.

75 Min

222

True or False: On the ground, the low-rate bottle will automatically discharge.

False

223

True or False: The cargo fire extinguishing system CANNOT be used in the absence of an alarm condition.

False

224

In the event that there is an absence of a fire alarm condition, which of the following is true about the forward and aft cargo compartments?

The system can be used even without a cargo smoke warning. In this case, the high-rate bottle is armed by
pushing the respective cargo fire extinguisher button. Arming is indicated by the red button light and the
associated EICAS message. If the button is pushed again within the next two minutes, the high-rate bottle is
discharged. At this time the low-rate bottle is armed. If the flight crew does not push the button within the first
two minutes, the system is reset and the high-rate bottle will not discharge.

225

True or False: The forward and aft lavatories do not have any fire protection installed.

False

226

True or False: The fire extinguishers that are installed in each lavatory will only extinguish a fire located in the lavatory waste bin.

True

227

True or False: The lavatory fire extinguishing system has flight deck controls.

False

228

True or False: Both Hydraulic System #1 and #2 main pumps are driven by their respective engine’s accessory gear box.

True

229

Lavatory fire extinguishing is accomplished how?

The Fire Extinguishing System consists of one fire-extinguisher bottle installed on each lavatory waste
container. When the temperature inside the waste container exceeds a certain limit, the system automatically discharges the extinguishing agent.

230

The fire detection system TEST button is used to test all the following systems EXCEPT _______.

These are tested systems
• Engine fire detection
• APU fire detection
• Cargo smoke detection

231

Which hydraulic ACMP pump can be powered by the RAT in the event of an AC power failure?

ACMP 3A

232

True or False: Engine #1 and #2 hydraulic shutoff valves can be closed by pulling the respective engine’s fire handle.

True

233

Which of the following statements best describes the operation of the cargo fire extinguisher system?

After the annunciation of smoke detection in the cargo compartment pressing the associated cargo
compartment button causes:
• The high-rate fire-extinguishing bottle to discharge immediately into the selected cargo compartment
• The EICAS ADVISORY message CRG FIREX HI DISCH to display
One minute later, the low-rate fire-extinguishing bottle discharges automatically at a reduced flow rate and
the agent remains in the selected cargo compartment for 75 minutes for airplanes with 60-minute diversion
time allowed.

234

The ACMPs for Hydraulic System #1 and Hydraulic System #2 are normally left in the _______ position.

Auto

235

What are the indications that the lavatory waste bin extinguisher has discharged?

Visual

236

Fly-By-Wire technology electronically controls which of the following?

Elevators, rudder, roll spoilers as well as all secondary flight control systems, including the horizontal stabilizer, flaps and slats, ground spoilers and speed brakes, are controlled electronically using Fly-by-Wire (FBW) technology.

237

Secondary flight controls, elevators, rudder, and multi-function spoilers are controlled by _______, replacing the control cables of conventional aircraft.

Fly-by-Wire (FBW)

238

The Fly-By-Wire electronic control system operates the flight controls, replacing the control cables of a conventional aircraft. This FBW control system consists of _______.

The Embraer FBW system is composed of a set of nine Actuator Control Electronics (ACEs) and four Flight Control Modules (FCMs):
• Three Primary-ACEs (P-ACE).
• Two Slat/Flap ACEs (SF-ACE).
• One Horizontal Stabilizer ACE (HS-ACE).
• Three Spoiler ACEs (S-ACE).
• Four Flight Control Modules (FCM).

239

True or False: The Ailerons are fly-by-wire.

False

240

True or False: Wheel speed signals are provided to the spoiler ACE for ground spoiler deployment.

True

241

The Captain and First Officer can manually select the desired display on the ______ with the DISPLAYS selector knob on the REVERSIONARY PANEL.

MFD

242

The color of the selected airspeed when set by the FMS on the PFD is _______.

Magenta

243

True or False: When the takeoff mode is active, the flight director is displayed.

True

244

The next waypoint on the MFD is indicated by which of the following colors?

Magenta

245

True or False: The IESS is powered as soon as battery 1 is selected to ON and battery 2 is selected to AUTO.

True

246

The radar altimeter maximum operating height is _______.

2,500'

247

Hydraulic pressure for the landing gear system is delivered by Hydraulic System #_______.

2

248

True or False: The brake system automatically applies the brakes upon gear retraction to stop the wheels from spinning as they retract.

True

249

_______ is the selected autobrake mode for takeoff, providing maximum deceleration rate.

RTO

250

The aircraft has _______ landing lights.

3

251

The aircraft is equipped with _______ landing lights and _______ taxi lights.

3 / 3

252

True or False: Because there are LED navigation lights installed, there is NO backup bulb installed.

False

253

A flashing _______ light illuminates when the flight crew makes an emergency call to the flight attendant from the flight deck.

Red

254

The position lights display red on the _______ wing and green on the _______ wing.

Left / Right

255

True or False: The scratchpad consists of the top line on the display screen.

False

256

True or False: The FMS can be set to auto-tune VHF/NAV frequencies.

True

257

In order to have RAIM, The GPS must have a minimum of _______ satellite signals.

5

258

True or False: It is not possible to tune the NAV radios using the identifier.

False

259

True or False: The Forward Looking Terrain Awareness function looks ahead of the aircraft to detect terrain or obstacle conflicts with greater alerting time.

True

260

traffic that is shown on the TCAS with “-26” associated with it means _______.

2,600' lower than my altitude

261

A traffic that is shown on the TCAS with “+19” associated with it means _______.

1,900 above my altitude

262

True or False: The passenger oxygen masks will only deploy if manually commanded.

False

263

True or False: There is no way to determine crew oxygen pressure from the flight deck. It can only be done at the bottle.

False

264

True or False: Each passenger overhead oxygen compartment is equipped with a storage door that is normally held closed by an electrical latching mechanism. This automatically releases when the cabin altitude reaches approximately 10,000 ft.

False

265

True or False: The PBE does not protect against smoke.

False

266

True or False: If the passenger overhead oxygen compartment doors did not open automatically during a pressurization failure, there is no way for the pilots to
manually deploy the masks.

False

267

When the crew fixed oxygen system is charged enough for three crewmembers, the oxygen pressure is displayed with which color?

Green

268

Which color is the oxygen pressure displayed in when there is only sufficient supply for two crew members?

Cyan

269

True or False: During normal operations, the left engine would supply bleed air Pack 1 while the right engine would supply bleed air to Pack 2.

True

270

True or False: During high power settings, bleed air is usually supplied by the low stage port.

True

271

Engine bleed air is provided by _______ compressor ports.

2

272

True or False: Engine fan air can be used on the ground to cool the hot bleed air when sufficient RAM air is not available.

False

273

Bleed air temperature is cooled by _______.

Pack 1 or 2

274

True or False: The APU can only be used for bleed air while on the ground.

False

275

True or False: The XBLEED open/close auto-logic is handled by the AMS controller as long as the XBLEED switch on the overhead panel is selected out (black and white striped advisory light in the switch is illuminated).

False

276

True or False: With both loops operational, both loops must detect a bleed air leak before an EICAS message is displayed.

True

277

True or False: A dedicated FADEC controls the APU.

True

278

The APU can provide AC electrical power up to __________ ft.

33,000 ft

279

The APU cannot be started above _______ ft.

30,000 ft

280

APU bleed air can be used to start an engine up to _______ ft.

21,000 ft

281

Bleed air from the APU is only available up to _______ ft. for air conditioning and pressurization.

15,000 ft

282

True or False: Selecting the APU control knob to OFF shuts down the APU.

True

283

True or False: The APU is controlled by the left engine’s FADEC.

False

284

If OFF is selected while the APU is running, the shutdown sequence _______.

Begins

285

True or False: The APU must be shut down before every takeoff.

False

286

True or False: During the normal shutdown sequence, APU bleed air is immediately stopped and electrical power is removed after a 1-minute cooldown period, followed by a spool-down period.

True

287

True or False: The flightdeck door is equipped with a ballistic-resistant peephole.

True

288

In regard to the flight deck door, the INHIB button will keep the door locked for _______ seconds when pressed.

500 seconds

289

True or False: The four cabin doors and the two cargo doors are the only access doors that have indications on the doors status page on the MFD.

False

290

The aircraft is equipped with _______ passenger and _______ service plug-type doors that operate in an identical manner.

1 / 3

291

True or False: The forward passenger door is the main boarding door, while the aft passenger door can be used as an emergency exit and for galley servicing.

True

292

True or False: The main cabin door is the only door with an evacuation slide.

False

293

True or False: The two service doors operate differently than the two passenger doors.

False

294

True or False: The rear fuselage door cannot be monitored on the Status synoptic page.

False

295

The Captain’s and First Officer’s side windows can be opened _______.

up to 160 KIAS

296

Placing the thrust levers in _______ selects takeoff, maximum continuous, or goaround mode settings.

TO/GA

297

True or False: If two consecutive overspeed detection events occur within 30 seconds of each other, the FADEC will not relight the engine.

False (3)

298

Engine oil is cooled by _______ before it flows to various components of the engine.

Fuel

299

Thrust reverser 1 is powered by Hydraulic System #_______ and thrust reverser 2 is powered by Hydraulic System #_______.

1 / 2

300

This aircraft is equipped with General Electric’s _______ engines.

High bypass turbofan

301

When is a takeoff alternate required?

When departure weather is below landing weather at departure airport

302

True or False: First Officers with fewer than 100 hours in type in Company aircraft are prohibited from making takeoffs and landings at special airports when not flying
with a Check Airman.

True

303

What condition would restrict a First Officer with fewer than 100 hours in type in Company aircraft from making the takeoff or landing?

Contaminated runway
Braking action less than good
Crosswind component >15 kts
Windshear reported in the vicinity of airport
Visibility is <4,000 or 3/4 SM
Any other condition deemed prudent by PIC

304

In Class D airspace, the pilot shall fly a pattern altitude at least _____ above the airport elevation unless otherwise required?

1,500 ft

305

What is the Horizon Air use of alcohol policy?

No same day drinking before flight
10 hours .02 BAC
No drinking following an incident for 8 hours

306

What is our policy regarding scuba diving before trip?

24 hours before flight restricted

307

What is our policy regarding blood donation?

72 hours before flight restricted

308

True or False: It is OK to read publications not related to the proper conduct of the flight on the flightdeck.

False

309

Who is the PM on the ground?

FO

310

With regard to enroute performance calculations, “Mountain Driftdown” provides how much clearance from terrain?

2,000 ft

311

When is a takeoff alternate required?

When departure airport weather is below landing minimums

312

Does the Captain need to talk with maintenance before entering a discrepancy in the logbook?

No

313

What does the following PA statement signal to the FAs? “Ladies and Gentlemen, this is the Captain speaking, may I have your attention?”

An emergency condition

314

What does NTSB-Report mean relative to the Emergency Briefing?

N ature of emergency
T ype of cabin prep and time
S pecial instructions
B racing and signal
Report when cabin is prepped

315

What is the Hijacking transponder code?

7500

316

True or False: Pilots may taxi across illuminated stop bars if they have a clearance.

False

317

True or False: For all operations, either the Captain or the First Officer shall have a minimum 75 hours line operating flight time as either PIC or SIC, including OE, in type.

True