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Flashcards in Test 1 Deck (68):
1

What are the two Anticholinergics we most often use?

Atropine & Glycopyyrolate

2

How does an Anticholinergic work?

Blocking acetylcholine

3

What is the main reason we use Anticholinergics?

To prevent/treat bradycardia

4

What is the only Phenothiazine we use?

Acepromazine

5

What are the 2 main Benzodiazepines we use?

Diazepam and Midazolam

6

Are Benzodiazepines a pre-med or an induction drug?

Pre-med used for sedation and/or muscle relaxation to ease induction/recovery

7

Name 2 Alpha2 Agonists that we commonly use. Are they reversible or non-reversible?

Dexmedetomidine and Xylazine are both reversible

8

What are the 2 Alpha-2 Antagonists used to reverse the effects of Alpha-2 Agonists?

Atipamezole and Yohimbine

9

True or False: Dexmedetomidine causes hypotension within the first 30 minutes and then hypertension begins

False, other way around.

10

Name 2 of the most common Opioid Pure Agonists we use in our medicine

Morphine and Hydromorphone

11

What are some of the adverse effects of Opioid agonists?

Bradycardia, Severe respiratory depression, panting, Increased intraocular and intracranial pressure

12

Why should opioids be avoided in patients with a GI obstruction?

They slow GI motility

13

Which opioid is the Partial Agonist? What does this mean?

Buprenorphine. Only partially binds to pain receptors and can only be partially reversed

14

Which opioid is the Agonist-Antagonist? What does this mean?

Butorphanol is a Agonist/Antagonist which means after its maximum effective dose, giving anymore would cause antagonistic effects and therefore would reverse the desired effects

15

What is the opioid antagonist that reverses all opiates?

Naloxone

16

What are the 2 non-barbiturate induction drugs we almost always choose?

Propofol and Alfaxalone

17

What does it mean to give Propofol "to effect"?

Calculate and draw up the full dose, but give 1/3 - 1/2 and see if the patient is sedated enough to intubate. You typically do not need the entire calculated dose.

18

True or false: propofol is long acting and full recovery happens within 1-2 hours

False. It is short acting and full recovery can happen within 20-30 minutes

19

Why wouldnt you use Propofol in a hypoproteinemic patient?

The drug is highly protein bound

20

What are the 3 most common Barbiturate induction agents?

Thiopental, Pentobarbital, Methohexital

21

Which barbiturate that we use is Short Acting?

Pentobarbital

22

Why is repeated doses of Barbiturates NOT recommended?

Barbiturates have a longer half life and accumulate in body compartments if repeated doses are given

23

Name the 2 most common Dissociative induction agents that we use

Ketamine & Etomidate

24

True or false: It is best to give Ketamine without any pre-med

Fake news. Ketamine causes narcosis and NEEDS to be mixed or pre-treated with a Benzodiazepine

25

True or false: Giving cats Diazepam orally works faster than IV

NO. GIVING CATS DIAZEPAM ORALLY CAUSES LIVER FAILURE.

26

Which drug besides Diazepam can be added to Ketamine to further ease induction?

Guaifenesin

27

Why is Etomidate such a safe choice?

Minimal side effects, cardiac and respiratory safe

28

Give an example of a Halogenated Organic Compound we typically use

Isoflurane inhalant

29

Isoflurane replaced Halothane because _____

Halothane had many side effects including cardiac issues. Isoflurane is cardiac safe as well as safe for epileptics.

30

Why are warming elements required for a patient undergoing Isoflurane maintenance?

Isoflurane causes Hypotension and Hypothermia

31

What are 3 techniques of orchidectomy?

Pre-scrotal, scrotal incision, scrotal ablation

32

How is an open orchidectomy performed? (Simply)

First, be sure there is NO inguinal hernia. Exteriorize testicle down to visceral peritoneum and remove

33

How is a closed orchidectomy performed? (Simply)

The parietal tunic is left intact

34

What is 1 advantage and 2 disadvantage of using a closed technique for an orchidectomy?

Advantage: if there is a hernia, less risk and less oozing and swelling
Disadvantage: More difficult, takes longer

35

Describe the surgical prep involved for an ovariohysterectomy

- Clip with, and then against the direction of hair from the xyphoid to the pubis, and then laterally to the nipples.
- Express the bladder
- Surgical scrub
- Ground drapes
- Laparotomy sheet

36

Where is the primary incision made in dogs for an ovariohysterectomy? Cats?

Dogs - just caudal to umbilicus
Cats - 2cm caudal to umbilicus

37

The subcutaneous repair is done using a continuous suture pattern, while the linea and epidermal layers are done using a _______ pattern

Simple interrupted

38

In basic terms, what are the steps of an ovariohysterectomy?

1. Locate ovaries
2. Break broad ligament
3. Clamp pedicles
4. Ligate and release pedicles
5. Repeat on other ovary
6. Ligate uterine body and cut out

39

What is the difference between cutting and tapered suture needles? When are each recommended?

Cutting - cuts a hole and allows material to be pulled through. Will tear through friable tissues.
Tapered - separates tissue fibers and brings suture through, no cut. Used for internal sutures

40

What is the technicians role in Orthopedic surgery?

Understanding common terminology, equipment and procedures

41

Give an example of an elective orthopedic surgery and a non-elective surgery

Elective: Cruciate ligament repair
Non-elective: Joint luxations

42

When should prophylactic antibiotics be used for orthopedic surgery?

If there is severe trauma, contamination or more than one fracture

43

Name a risk factor that increases a dog's chances of developing Gastric Dilation Volvulus (GDV) (There are 7)

- Deep chest
- Underweight
- Only fed once per day
- Exercise after eating
- Consumptions of large volumes of food or water
- Eating from a raised bowl
- Rotating susceptible patient dorsally (always rotate with feet down)

44

What are some of the 6 clinical signs of GDV?

- Abdominal pain
- Excessive salivation
- Retching, no vomit
- Tachycardia
- Distended abdomen
- Respiratory distress

45

What obvious sign will you see on an abdominal rad in a patient with GDV?

Large gas pockets on rads (compartmentalization)

46

At what rate are fluids given to a dog with GDV?

Shock rate

47

What procedure is performed after the GDV reversal surgery to ensure it does not reccur?

Gastropexy -- suture stomach to the abdominal wall

48

What are the 2 best pre-meds for GDV PROVIDED the patient is not cyanotic?

Hydromorphone or Fentanyl

49

What induction drug should be avoided in GDV cases as it causes splenic enlargement?

Propofol

50

Most pregnant dogs with dystocia are anemic. If the patient's PCV is normal, what does this mean?

She is dehydrated

51

What 4 emergency drugs are needed for C-section surgery?

Epinephrine, Atropine, Naloxone and Doxapram

52

Which pre-med shouldnt be used for C-section as it crosses the placental barrier and causes fetal depression and hypotension

Acepromazine

53

Which class of pre-meds should be avoided all together as it causes severe neonate depression?

Alpha-2 Agonists

54

What is the best induction drug for PLANNED C-section surgery?

Propofol or Alfaxalone

55

A PLANNED C-section patient should receive an epidural of what?

Lidocaine or Morphine/Bupivicaine mixture

56

What pre-meds should be used in an EMERGENCY C-Section?

Hydromorphone or Fentanyl + Half dose of Atropine

57

True or false: During C-section surgery, the patient should be maintained on Iso as deep as possible since it is a painful surgery

False. The patient should be kept as light as possible.

58

What 3 things should the non-sterile team do for each neonate that passes during C-section?

1. Clamp umbilicus
2. Rub with sterile towel to stimulate breathing
3. Suction nares and nasopharynx to remove any amniotic fluid

59

What do you do if a neonate isn't breathing after being passed by C-section? If that doesn't work, what else can you try?

Apply 2 drop of Doxapram sublingually. If that doesnt work, give 1 drop Epinephrine sublingually

60

What is a Celiotomy?

Incision into the abdominal cavity

61

Exploratory abdominal surgery should only be performed AFTER ____ and/or ____ has been done

Ultrasound/Radiographs

62

What are 3 reasons we may do a Gastrotomy?

Foreign body, hairball, string gut

63

During anesthesia, what should the capnograph (ETCO2) read during inhalation? Exhalation?

Inhalation: 0 mmHg
Exhalation: 35-45 mm Hg

64

What is the 'normal' temperature for cats/dogs?

36.1-39.7 degrees C

65

When should you be concerned about a Respiratory rate getting too low?

If the RPM is less than 8

66

What is the safe range for Systolic/Diastolic BP during anesthesia?

Systolic - 100-160 mm Hg
DIastolic - 60-90 mm Hg

67

What is the MINIMUM MAP for proper perfusion?

60 mm Hg

68

During the first hour of surgery, fluid rate is ___ml/kg/hour, and then it is reduced to ____ml/kg/hour

10, 5