Test 1 Flashcards
(153 cards)
1
Q
When does the RAT auto-deploy?
A
Whenever AC PWR sources are NOT powering the AC buses
2
Q
How long will the ELPU’s power the internal Emergency lights?
A
10 minutes
3
Q
What is the max capacity of the potable water tank
A
110lt
4
Q
AC External Power Source AVAIL light is illuminated - what does this mean?
A
EXT. PWR is plugged in and power is within limits
5
Q
What type of aural alert is associated with a Windshear Alert
A
A voice message - ‘WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR’
6
Q
RW Width required for a 180° turn if no turning area available?
A
Minimum of 23m required
7
Q
What is an external indication that the FLT CREW Oxygen bottle has discharged due to overpressure?
A
A GREEN discharge disc will be missing above the filling port
8
Q
Which is NOT true?
- Pax doors are Type I
- Doors must be closed before wind speed exceeds 65kt
- Wind of 40kt was considered during design for door operation
- Service doors are Type II
A
- Service doors are Type II
9
Q
A dedicated battery provides power for emergency slide light for?
A
Approx. 10 minutes
10
Q
During Electrical emergency with no RAT available, batteries will supply the essential load for?
A
10 minutes
11
Q
What causes the T/O Warning to sound during T/O?
A
Brakes - parking brakes set
Trim - not in green T/O range
Spoilers - any spoiler panel deployed
Flaps - not in T/O position
12
Q
Min airspeed required for RAT to power the ESS AC / DC BUSSES?
A
130kt
13
Q
At what altitude will pax oxy masks auto-deploy?
A
Between 14,000 and 14,750ft
14
Q
If an IDG disconnects in flight can it be reconnected?:
A
IDG CANNOT be reconnected in flight
Maintenance tasks required before the next flight
15
Q
Oxygen masks - the following is TRUE
A
In the NORM position oxygen dilution will be automatic. As cabin alt increases the proportion of ambient air decreases
16
Q
How long does the PBE provide oxygen for?
A
AT LEAST 15 minutes (20 minutes)
17
Q
What does a FLASHING orange light at FA station indicate?
A
Smoke detected in the lavatory
18
Q
Windshear Escape Guidance mode is NOT activated in the following conditions:
A
Automatically when windshear is detected, regardless of thrust lever position
19
Q
Windshear Escape Guidance mode IS ACTIVATED in the following conditions:
A
- Manually - when windshear warning or caution condition is detected and TO/GO BUTTON is pressed
- Automatically - when windshear warning condition is detected and thrust levers set to TO/GO POSITION
Automatically - when windshear warning condition is detected and FD is in TO or GA
20
Q
This statement is NOT TRUE about the Cockpit Door Control INHIB button:
A
Pressing the button inhibits the EMERG ENTRY command from the cockpit door control panel in the pax cabin for 30 seconds
21
Q
How long must the photo-luminescent strips be charged for?
A
30 minutes at Full BRT
22
Q
How long do the full charged photo-luminescent strips last?
A
7 hours
23
Q
If EGPWS Inhibit switch is pressed, how does it auto-reset itself?
A
By climbing ABOVE 2000ft or descending BELOW 30ft
24
Q
What is the priority order of power sources for the AC main busses?
A
- Respective IDG
- APU Generator
- GPU if APU not available
- Other side IDG
25
What does a STEADY ORANGE light on FA call panel mean?
Lavatory call
26
Max alt. for APU START?
30,000ft
27
Max alt. for APU AC power?
33,000ft
28
Max alt for APU Engine start bleed air?
21,000ft
29
Max alt for APU aircon / Px bleed air?
15,000ft
30
What is the total useable fuel capacity of the fuel tanks?
13,100kg (6550kg each)
31
Which battery energies APU starter?
Which fuel tank supplies APU?
Battery 2
Right Fuel tank
32
Which is NOT true about the Fire Test button?
- The cargo smoke detection system is tested
- Engine and APU fire detection systems are tested
- Lavatory smoke detection system is tested
- Pressing the button for more than 10 seconds shuts down the APU
- Lavatory smoke detection system is tested
33
What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?
To maintain the fuel level in the collector tank
34
What is the max flex T/O thrust reduction?
25%
35
What happens when you pull an Engine Fire handle?
- Engine HYD SOV closes
- Engine FUEL SOV closes
- Engine BLEED AIR SOV closes
- Cross BLEED SOV closes
- All liquids and air shut off to that engine
36
What is TRUE for Engine Auto-Relight:
- Available during Ground Operations
- FADEC monitors N2 and automatically turns on BOTH ignitors & schedules relight fuel flow in the event of an engine flameout
- For in flight auto relight, FADEC has NO protection for HOT starts, HUNG starts or NO LIGHT OFF
- WML icon displayed next to respective engine N2 & represents an auto relight actuation
- Not available during GND ops is NOT TRUE
37
Cargo Fire extinguishing system consists of:
2 Ext. bottles, One HIGH rate, one LOW rate - BOTH bottles are in the CENTER AVIONICS BAY
38
Which system is NOT powered by HYD 1?
- INBD brakes
- Emergency Park Brake
- Upper rudder actuator
- Elevator (Left Outboard)
INBD Brakes
39
If a fuel EDP fails, what type of pump supplies fuel?
AC backup
40
Selecting APU knob to OFF:
- APU has a 1 minutes COOLDOWN period, followed by a 1 minute SPOOLDOWN period
- APU shuts down without delay is NOT TRUE
41
How many magnetic fuel level sticks are installed?
6 (3 per wing)
42
What protection is NOT offered by FADEC for on ground engine starts?
No Oil Px
FADEC provides protection for:
- HOT starts
- Hung starts
- No light off
43
Where is the DC fuel pump located?
Right wing tank
44
What will cause ATTCS to command RSV power?
When the difference between BOTH engine N1 speeds is >15%
An engine fails during T/O
An engine fails during GO AROUND
45
To improve ITT control of engine ground starts, FADEC will not allow Fuel Flow if ITT is above:
120°c
46
Thrust Reversers:
- 1 & 2 operate independently
- Actuated by respective HYD system
47
In flight the APU will auto-shutdown only for the following:
- Overspeed
- Underspeed
- FADEC critical fault
48
What is the purpose of the PTU?
To provide HYD px in system 2 by using HYD px in system 1
49
How many SLAT panels are installed?
8 (4 per wing)
50
When are the smart probes heated?
When EITHER engine is running
51
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Warning inhibition button?
To inhibit LDG GEAR warning in event of a dual RADALT failure
52
ALL is selected on REF A/I Line, when is Wing Anti-Ice deactivated if no ice detected?
Until 1700ft AGL or 2 minutes after T/O, whichever occurs first
53
What is the nominal Px Diff maintained by the CPCS when flying above 37,000ft?
8.4 psi
54
During normal ops, cabin px is controlled by modulating the airflow using the:
OUTFLOW valve
55
What is NOT a primary flight control?
Horizontal Stabiliser
56
What ARE primary flight controls?
- Ailerons
- M/F Spoilers
- Elevators
- Rudder
57
What are Secondary flight controls?
- Horizontal Stabiliser
- Flaps & Slats
- M/F spoiler when used as speed brakes / GND spoilers
- Dedicated GND spoilers
58
How many fans are installed for ELEC compartment ventilation in FWD Bay, CTR Bay and AFT bay?
3, 3, 0
59
What is the approx. cabin alt at the highest cruise alt.?
8000ft
60
How many FULL applications do the EMER/PARK brake accumulators store?
6
61
When is the nose gear TOWING light illuminated red?
Main brakes are applied
62
DUMP FUNCTION:
- Used for Emergency evacuation, smoke evactuation or fast cabin DePx
- Activated by pushing the DUMP button on the Px panel
- Sets ECS and Recirc fans to OFF
- Emergency RAM AIR ventilation opens is NOT TRUE
63
What is the depressurisation rate when using the DUMP button?
2000fpm
64
If only 1 half of elevator trim switch is activated, how long until it deactivates?
7 seconds
65
Alternate Gear Extension Lever:
- When pulled, relieves all hydraulic pressure in the LND GEAR lines and releases all uplocks
- Opens the FWD and AFT doors and extends LND Gear is NOT TRUE
66
What is the delay between wiper sweeps in the TIMER position?
8 seconds
67
You are descending to land and are configuring the aircraft, speed brakes extended. At what point to speed brakes retract?
Flaps 2 or above
68
What is the nominal Px Diff maintained by the CPCS when flying below 37,000ft?
7.8psi
69
What is the time limit for actuation of the BACKUP trim switches?
3 seconds
70
What are the percentages of Total Air Flow of Fresh air and Recirculated air?
52% Fresh
48% Recirculated
71
Engine Bleed valve is NOT commanded to OPEN position if:
Respective Bleed switch is pushed OUT and WHITE BAR is illuminated in switch
72
Engine Bleed valve will command OPEN if:
- No Bleed Leak Detected
- No fire detected in associated engine
- Respective Bleed switch is in AUTO position and engine bleed air is available
73
When is the Touchdown Protection system deactivated?
3 seconds after WoW detected OR when wheel speed is >50kts
74
What is the correct MCDU colour coding?
Lateral data - GREEN, TO WPT - MAGENTA, Menus and Titles - WHITE
75
What are ALL the MCDU Colour Codes?
WHITE - Menus and Titles
AMBER /YELLOW - FROM WPT and FLT PLAN Names
MAGENTA - TO WPT
GREEN - Lateral Data
CYAN - Atmospheric, Performance and Vertical Data
RED - Failure
76
Which is NOT true for the TLA Trim system?
- Synchs N1 rotation speeds
- Performs small thrust adjustments with limited authority
- Compensates for Engine Failure
- Reduces excessive thrust lever movements
- Compensates for Engine Failure
77
What is the BASIC Vertical Mode
Flight Path Angle
78
Which is NOT true when TCS button is pressed?
- FD is synched with current attitude
- Servos will automatically re-engage when button is released
- AP and FD must be resynchronised when button is released
- AP command servos disengage
- AP and FD must be resynchronised when button is released
79
What is the MCDU scratchpad priority?
Alert
Advisory
Delete Function
Entry
Line Select
'Ay Ay Del!'
80
To change the FLT ID or CALLSIGN, which FMS button must be pushed?
RTE
81
FMA colour codes for normal ops are:
White - Armed mode
Amber - Alert condition
Red - Abnormal condition
Green - Non FMS commanded active / engaged mode
Magenta - FMS commanded active / engaged mode
82
MCDU Brightness adjustment:
Adjust the brightness of the display ONLY
NOT the keys
83
What are the functions of the FMS?
- Determine A/C position
- Navigation
- Performance
- Flight Planning
84
What is NOT a function of the FMS?
T/O and LANDING Speeds calculation
85
OVSP Protection:
- AMBER indication on FMA when active
- Previous mode becomes ARMED, then ACTIVE again
- If FD is disengaged, only aural 'HIGHSPEED' warning is triggered
86
FD Take Off Pitch Angle:
- On T/O guides to initially calculated angle
- After Engine failure BELOW V2; guides to V2
- After Engine failure BETWEEN V2 and V2+10; maintains speed
- After Engine Failure ABOVE V2+10; guides to V2+10
87
During GA, TRACK hold mode engages automatically:
When GA is selected by means of the TO/GA button
88
Which modes are related to SPDe? (Speed-e 3)
FLCH (Main mode)
OVSP
VFLCH (Magenta)
89
Which modes are related to SPDt?
FPA
VS
GS
VPTH
ALT HOLD
ALTSEL
90
ROLL mode is activated and bank angle is 45°, what action will the AP take?
Roll the aircraft back to a bank angle of 35°
91
AP NORMAL Disengagement
- Quick Disconnect button
92
AP NON-Normal Disengagement
- AP button pressed on GP
- Either manual pitch trim switch is actuated
- Either Stick Shaker is actuated
- Windshear escape guidance is activated
93
AP ABNORMAL disengagement
- Reversion of FBW to DIRECT mode
- Aileron or Elevator control system disconnected
- Contrary pilot input - long time light force or short time strong force
- Internal monitor failure
94
How is Take Off mode activated?
By pressing the TO/GA button
95
At what altitude with Auto Throttles engage in flight?
400ft AGL or above
96
When will Mach Trim auto engage:
- AP is NOT engaged
- IAS is above M0.70
- Manual trim of stabiliser is NOT in progress
- Neither quick disconnect switch is pressed
- Any other trim function is not commanded
97
A/T NORMAL disengagement:
- Press any A/T disengage button on the throttle levers
- Press A/T button on GP
- Auto disengage after touchdown
- Auto disengage after TLs beyond TO/GA position
- Auto disengage after Reverse Thrust operation during RTO
98
A/T NON-normal disengagement
- Difference in TLA >8°
- A/T Failure
99
During take off, when does the Auto Throttle HOLD mode become active?
When IAS is >60kts
100
During take off, when does the automatic transition from ROLL to TRACK occur?
When IAS is >100kt and bank angle is at 3° or less for more than 10 seconds
101
What is the BASIC lateral mode?
ROLL
102
What is the Max Landing Weight
45,000kg
103
What is the Maximum Flap Extension Altitude?
20,000ft
104
What is the Speed Limit at FL100
320kts
105
What is the Max speed for landing gear extensions?
265kts
106
What is the Minimum Operational Temperature?
-65°c
107
What is the MAX start EGT for APU?
1032°c
108
What is MAX ITT for Engine Ground Start?
740°c
109
What is MAX ITT for In Flight engine start?
875°c
110
What is MAX ITT for Normal TO & GA
945°c
Time limit of 5min
111
What is MAX ITT for Maximum TO and GA?
983°c
Time limit of 5min
Auto-engaged mode in OEI or Windshear conditions, when TL is in TOGA position
112
What is the maximum ROTOR speed for the APU?
108%
113
When does the Emergency RAM AIR valve open?
Anytime when:
- AC is in flight
- Both AC PACKS are OFF / Failed OFF
- Altitude is less than 25,000ft
114
What is the MAX Px Differential?
8.4psi
115
What is the MAX Differential Overpressure?
8.8psi
116
What is the Max differential Negative Px?
-0.5psi
117
What is the Max differential Px for TO & Landing?
0.2psi
118
What is the Minimum N2 speed allowed?
59.3%
119
What is the Maximum N2 speed allowed?
100%
120
What is the Maximum N1 speed allowed?
100%
121
Anti-skid protection is available for:
- The inboard brakes if hydraulic system no. 2 failed
- The outboard brakes if hydraulic system no. 1 failed
- The outboard brakes if hydraulic system no. 2 failed
- The emergency/parking brake system
- The outboard brakes if hydraulic system no. 2 failed
122
What is Max speed for Flaps 1?
230kts
123
What is the primary source of Hydraulic power for HYS SYS 2?
Engine Driven Hydraulic pump 2
124
The PTU selector is in the AUTO position. What will cause the PTU to run automatically?
- Engine 1 or EDP 1 fails
- Engine 1 fails
- EDP 1 fails
- Eng 2 or EDP fails
- Eng 2 or EDP fails
125
What is the Max TO Alt?
10,000ft
126
The ”FUEL IMBALANCE” message disappears when the difference is ___ or less.
55 kg
45 kg
35 kg
60 kg
45kg
127
On ground, the APU will automatically shut down.
Yes if the APU EMER STOP button is not pressed within 10 seconds after an APU fire has been detected
No, the APU EMER STOP button needs to be pressed for the APU to shut down
Only if an APU fire is detected
Only if either an overspeed, underspeed or a FADEC critical fault is detected
Yes if the APU EMER STOP button is not pressed within 10 seconds after an APU fire has been detected
128
What is the Minimum Oil Px allowed?
25psi
If oil temp is below -20°c, Minimum Oil Temp is 5psi time limited to 2min
129
What condition must be met for takeoff after landing below -40°C?
No condition
Increase power for 2 minutes
Engine idle for 5 minutes
Further inspection is required
Further inspection required
130
What is the maximum speed at 8000ft?
300kts
131
Max Xwind for RWYCC:
6
5
4
3
2
1
38
31
20
15
12
8
132
Max operating Temp
+35°c
133
Maximum Altitude
41,000ft
134
Maximum speed to open the window
160kts
135
Windshield Wiper max operating speed
253kts
136
Turbulence Penetration SPeed
Below 10,000ft - 250kts
At or above 10,000ft - 270kts / M0.76, whichever is LOWER
137
Max Tire ground speed
195kts
138
Max recommended Xwind for STATIC take off
30kt
139
Max Wind for Pax doors fully open and locked
65kt
140
Max wind for Pax / Cargo door operation
40kt
141
Max wind for Cargo Doors fully open and locked
60kt
142
G-limits Flaps Up
+2.5g / -1.0g
143
G-limits Flaps Down
+2.0g / 0-0g
144
RW Type and Slope limits
Paved
-2% to +2%
145
UNUSABLE fuel qty in each tank
46kg
146
Max APU EGT for CONT
717°c
147
APU Starter Limits
1st & 2nd Attempts - 60sec off
3rd attempt - 5min off
148
Engine Max Continuous EGT
960°c
149
Starter Cycle Limits
1 - 90sec - 5min off
2 to 5 - 30sec - 5min off
150
AP Minimum engagement height
400ft
151
AP minimum use height
1000ft / 50ft for approach
152
What kinds of operational conditions are we approved for?
Visual
Instrument
Icing
Cat I & II
RVSM
RNP
153
Minimum Crew
Flight deck - 2
Cabin - 3
