Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Missense mutation

A

different amino acid is encoded

  • less functional or faulty protein
  • protein that worked differently
  • no alteration in protein function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Point mutations

A

addition, deletion or substitution of a single base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nonsense mutatio

A

changes a normal codon into a stop codon

-almost always results in non-functional protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

silent mutation

A

base changes, but same amino acid is included - due to redundancy in genetic code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Frameshift mutation

A

additions or deletions change the reading frame

-almost always result in non-functional protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Phtoactivation

A

UV damaged DNA is repaired by photoactivation

  • the enzyme DNA photolayse detects, attaches to, and repairs damaged area
  • light is required, sevvere damage cannot be repaired this way
  • type of excision repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosa

A

genetic disease in which patients have no excision repair mechanism, theydevelop severe skin cancers with very little sun exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Excision repair

A

mutations can be excised with special enzymes that remove incorrect bases and replace them with the right ones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mutations

A

Changes made to the DNA

  • Spontaneous: random change
  • Induced: chemical radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Specific mutation examples

A

point: change a single base
nonsense: change a normal codon into a stop codon
Frameshift: reading frame of the mRNA changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Point mutation

A

change in a single base, the reading frame is not affected, but the mutation may be either expressed or silent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Frame-Shift

A

the deletion or addition of one or more bases. these mutations change the reading frame of all downstream codons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Error rate

A

mutations caused by errors in synthesis of DNA: 1 error every 10^3 or 10^4 nucleotides

pro/eukaryotic: 1 error every 10^9 or 10^10 nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

light repair

A

Prokaryotes

- can repair thymine dimers induced by UV light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dark repair

A

can identify and excise defective DNA and replace the defective DNA with the correct sequence based on the template strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

recombination

A

an even in which one bacterium donates genetic information to another

  • transformation
  • transduction
    - conjugation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Transformation

A

free DNA, nonspecific acceptance of free DNA by the cell (DNA fragments, plasmids), DNA can be inserted into the chomosomes, competent cells readily accept DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Transduction

A
  • Bacteriophage infect host cells and is specific to bacterial host
  • serve as the carrier of DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cell
    • generalized/specific
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lysogenic cycle

A

phage genome recombines into the bacterial genome and becomes a prophage
lysogenic phages are specialized transducing phages and can transduce only specific regions of the bacterial genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Generalized

A

generalized transducing phages undergo a lytic cycle and are capable of transducing any par of the donors genetic information
- random event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Conjugation

A

transfer of plasmid DNA from f+ (f factor) cell to a f- cell
an f+ bacterium possesses a pilus
pilus attaches to the recipient cell and creates pore for the transfer DNA
High frequency recombination (Hfr) donors contain the f factor in the chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

F` plasmida

A

are created when the Hfr plasmid recombines out of the bacterial genome imprecisely and carries with it a segment of the bacterial genome. that segment can then be transferred to a recipient cell as in F+ conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Significance of Conjugation

A
  • in Hfr conjucation significant amounts of genetic material may be transferred
  • genetic information including determinants of pathology or antimicrobic resistance may be transferred cell to cell
  • Hfr conjucation is an excellent procedure to map genes of conjugable bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Enzyme

A

restriction endonuclease, ligase, reverse transcriptase (cDNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Restriction endonuclease

A
  • originates in bacterial cells
  • many different types
  • nautral function is to protect the bacterium from foreign DNA (bacteriophage)
  • recognizes 4-10 base pairs (palindromic sequence, identical in 5-3 or 3-5)
  • cleaves DNA at the phosphate-sugar bond
  • used in the cloning method
  • Example” EcoRI from escerichia coli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ligase

A
  • linkDNA fragments
  • rejoin the phosphate sugar bond
  • used in the cloning method
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Reverse transcriptase

A

Converts RNA to DNA

  • Ex.complimentary DNA (cDNA)
    • required for eukaryotic gene expression
    • mRNA to cDNA
    • no introns are present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Electrophoresis

A
  • separation of DNA based on size
  • negative charge DNA (phosphate grou) migrates to positive electrode
  • characterizing DNA fragment size and fingerprinting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hypridization and probes

A
  • DNA hybridize with DNA, DNA with RNA, RNA with RNA
  • probes: small stretches of nucleic acid with a known sequence called an “oligonucleotide”, single stranded, detects specific nucleotide sequences in unknown nucleic acid samples
  • southern blot: method for detecting an unknown sample of DNA, incorporates restriction endonuclease, electrophoresis, denaturing, probing and visual detection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Flourescent in sit Hybridization

A

(FISH)

used to identify virus inclusions with in host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

sequencing

A

provide the identity and order of nucleotides (bases)

Method: sanger method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

A
  • specific amplification of DNA
  • involves a denaturing, priming (annealing), and extension cycle
  • 30 cycles are sufficient for detection of DNA
  • can be used to detect disease or infectious agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Recombinant

A
  • when a cloning host receves a vector containing the gene of interest
  • A single cloning host containing the gene of interest is called a clone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cloning vectors

A

readily accepted DNA by the cloning host
origin of replication
contain a selective antibiotic resistance gene
plasmids or phages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Desirable characteristics of cloning host

A
  • fast growth
  • large quantaties
  • nonpathogenic
  • accepts vectors
  • keeps foriegn genes through successive generations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

applications

A

protein production, alter organisms normal function, source of DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Modified bacteria

A
  • Pseudomonas syringae: prevents frost crystals from forming on plants
  • Pseudomonas fluorescens: contains an insecticide gene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Transgenic plants

A

Agrobacterium tumefaciens: Ti plasmid contains gene of interest, and is integrated into plant chromosome
Example: tobacco, garden pea, rice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Transgenic animals

A

knockout mouse

  • tailor-made genetic defects
    - cystic fibrosis, Gauchers disease, Alzheimers disease, sickle-cell anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Gene therapy

A
  • repair a genetic defect by Ex vivo or In vivo strategy

- severe immunodeficiency disease, cystic fibrosis, sicke anemia, hemophelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Antisense and triplex DNA

A

Antisense RNA or DNA: prevent the sysnthesis of an unwanted protein, targets mRNA
Triplex DNA: prevents transcription, targets double stranded DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Maps

A
  • determine the location of particular genes (locus) on the chromosome
  • Determine differences in chromosomal regions (alleles),genomic and bioinformatic
43
Q

Types of maps

A

Linkage: shows the relative proximity and location of genes
Physical: shows the proximity and size of genes
Sequence: shows the exact order of bases

44
Q

Fingerprinting

A
  • emphasizes the differences in the entire genome
  • technique are endonucleases, PCR, and southern blot
  • uses: forensic medicine, identify heriditary disease
45
Q

Static agents

A

Temporarily preventing the growth of microbes

  • bacteriostatic
  • fungistatic
46
Q

Cital

A

killing or destroying a microorganism

  • germicide
  • bacteriocide
47
Q

Resistance

A

Highest: bacterial spores and prions
Moderate: some bacteria protozoan cycts, fungal sexual spores, naxed viruses
Least: most bacteria, fungal nonsexual spores and hyphae, enveloped viruses, yeast, protozoan trophoites

48
Q

Sterilization

A

the complete killing of all microorganisms in a material or on an object

49
Q

Antispetics

A

are generally applied to living organisms to destroy microorganisms or limit their growth

50
Q

Disinfectants

A

are typically applied to inanimate objects to reduce the number of pathogenic organisms

51
Q

A concept

A

the number of organisms present at the beginning affects the time needed to achieve disinfection

52
Q

Heat control

A

Dry heat: 171 Celsius for one hour, dehydration, denaturation, oxidation
Moist heat: autoclave (121 Celsius), coagulation of proteins, denaturation of proteins

53
Q

Steam and Pressure

A
  • pressure above normal will result in temperatures above 100 Celsius
  • effectively destroys spores
  • sterilizes inanimate objects
54
Q

Pasterurization

A

disinfection of liquids, 71.6 Celsius for 15 seconds, stops fermentation, prevents milk-borne diseases

55
Q

cold and dessication effects

A
  • cold temperatures reduce activity of microbes (not psychrophiles)
  • dessication (dehydration) kill some microorganisms
  • Lyophilization
56
Q

Types of radiation

A

Ionizing: gammarays (high), x-rays (moderate), Cathode (least)
nonionizing:ultraviolet

57
Q

Applications of radiation

A

Ionizing: alternative sterilization method, materials sensitive to heat or chemicals, some foods (fruit, vegtables, meats)
Nonionizing: alternative disinfectant, germicidal lamp in hospitals, schools, food preparation areas

58
Q

Filtration

A

Removes microbes and spored from liquids and air, perforated membrane- pore sizes vary
-applications: liquids that are sensitive to heat (serum, vaccines, media)

59
Q

Chemical control applications

A

Halogens, alcohols, surfactants, hydrogen peroxide, detergents and soaps, heavy metals, aldehydes, gases, dyes, acids, alkalis, phenolics

60
Q

Halogens

A

Chlorine: disinfectant and antiseptic (disrupt sulfhydryl groups in amino acids)
Iodine: topical antiseptic (disruption similar to chlorines)

61
Q

Alcohol

A

ethyl alcohol, isopropyl (70% concentration dissolve membrane lipids, disrupt cell survace tension, denatures proteins
-germicidal and skin degerming

62
Q

hydrogen peroxids

A

colorless and caustic liquid, form hydroxyl free radicals (effective against anaerobes), skind and wound cleaner, quick method for sterilizing medical equipments

63
Q

Heavy metals

A

mercury, silver….

- inactivate proteins, preservatives in cosmetics and ophthalmic solutions

64
Q

Selective toxicity

A

drugs that specifically target microbial processes and not the human host

65
Q

Antibiotics

A

kill or inhibit growth of bacteria, usually mold-type fungi (penicillium, Cephalosporium)
-certain strains of Bacillus (bacitracin)

66
Q

Broad/Narrow Spectrum

A

Broad: treatment is effective against a wide variety of different types of microorganisms (Gram +/-)

Narrow: treatment is effective against a limited number of similar microorganisms

67
Q

5 general mechanisms of action for antibiotics

A
inhibition of cell wall synthesis
disruption of cell membrane function
inhibition of protein synthesis
inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
anti-metabolic activity
68
Q

Penicillin

A

Penicillium chrysogenim

  • a diverse group (1st, 2nd, 3rd genertation)
  • natural (penicillin G and V)
  • semisynthetic(ampicillin, amoxicillin)

Structure: Beta-lactam ring, variable side chain (R group)

69
Q

Cell wall antibiotics

A

Penicillin, methicillin, oxacillin, ampicillin, carbenicillin, cephalosporins and cycloserine

they block transpeptidation which is necessary for cross-linked peptidoglycan in cell wall

70
Q

protein synthesis medicines

A

Aminoglycosides: binds the 30s ribosomes, misreads mRNA
Tetracyclines: Binds the 30s ribosome, blocks attachment of tRNA to A site
Chloramphenicol: binds 50s ribosome, prevents peptide bond formation

71
Q

Antimetabolites

A

act either through competitive inhibition or erroneous incorperation- moleculat mimicry

  • Sulfonamides: block synthesis of folic acid- and as a result, nucleic acid synthesis
  • Isoniazid: antimetabolite for two vitamins
72
Q

Other antimicrobials

A

Antiprotozoan: metronidazole (flagyl)-most are fairly toxic-black hairy tongue, treat Giardia and amebiasis
Antimalarial: Quinine
Antihelminthic: mebandazole, tapeworms and round worms, blocks microtubule formation, starves the worms

73
Q

Nucleic acid synthesis prevention

A

Chloroquine: binds and cross-links the double helix
Other quinolones inhibit DNA, unwinding enzymes and block replication
-Ciprofloxacin

74
Q

Antiviral

A
  • very few
  • difficult to maintain selective toxicity
  • effective drugs: target viral replication cycle
    - entry, nucleic acid, assembly/release
  • Interferon (IFN): artificial antiviral drug
75
Q

Resistance factors

A

R-plasmids
- transformation, conjugation, transduction
- transposons
5 main mechanisms of resistance

76
Q

5 mechanisms of resistance for microorganisms

A
alteration of targets
alteration of membrane permiability
development of enzymes
efflux pumps
alteration of metabolic pathways
77
Q

Defense mechanisms

A

Innate: nonspecific, first and second line
Acquired: specific, third line

78
Q

First line

A

Barrier
Anatomical: Skin, Mucous membrane
Chemical: sebaceous secretions, tears and saliva contain lysozyme, acidic pH from sweat-stomach-skin-semen-vaginal biota

79
Q

Immunology

A

the study of the development of resistance to infectious agents by the body

  • surveillance of the body
  • recognition of forgein material
  • destruction of foreign material or agens
80
Q

White Blood Cell

A

recognize self markers on the host cell
- do not attack or do not respond to host cell
WBC recognize non-self markers on the invading microbe
- attack or respond to microbe
-PAMPs, DAMPs

81
Q

Hemopoiesis

A

production of blood

  • starts at the embryonic stage (yolk sac and liver)
  • continues during adult stage
  • hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow, mostly of the long bones
82
Q

Leukocytes

A
Granulocytes
-neutrophils
-basophils
-eosinophils
Agranulocytes
-T cells
-B cells
-Monocytes
83
Q

Neutrophil

A
  • high numbers
  • phagocytizes bacteria-granules contain digestive enzymes
  • first to arrive during an immune respone (inflammation)
84
Q

Eosinophils

A
  • contain granules with hydrolytic enzymes
  • attach and destroy large eucaryotic pathogens (worms)
  • assists with inflammation and allergies
85
Q

Basophil

A
  • low numbers
  • involved in allergic reactions (similar functions as eosinophils)
  • localized basophils are caled mast cells
  • contain lots of vasodialating histamine
86
Q

Lymphocyte

A

Specific immunity
-T cells: cellular immunity
-B cells: humoral/ antibody immuity
third line of defense

87
Q

Monocyte

A

agranulocyte

  • differentiate into macrophages (circulation and lymphatics) and dendretic cells (tissue associated)
  • involved in phagocytosis
88
Q

Lymphatic system

A

connected to the blood stream, auxiliary route for the return of extracellular fluid to the curculatory system, contains lymphocytes-phagocytes-and antibodies

89
Q

Contents of the lymphatic system

A
Fluids
Vessels
Nodes
Spleem
Thymus
GALT and tonsils
90
Q

Galt

A

gut associated lymphoid tissure

  • recognized incoming microbes from foos
  • supply lymphocytes for antibody response
91
Q

second line of defense

A

Inflammation, phagocytosis, interferon, complement

92
Q

Inflammation

A
  • Redness, Warmth, Swelling, Pain
  • mobilize and attract immune components to the site of injury
  • localize and remove harmful substances
  • destroy microbes and block their invasion
  • aid in the repair of tissue damage
93
Q

Fever

A
  • caused by pyrogens
  • pyrogens: microbes and their products, luekocyte products
  • inhibit microbe and viral multiplication, reduces nutrient availability, increases immune reactions
94
Q

Phagocytosis

A

Neutrophils: first to arrive during inflammation (primary componant of puss)
Monocytes/Macrophages

95
Q

mechanism of phagocytosis

A

chemotaxis
ingestion
phagolysosome
destruction

96
Q

Chemotaxis

A
  • pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
  • Polly matzinger (PAMPs and DAMPs)
    • peptidoglycan and LPS
  • Forgein debris
  • intracellular elements
97
Q

ingestion

A

pseudopods enclose the pathogen or foreign maerial

-form a phagosome or phagocytic vacuole

98
Q

phagolysosome

A

lysosomes fuse with the phagosome

-other antimicrobials chemicals are released into the phagolysosome (hydrogen peroxide)

99
Q

destruction

A

withing the phagolysosome
- oxygen dependent mechanisms
-oxygen independent mechansism
undigestible debris are release

100
Q

Interferon

A

Produced due to viral infections, microbe infections, RNA, immune products and antigens

101
Q

Interferon classes

A

Alpha: production of lymphoytes and amcrophages
Beta: products of fibroblasts and epithelial cells
Gamma: product of T cells

102
Q

Complement

A

produced by liver hepatocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes

  • inflammation: C3a,C4a,C5a
  • opsonization: C3b
  • MAC killing: C5-C9
103
Q

Pathways

A

Classical: activated by the presence of antibody bound to microbes
Lectin: activated when a host serum protein binds a sugar (mannan) in the wall of fungi and other microbes
Alternative: activated when a compleent proteins bind to cell wall or surface components of microbes

104
Q

Stages

A

Initiation
Amplification and Cascade
Polymerization
Membrane attack complex (MAC)