Technical Rescue SOGs(Paragraphs 4000-5400) Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Technical Rescue SOGs(Paragraphs 4000-5400) Deck (176):
1

Chapter 5 Article 10 refers to _____.

Helicopter SOGs for Air Group guidelines

2

All safety checks are done on all _____,
_____, and your ____.

rope system components
yourself
team members

3

The remaining team member on the helo
is the _____. He is seated on the _____ of
the helicopter. He has the power _____ if
necessary.

safety officer
right side rear
to stop all operations

4

The _____ determines who is in the flight
crew including rescue personnel.

PIC-pilot in charge

5

Search area is determined by these 3 people

PIC
IC
Rescue Captain

6

Every member on board the helicopter will
act as _____.

rescue observers

7

Wearing seatbelts is mandatory except
when _____.

it hinders the insertion/extraction of personnel or patients

8

Do not put anything above the height of ____.

the helicopter door

9

the helicopter microphone should be
adjusted so that it ____.

barely touches your lips

10

A rescue observer moving from the front
seat to the back must be _____.

secured to a designated anchor point

11

no _____ in flight unless approved by the pilot

dynamic weight shifts

12

yaw:

to turn from side to side

13

no _____ inside the helicopter

loose equipment

14

if an emergency in flight, team members
shall _____ and follow the _____.

remain seated
pilot's instructions

15

team members shall ____ from the pilot's
controls at _____.

stay clear
all times

16

According to the SOGs, all insertions
shall include ____ team members

2 or more

17

6 things required for ocean insertions

radio
fins
mask
knife
floatation vest
strobe is required at night only

18

hover boarding is for _____ only

extraction

19

hover boarding is at a height that ____

enables the rescue personnel to grasp the
skid and climb aboad

20

when entering the helicopter, do so as
_____ as possible.

smoothly

21

All personnel must be _____ to the pilot
during extraction.

visible

22

All rigging for helo ops will use both
the _____ . In addition, if lowering, the
_____ will be secured to the _____.

primary and secondary anchors
tail end of the rope
secondary anchor

23

Any safety officer/rappel master will be
_____ to the helicopter.

secured/tied off

24

Fixed line flyaway is a specific type of
_____ that refers to when a ____ and a
_____ are transported together to safety
on a _____ and _____ line beneath the helo.

sling loading
rescuer
patient
fixed
suspended

25

Before giving a rescuer a line for a fixed
line flyaway or slingload for extraction, the
line must be ____.

locked off

26

When preparing for a diaper pick-off from
the helicopter, the diaper should be rigged
with _____ attached to the _____.

separate carabiner
figure 8 on a bight

27

If preparing to be lowered to a patient
from the helicopter and you will be getting
off the line, rig the ____ to the _____ with a
separate ____.

buoy
figure 8 on a bight
carabiner

28

Stepping off is when the helicopter must _____ at a _____. It is for _____ only. It is
primarily done in the _____.

hover
safe height
insertion
ocean

29

1-skid hovers are for both _____.

insertion and extraction

30

After exiting the helicopter, all rescue
personnel should ____ .

remain in plain view of the pilot

31

Sling loading:

people or equipment are transported from
one area to another via a fixed line
attached to and suspended beneath the
helicopter.

32

sling loading can be used for both ____.

insertion and extraction

33

stokes and skeds litters can be _____ by
the helicopter

sling loaded

34

if a patient needs to be tended to during
sling loading, the rescuer can use a ____
and ____ to _____ to the ____.

pick-off strap
2 carabiners
hook-up
fixed line

35

Rappeller should be _____ prior to take-off.

hooked up and ready to rappel

36

The safety officer conducts a _____ prior to
the rappeller taking his position on the skid.

safety touch check

37

Before placing a rope bag, beginning a
rappel or a belay; you must obtain _____.

pilot approval

38

If the pilot is unable to communicate with
the rappeller, the _____ shall _____ to start
the rappel.

safety officer
make the command

39

The safety officer is responsible for telling
the pilot when the rappeller is _____ and
_____.

on the ground
clear of the line

40

The rappeller signals to the pilot that he is
on the ground and clear of the line by ____.

extending his arm outward, palm down and
bringing his hand towards his chest
bending from the elbow.

41

After a rappel and once the line is clear, the safety officer can _____ or _____.

retrieve the line
drop the end of the rope

42

Sometimes it is necessary for the rope
to be retrieved by the safety officer after
a rappel. If so the rappeller must ____.

tie off the rope while securing the rope bag.

43

If a second rappel is planned, the rappel
line is _____. The _____ gets in position to
rappel, and the ____ moves to the rear of
the helo and becomes the new safety
officer.

left in place
safety officer
rescue observer

44

Public must be kept at least ____ away
from the helicopter. HFD personnel must
be at least ____ away unless specific duties
require otherwise.

100'
50'

45

all helicopter ground safety rules from LZ
to approaching and exiting aircraft

keep clear of rotor
keep head/equipment below top of door
do not go aft of door
approach/depart from front left quadrant unless it is upslope.
all tools should be kept below waist level.
never let patients exit by themselves.
all equipment brought on board must be
approved by the pilot.
do not step inside the skids.
do not position yourself underneath helo.
ensure LZ is free of loose materials, obstructions, and people
place back to the wind with arms
extended, palms down
ensure lighting doesn't hinder pilot's vision
if small LZ, kneel next to helo in plain view for insertion/extraction.

46

Acceptable Entry Conditions:

conditions within a confined space that
must exist to ensure that members can
safely enter and work in the space.

47

Who develops and publishes
recommended occupational exposure
limits called TLVs for hundreds of
chemicals, physical agents, and
biological indices?

ACGIH

48

ACGIH

american conference of governmental
industrial hygienists

49

TLVs

threshold limit values

50

atmospheric hazards include 5 things

toxins
flammable substances
O2 deficiency
O2 enrichment
particles of combustion

51

Confined Space Attendant is assigned to
_____ of the confined space. He _____
inside and outside of the space. He _____
with the _____.

remain just outside
monitors conditions
communicates
authorized entrant

52

The attendant is not allowed to ____ the
space and must call ____ to rescue entrants.

enter
for help

53

the attendant can help perform _____
rescues.

non-entry

54

CSRE

confined space rescue entrant

55

7 things CSREs must be able to do

use proper PPEs for confined space
work in the confined space
ID hazards in the confined space
provide status updates
monitor for evacuation alert
attach victim to safety line
perform self-rescue

56

CO is a ______ and is known as _____. It is
_____, _____ and has a vapor density of
_____. It acts as an _____ due to it's
propensity to bind with hemoglobin.

by-product of incomplete combustion
carbon monoxide
colorless
odorless
less than 1
asphyxiant

57

_____ harnesses are used for _____. They
are designed to support up to _____ and
protect against _____ with _____ front and
back _____.

class III
confined space rescue
2-person loads
inversion
multiple
connection points

58

communication can be done by 4 methods

voice
radio
rope signals
hand signals

59

helicopter comms include 4 things

radio
icom
cellphone
hand signals

60

29 CFR 1910.146

Chapter 29 of OSHAs Code of Federal
Regulations. 1910.146 refers to
Permit-Required Confined Spaces

61

In CS rescue, communications must be
established _____.

prior to entry

62

CS-Competent Person is capable of _____
in a CS working area or surrounding area
that is _____ or _____ to members. He has
the authority to take _____ to eliminate
such conditions.

identifying or predicting conditions
unsanitary or unsafe
prompt, corrective action

63

The goal of the CSRE

rescue

64

All CSREs shall be certified as a CSRE
through _____ CS Rescue program and
attend _____.

HFD's
annual refresher courses

65

Confined Space is defined as a space
that meets these 3 conditions

it is large enough to allow entry and
perform work.
it has limited/restricted means of
access/egress.
it is not designed for continuous human
occupancy.

66

CSRT

confined space rescue team

67

CSRTs must have at least _____ members.

6

68

CSRTs consist of a _____

CSRTL-leader
CSRE
Attendant
Rapid Intervention Team

69

The person assigned the responsibility to
ensure that the requirements of the CS
procedures are met at all times is the _____.

Confined Space Rescue Group Supervisor

70

enclosed places do not meet _____ of a
_____ but may require precautionary
measures upon entering.

the requirements
confined space

71

engulfment:

the surrounding and envelopment of a
person by a liquid or finely divided solid
substance that can be aspirated.

72

engulfment can cause death by _____,
_____, or by ______, _____, or _____.

filling the respiratory system
plugging the resp. system
strangulation
constriction
crushing

73

diagonal entry is at an ____ between
_____ and _____ to the ground.

angle
perpendicular
parallel

74

elevated portals have an opening in which
the _____ is _____ or higher from the ground.

bottom
4'

75

rectangular/square portals have _____ at
_____. The _____ is determined by the ___
side.

4 sides
right angles
opening size
smallest

76

rounded/oval portals are _____, ______, or
have more than _____ and the opening
is determined by measuring the _____.

elliptical
circular
4 sides
smallest inside diameter

77

What must be completed prior to entry
into a confined space?

entry permit

78

Entry permits lists at least 5 things

hazards of the space
precautions needed to be taken
type of work that will be performed
personnel roles
other specific details

79

the _____ is responsible for determining
if _____. He also _____, ______, and _____.

entry supervisor
acceptable entry conditions exist
authorizes entry
oversees entry ops
terminates entry ops

80

flash point is the _____.

minimum temp. at which a substance will
produce enough vapor in the air to form
an ignitable mixture

81

if something is flammable, it is _____ and
_____.

easily ignitable
rapidly consumed by fire

82

risk assessment includes _____ (acronym)

IADIE

83

IADIE

id
analyze
decide
implement
evaluate

84

8 hazardous atmospheres for CS

1) substance in excess of 10% of it's LEL
2) airborne combustible dust exceeding it's LEL.
3) O2 concentration below 19.5%
4) O2 concentration above 23.5%
5) concentration of substance that exposes
personnel to doses in excess of PELs
(permissible exposure limits)
6)flammable vapors
7)toxic vapors
8)particles of combustion

85

PEL

permissible exposure limit

86

when airborne combustible dust is dense
enough to obscures vision to _____ than
that is a good indicator of a _____ because
it is probably exceeding it's _____.

5' or less
hazardous atmosphere
LEL

87

hazardous atmospheres can do 5 things

incapacitate
injure
cause acute illness
impair your ability (to self-rescue, etc)
kill

88

hydrogen sulfide is created by the _____ of
_____. It has a vapor density _____.

decomposition
organic material
> 1

89

IDLHs show the _____ which one could be
exposed without experiencing effects
that may cause _____ health effects.

maximum level
irreversible

90

Inerting:

introducing an inert gas (doesn't support
combustion) into a container so as to
exclude oxygen

91

lockout

used to keep equipment from being turned
on, opened, or unlocked and potentially
endangering personnel

92

LEL

lower explosive limit

93

The LEL is the _____ of a substance in the
air that will _____ when an ______ such as
heat, arc, or flame are present

lowest amount of concentration
produce a flash/self-propagating flame
ignition source

94

CH4

methane

95

methane is _____, ______ and is aka _____.

colorless
odorless
natural gas

96

methane has a vapor density _____ 1.
therefore it _____.

less than
rises

97

NFPA

National Fire Protection Agency

98

NFPA is an _____ advocating _____ .

international non-profit organization
scientifically-based consensus codes and
standards, research, and education for
fire and life safety related issues.

99

NPV

negative pressure ventilation

100

NPV uses fans to ______ air from a
structure by creating ______ pressure
within ______.

draw out
negative
the space

101

NIOSH

national institute of safety and health

102

NIOSH is the federal agency responsible
for _____

conducting research and making
recommendations for the prevention
of work-related injury and illness.

103

Non-entry retrieval

the retrieval of a patient from within a
confined space from outside of the space
using equipment already in place.

104

Non-Permit Confined Space is a confined
space that _____, or does not have the
potential to contain ______.

does not have a recognized acute hazard
any hazard capable of causing death or
serious harm.

105

OSHA

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

106

OSHA is with the Dept. of _____.

labor

107

OSHA is responsible for _____.

creating and enfo rcing workplace safety
and health regulations.

108

29 CFR 1910.146
It regulates _____ for confined spaces and
_____ in which _____ can occur within.

OSHA's Code of Federal Regulations for
Permit-Required Confined Spaces
permit requirements
the manner
activities

109

Oxygen deficient atmosphere is when ____.

O2 is < 19.5%

110

Oxygen enriched atmosphere is when ____.

O2 is > 23.5%

111

PPM

parts per million

112

patient packaging is the process of _____
the _____ and ______ needs of the patient.
It includes the process of ______ and is
to _____.

stabilizing
medical
traumatic
securing the patient to an extrication
device.
minimize further harm to the patient

113

The PEL is the _____.

the amount of exposure to a toxic
substance that a member is allowed to
receive over a given time period.

114

PEL can be measured using a _____ or
a _____.

TWA-time weighted average
TLV-threshold limit value

115

Permit-Required Confined Spaces have
____ of the following 5 characteristics.

1 or more
has or potentially has a hazardous
atmosphere.
has material that can potentially engulf
someone.
has an internal configuration such that a
person could be trapped or asphyxiated
(inward converging walls,
downward sloping floors that tapers to a
smaller cross section)
ready removal of someone is difficult due
to location and/or size of access.
has any other recognized safety or health
hazard.

116

If an employer can prove that they have
_____ that is _____ to _____ than they do
not need a ____.

existing ventilation
sufficient
remove potentially dangerous air
contaminants
permit or permit procedures

117

PASS

personal alert safety system

118

PASS devices _____ when the wearer
_____. It can be also be activated ______.
PASS devices meet NFPA _____ and _____
standards.

activate an alarm
remains motionless for more than 20-30s
manually
1500
1982 Std on PASS

119

SAR

supplied air respirator

120

SAR is a ____ that uses _____ and is
supplied by a _____.

positive pressure form of resp. protection
an air hose connected to the wearer
remote self-contained air supply

121

PPV is the _____ by using a ____ to _____.

systematic removal of gases/contaminants
fan
push all gases/contaminants out of a space

122

recovery mode

level of operational urgency where there
is no chance of rescuing a victim alive.

123

recovery mode has _____ than rescue mode.

lower acceptable risk

124

rescue mode

level of operational urgency when there is
a chance the patient will be rescued alive.

125

retrieval equipment

combination of equipment used for
non-entry rescue of people from CSs

126

risk benefit analysis

decision made that is based on a risk
assessment that weighs the risks likely
to be taken against the benefits to be
gained when taking those risks.

127

the safety officer is responsible for _____
all incident _____ and enforces _____. he
has the power to _____.

addressing
safety issues
all safety procedures and practices
stop all operations if he deems something
unsafe.

128

a CS scene is any area within ____ of the incident.

300'

129

SCBAs are _____ to the wearer. they use
_____ so that pressure in the ______ is >
than the surrounding air.

attached
PP
facepiece

130

10 things for CS size up should include the following

1)scope, magnitude, and nature of incident
2)location and # of patients
3)ID hazards
4)risk assessment/risk-benefit analysis
5)ID access/egress points and point of
entry
6)ID internal configuration
7)evaluate environmental conditions
8)determine when patient contact can be
made without endangering personnel.
9)determine need for additional resources
10)continuous monitoring and evaluation

131

tagout

method of labeling/marking an
isolation/shutoff device during incident
mitigation ops to prevent any operation
of the device.

132

TWA is measure of a person's ______ to
a contaminant over a given _____. Sampling
is done _____ the time period.

continual exposure
period of time
throughout

133

TLVs are _____ not _____.

advisory guidelines
legal standards

134

TLVs are the _____that personnel may be exposed to _____ without _____.

substance concentration values
day after day
any adverse effects

135

TLVs are determined by the _____

ACGIH

136

3 different types of TLVs

TLV-TWA
TLV-STEL
TLV-C

137

TLV-C

ceiling

138

TLV-STEL

short term exposure limit

139

UEL

upper explosive limit

140

the UEL is the _____ of a substance in air
that will produce a _____ when an _____
such as an_____ is present.

highest concentration
flash or self-propagating flame
ignition source
arc, flame, or heat

141

"rich"

concentration of substance too high to burn

142

"lean"

concentration of substance too low to burn

143

vapor density

measure of a gases' vapor weight in
relationship to normal air. if >1 sinks
and if <1 rises.

144

wristlets are designed to allow a person
to be _____ or _____ through a ______.

raised
lowered
vertical opening

145

17 CS Pre-Entry Procedures

1)perform scene size up
2)designate a safety officer
3)establish barriers up to 300'
4)ID hazards
5)risk assess./risk-benefit analysis
6)ID entry point/PLS/other access/egress
points
7)ID internal configuration
8)disconnect/close/block/shutoff all
possible conveyances of hazmat to CS
using lockout/tagout procedures.
9)empty/purge CS of hazmat
10)perform air testing,
if air contam. ventilate for at least 15min
11)CSREs w/PPEs, ClassIII harnesses
12)use SAR or SCBA
13)establish/maintain comms between
CSRE/Attendant
14)attach retrieval line to CSRE
15)provide adequate ventilation
16)use tripod/high anchor point if
vert. entry
17)document all pertinent info.

146

SAR is used if estimated work time in
a CS is_____. It is also used if _____ and
must be supplied with _____.

> 15 minutes
the CSRE has to remove an SCBA on entry
a hip egress bottle

147

if sufficient natural ventilation exists to
ensure the removal of atmospheric hazards
as id'd through air monitoring then the
CS may be treated as an _____.

enclosed space

148

CS Pre-Entry Testing is done with _____ to
determine whether dangerous _____ or
_____ exists. It must be done without
_____. _____ must be kept at the _____ and kept for _____.

a direct reading instrument
air contamination
O2 deficiency
disturbing the space
written records
entry site
duration of the incident

149

CS air testing should be at 5 locations

4' from entry
at entry
1/4 of distance into CS
1/2 of distance into CS
3/4 of distance into CS

150

CS air testing order
1st =
2nd =
3rd =

O2 saturation
flammability
toxicity

151

If any flammable or combustible gases
are within _____ of their _____ than _____
shall be made into the CS.

10%
LEL
no entry

152

do not work in a CS using a _____ unless
it can be shown by ______ and _____ that
the work can be done safely.

arc, flame, spark or other ignition source
constant monitoring
ventilation

153

if an inerting gas is used in a CS, the O2
concentration must be maintained at _____.

< 20% of concentration that supports combustion

154

there are _____ special precautions for CS

5

155

if O2 consuming equipment is used, then
_____ must be _____ and replaced with
fresh ____.

exhaust gases
vented
air

156

lighting and electrical equipment used in
CSs must be ______.

NIOSH intrinsically safe

157

if live electrical work is being performed,
then the _____ must be _____.

tripod
grounded

158

3 operating guidelines for Non-Permit CS entry

appropriate PPEs for expected hazards.
continuous air monitoring/recording.
if adverse air, CSRTL immediately
evacuates all CSREs.

159

3 operating guidelines for Permit-Required
CS entry

adhere to all pre-entry procedures
wear class III and use safety line(may not
be used if further endangerment)
continuous air monitoring recorded
every 15 minutes

160

7 CS rescue guidelines

establish ICS
perform scene size-up
risk assessment/risk benefit analysis
perform pre-entry procedures
use SCBA or SAR (min. length = 25')
rescue line shall be attached to rescuer
and placed on patient
no permit necessary for rescue

161

minimum length of a SAR line

25'

162

CS initial response units

2 hazmat
2 rescue
1st-in aerial
1st-in engine
appropriate BC

163

rescue companies will be assigned as a
_____ or _____ on CS incidents

CSRT
RIT

164

hazmat companies will be assigned the
duties of _____ and _____ on CS incidents.

ventilation
safety monitoring

165

aerial companies on CS incidents will
provide 3 things

manpower
equipment
ladders

166

engine companies on CS incidents will
provide 2 things

fire control
crowd control

167

all HFD personnel are trained to an _____
level for CS

awareness

168

all rescue personnel are trained to the
_____ level for CS

technician

169

hazmat personnel are trained in _____ to
the _____ level for CS

air monitoring
technician

170

all HFD personnel must attend an
_____ level class on CS every _____.

awareness
2 years

171

rescue companies must review ______
every _____ and conduct at least _____
CS drill every _____.

CS entry procedures
6 months
1
6 months

172

all rescue personnel and _____ shall attend
an _____ on CS

rescue relief personnel
annual refresher

173

hazmat companies must review _____
every _____.

air monitoring
6 months

174

5 CS Rescue Precautions

1) if using live elec. equip. the tripod must
be grounded.
2) only NIOSH approved lighting and
equipment may be used in CS
3) if O2 consuming equip. is used, exhaust
gases must be vented and replaced with
fresh air.
4) if an inerting gas is used, O2 must be
kept below 20% of amount needed to
support combustion.
5) flames, arc, sparks or other ignition
sources are prohibited in CS unless it
can be shown through constant monitoring
and ventilation that the work can be done
safely

175

5 air testing requirements

1)done with a direct reading instrument
2)done at 5 certain locations
3)done without disturbing the space
4)done in order of priority
5)written records are kept at entry point
and command post for duration of
incident

176

2 ICOM channels

primary is 123.10
secondary is 122.90