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Micro II > Test > Flashcards

Test Flashcards

1
Q

What do these TSI results mean

Butt/ Slant

Yellow, yellow

Yellow, Red

Red, Red

A 
yellow = acid 
red = alkaline

butt/slant

Acid/acid: lac+ and/or suc+, refer to MacConkey, if that is negative you can definitively report sucrose fermenter. if lac+ then you need another test. Not a glucose fermenter either.

Acid/alkaline: gluc+, lac-, suc-

Alkaline/alkaline: lac-, suc- and gluc-

The point is that in the slant there is never glucose there. So if it is only a glucose fermenter, glucose would be oxidized, unfermentable and you wouldn’t have acid there.

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2
Q

What are the treatments for invasive aspergillosis

A

Voriconazole is a first line treatment

Capofungin is used if the first line treatments do not work

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3
Q

What are buzzcharacteristics of prion disease

A

Amyloid deposits high in beta sheets

Leads to vacuolar degeneration of tissue: spongiform encephalitis.

Really long incubation period: years

No inflammation in damaged tissue and no immune response

Highly stable, need to soak in NaOH and autoclave.

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4
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

A

prion disease that can be transmitted by transplantation from an infected individual.

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5
Q

Kuru

A

prion disease from the highlands of Papua New Guinea were transmitted by ingesting brain tissue of deceased relatives

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6
Q

Scrapie

A

Arise from sheep. Named for behavior of the diseased animals who scraped against trees.

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7
Q

vCJD- varient

A

Prion disease acquired from eating beef from cows with Mad Cow disease. Transmission is via live stock feed

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8
Q

Gerstmann-Straussler-SCheinker syndrome

Familial fatal insomnia

Inherited Creutzfeldt-Jakob

A

All three are autosomal dominant inherited prion disease

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9
Q

Describe the mechanism of the prion protein in causing disease

A

protein of amyloid aggregates is encoded by genome of host.

PrP - glycoprotein found on extracellular face of neuronal membranes.

Transcription and amino acid sequences are identical between normal and infected brains.

Proteolysis also results in same length fragments in both cases 209. However, normal brain ones are rich in alpha helix and completely broken down by proteases.

Beta sheet fragments (PrPSc) are highly ressitant to protease. after digestion 142 aminoacid fragment remains and that is amyloid forming.

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10
Q

What is the prion hypothesis saying about immune system

A

Why prions have a lack of an immune response. PrP and its derivatives are normal constituents of the body to which the immune system should be tolerant.

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11
Q

What is pruisner’s hypothesis

A

Prusiner’s hypothesis: PrPC is in equilibrium with a rare, energetically unfavorable conformation,l state = PrPC.
PrPC principally reverts to PrPC but very rarely transforms to PrPSc. The altered conformation of PrPSc allows it to bind
additional PrPC and catalyze its conversion to PrPSc. This is an autocatalytic process: once it begins the rate of
conversion of PrPC to PrPSc continuously increases. PrPSc is proteolytically cleaved and the cleaved protein aggregates
into amyloid fibrils.

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12
Q

What is chronic wasting disease

A

Prion disease of deer and elk raising wariness of consuming venison.

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13
Q

What causes clinical hepatitis?

A

Hep A-E

Epstein Barr virus

CMV

Herpes simplex

Adenovirus

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14
Q

college kid has sore throat, enlarging cervical lymph nodes and a fever. VCA is detected, what is the agent?

A

VCA-viral capsid antigen is the main component of EBV. EBV is a causative agent causing infectious mononucleosis

Other causes of mononucleosis
CMV
HHV4

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15
Q

5 children develop a disease that starts with a bright red rash and face which turns violet and dissappears. Then a maculopapular rash appears on trunk, buttocks, extremities. Soon faded from trunk but persists on thighs and forearms. None were terribly sick

A

Erythrma infectiosum (slapped cheek syndrome) cause by parvovirus B19, single stranded DnA

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16
Q

High grade fever that suddenly rises and rapidly falls. Develops a maculopapular rash that spares the Face, palm and soles.

A

Human Herpes Virus 6

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17
Q

What finding on serological test is indicative of high infectivity for Hbv

A

HBeAg- all hbv carriers are positive for HbSAg. Positive for HBeAg means more than a single layer of viral proteins are expressed in infected cells. Therefore likelihood that there are full infectious particles. Detection of antibodies means strong immune response and is associated with lower detree of infectivity

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18
Q

What is a common gene product found in dna tumor virus

A

Ability to inactivate tumor suppressor gene products such as p53 and retinoblastoma

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19
Q

What kind of virus packs RNA dependent RNA polymerase in its virions

A

Negative sense RNA viruses

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20
Q

HHV virus group

Which causes:

Chicken pox
Infectious mononucleosis
Kaposi’s sarcoma
Roseola infantum or exanthema subitum

A

Chicken pox - varicella zoster, HHV3
Infectious mononucleosis - CMV, HHV 4
Kaposi’s sarcoma - HHV 8
Roseola infantum or exanthema subitum - HHV6

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21
Q

Mollescum contagiosun

A

Cutaneous disease caused by human pox virus

It causes non-malignant skin tumors, usually wart-like but
sometimes large and disfiguring, that may last for years before regressing. Scratching the lesions may lead to auto-
inoculation and increase in number of lesions. Tumors may result from production of a growth factor-like cytokine by
the virus (Vaccinia makes an EGF homologue).

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22
Q

Envelope? Structure?

Picornavirus

A

No envelope

Icosohedral structure

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23
Q

Picornaviruses are infected with them via,

A

Digestive tract: fecal oral route or respiratory tract: rhinovirus

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24
Q

How are each of these transmitted?

Rcv
Parvo
Reovirus
Parainfluenza
Bunyavirus
Arenavirus
A 
Rcv: respiratory
Parvo: respiratory
Reovirus: fecal orally
Parainfluenza: respiratory
Bunyavirus: california and lacross viruses - mosquito vectors
Arenavirus: rodents and their feces
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25
Q

What characteristic of influenza A allows genetic reassortment

A

Segmented genome. Influenza A causes localized respiratort tract infection with 8 pieces of negative sense single stranded RNA. Which can reassort when two diff strain infect same cell (pig)

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26
Q

4 month old girl has been coughing and a slight fever. Her runny nose has clear fluid. Her lungs are clear of infection.

A

The symptoms are matching bronchiolitis. The most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants is RSV. Likely to find multinucleated giant cells

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27
Q

Immunization of influenza produces antibodies that bind what and stop what?

A

Antibodies bind glycoproteins of viral envelope and block binding of virions to cells

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28
Q

Which viruses have sequential cascade of events

A

Herpes: VHS, alphaTIF, immediate early genes, delayed early genes, late genes.

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29
Q

HHV-8

A 
HHV-8 (KSHV) encodes protein homologs of cellular transcription factors of the interferon
regulatory factor (IRF) family.  They inhibit virus-mediated transcriptional activity of the IFNα promoter, and thus, inhibit virus-mediated synthesis of biologically active interferons.  This undermines the functions of IRFs and lowers the amount of interferon, important to host immunity.
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30
Q

How VSV transmitted

How is CMV transmmitted

A

VZV - spread via respiratory secretions or direct contact of pustule
(live attenuated vaccine)

CMV-all bodily fluids are highly contagious

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31
Q

What is requirement for acyclovir to work

A

Viral thymidine kinase to add the first phosphate so cellular thymidine kinase takes over.

CMV doesn’t have it so acyclovir doesn’t work.

Works for HSV1,2 and VZV. Decreases replication in EBV but doesn’t work for latent infections.

32
Q

Info about bioterrorism

A

accidents or terrorism at nuclear plants are typical low probability high consequence events and except for hospitals at close proximity, preparedness is not needed.

There is a high probability of bioterrorism attack in the next five years

Dirty bombs are disruptive, not destructive. They unlikely to cause a lot of casualties and disease

Us medical establishment actually prepare for a variety of disasters, mostly related to local traffic disasters or other surge events. Probably least prepared for bioterrorism.

For the H1N1 epidemic, HCW were mandated to get vaccinated. Which is likely a major reason why the 2010 outbreak was contained

33
Q 
What are these 
Gag:
p24
p17
p7

What are the Pol proteins

Env:
gp120
gp41

A

p24: capsid protein
p17: matrix protein
p7: core nucleocapsid protein

Pol: reverse transcriptase, integrase, protease

Env: gp120 surface protein that binds CD4 and coreceptors CCR5

gp41: transmembrane protein for viral fusion with host cell - inhibited by fusion inhibitors like Enfutividine

34
Q

Location location location

Tickborn, NE united States

East coast, mosquito vector

West coast, mosquito vector

Central, South America, rodent reservoir

Vector: mosquito > South, central, and West USA

High morality, tropics of Africa and South America ?

A
  • Babesia
  • EEE
  • VEE
  • SLE
  • tropics of African and SA > yellow fever
35
Q

What is used to treat microsporidia

A

Albendazole - microtubule inhibitor

Fumigillin (methionine aminopeptidase inhibitor)

36
Q

Pseudomonas is closely related to Enterobacteriaceae, what distinguishes it?

A

Polar flagella and it is an obligate aerobe.

Enterobactericeae have nonpolar flagella and are faculative anaerobes.

37
Q

HE agar

A

It contains two sugars, lactose and sucrose. Fermentation of either of the two results in a yellow color. Those that ferment none produce blue or green colonies.

If an organism is yellow on HE and pink on McConkey, you need other tests because you can’t determine if it ferments sucrose.

38
Q

21 yr old was treated with leukemia was treated with intensive course of cytotoxic drugs. She developed fever and shortness of breath. Chest xray shows a dense xray in her left lung. Under microscope the colonies contained hypahe which branced at acute angles with conidia in chains. What is the agent?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

What would you use to treat it?

Itraconazole

39
Q

A smear of a scraping from a lesion from a 28 year old woman contains budding yeast and pseudohypae. When suspended in plasma, buds elongate as germ tubes

A

Candida albicans

40
Q

ON culture, an organism presents hyphae, pseudohyphae, microconidia, chlamydospores, and budding yeast.

A

C. albicans

41
Q

A patient has a slow developing pneumonia. IN a stained smear of leukocytes, tiny intracellular yeast was seen

A

Histoplasma capsulatum.

42
Q

A landscaper develops slowly enlarging hard nodule on the outer surface of left forearm. Develops proximal to the first.

Elongate budding yeast which do not form germ tubes in serum.

A

Sporothrix schenckii.

43
Q

What would distinguish a Aspergillus from a Mucor?

A

Do a KOH mount.

Mucor will have wide hypahe that lack septa.

44
Q

Buzzword bronchoalveolar lavage. When in life is the infection most likely acquired?

A

P. jirovecii, Pneumocystis carinii.

Childhood.

45
Q

A patient has an erythematous lesion with a central clearing. What is the first test to do to rule out cutaneous anthrax?

A

Suspend the material in KOH

46
Q

An archeologist does work in the Northern Arizona desert. Appears to be several opaque lesions. Lung biopsy looks like a ball of smaller balls

A

Coccidiodes immitis

47
Q

Buzzword: India ink

-Meningitis

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

48
Q

A 3 year old has persistent oral Candida infection. What immune response is likely defective

A

T cells and cell mediated immunity.

49
Q

S. pneumoniae, H. influenza, N. meningitidis, C. neoformans all colonize the upper respiratory tract and can spread to the meninges. What is the essential virulence factor?

A

Polysaccharide capsule

50
Q

A worker cleans up tons of pigeon droppiongs. A fungus is cultured in the lungs. It grows as hypahe and forms conidia (tuberculate macrocondidia).

What is the organism?

A

Histoplasm capsulatum.

51
Q

Which virus causes Guillian Barre syndrome?

A

West Nile Virus (bird to mosquito transmission)

52
Q

OP Rhabid Arena Bunny Fighters

A

Stands for the different classes of negative strand RNA viruses

Orthomyxovirus

Paramyxovirus

Rhabdovirus

Arenavirus

Bunyavirus

Filovirus

53
Q

WHich viruses present with a maculopapular rash

A

Rubella

Measles

54
Q

What is the order of the rash in smallpox?

A 
Macules
Papules
Vescicles
Pustules
Scabs 
Scars
55
Q

Human Polyomaviruses

Human Polyoma virus JC and BK

A

Human Polyomaviruses are ubiquitous but cause illness only in the immunocompromised. JC and BK viruses
were named for patients from whom they were isolated.
Serological surveys indicate that 80-100% of the population has
been infected with these. After initial infection they persist in the body and can be re-activated by immunosuppression,
pregnancy, or old age.

Polyomaviruses inhibit cellular p53 and Rb by production of a single early protein which binds to both.
In experimental situations this protein can transform cells and was named “(large) T antigen” (T for transformation).

*Immunosuppression allows JCV to Cause Disease. The most serious consequence is
“Progressive multifocal
leukoencephalopathy (PML)”,
a progressive, ultimately fatal, demyelinating disease of persons with defects in cell-
mediated immunity. JCV infects and kills oligodendrocytes, which produce the myelin sheaths of CNS axons. Before
the AIDS epidemic PML was very rare.

56
Q

What is the immunogenic component of the vaccine being currently used for immunization against small pox?

A

An attenuated poxvirus of uncertain ancestry aka (COWPOX)

57
Q

Smallpox remains a source of bioterrorism because vaccination has been stopped. Resuming population vaccination is controversial because..

A

The vaccine can cause severe illness in the immunodeficient.

58
Q

HPV - nucleocapsid: genome (shape included)

A

HPV

Icosahedral
Circular double stranded DNA

59
Q

What distinguishes the different types of HPV?

A

The DNA sequence

60
Q

What feature of HPV is thought to determine the oncogenic potential of a HPV type?

A

The affinity of binding between viral early proteins and host cell growth regulatory proteins

61
Q

What distinguishes Classical/Sporadic CJD from new variant Creutzfeldt

A

vCJD occurs in young people in contrast to classic or sporadic CJD, which occurs in the elderly (mean age at death 28 vs
68) and has a more prolonged time course (14 vs. 5 months from diagnosis to death) and a different presentation
[psychiatric or sensory disturbances precede ataxia and dementia, rather than the reverse in elderly].

62
Q

A brain biopsy from infected patient with CJD. What to do to reliably inactivate it?

A

Incineration

-standard sterilizing regime in steam autoclave DOESN”T WORK! super hardy

63
Q

Prp is in a longer precursor and then cleaved which results in PrpC.

Where is PrP found?

A

On extracellular face of neuron plasma membranes

64
Q

A woman was evaluated for antibody titer to rubella

IgM = 1:4

IgG titer < 1:4

What does this mean

A

The presence of antibody is so low, this means that she has never been exposed to Rubella virus and should be actively immunized

65
Q

Which pair of agents is used to treat infections with Hepatitis C?

A

Interferon-alpha and ribavirin

66
Q

Large enveloped virions with prominent club shaped glycoproteins refers to

A

Coronavirus (SARS)

67
Q

What is the immunogenic component of the vaccine used to treat Yellow Fever

  • used to treat JEV
  • Tickborne encelphalitis
A

-YF - live

JEV-dead

Tickborne encephalitis: dead

68
Q

After infection with St. Louis encephalitis what is common outcome

A

Asymptomatic or subclinical infection

69
Q

Why are the encephalitis causing arboviruses such as Togaviruses and WNV identified by serology rather than isolation of virus

A

Because viremia is early and transient, usually gone by the time symptoms appear

70
Q

When a person infected with polio develops paralytic disease, how does the virus gain access to the central nervous system?

A

By spread through bloodstream from the intestinal epithelium.

71
Q

If a patient had paralytic polio, where would you expect to observe aggregates of virus particles?

A

Cytoplasm of lower motor neurons

72
Q

What is a primary function of the nucleocapsid?

A

Protect the genome from nucleases

73
Q

What is meant by viruses having different serotypes?

A

There is structural variation of the proteins at the viral surface

74
Q

What is the way to distinguish different kinds of malaria?

A

Morphological characteristics of the organisms in samples of infected blood

75
Q

Which protozoa result in acid fast oocysts in stool?

A

Cryptosporidium, Cyclospora, Isospora

76
Q

4 month year old GIrl has runny nose composed of clear fluid and X rays show her lungs are clear of infection.

A

RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolotis. Which is what this somehow indicates

Micro II (7 decks)

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