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Anatomy Exam 3 > Things to know > Flashcards

Things to know Flashcards

1
Q

Form a pelvic diaphragm through which genitourinary and digestive tracts open to the outside

A

Levator ani and coccygeus muscles

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2
Q

What vessels stem cranially from the vaginal artery

A

uterine artery which then supplies caudal vesicle artery to bladder with ureteral and urethral branches

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3
Q

What does the uterine artery join with

A

Uterine branch of the ovarian artery, this is why we must ligate this artery in an ovariohysterectomy

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4
Q

What vessels stem caudally from the vaginal artery

A

Middle rectal artery, which supplies branches to the rectum and vagina

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5
Q

What is the cranial branch of the prostatic artery

A

Artery of the ductus deferens, which gives off the caudal vesicle artery to the bladder with ureteral and urethral branches before continuing to ductus deferens

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6
Q

What is the caudal branch of the prostatic artery

A

Middle rectal artery, supplies rectum, prostate, and urethra

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7
Q

What are the three branches of the artery of the penis

A

Artery of the bulb of the penis, deep artery of the penis, dorsal artery of the penis

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8
Q

Are the arteries of the penis paired? Why or why not?

A

Yes, they are paired because it plays an important role in the mechanism of erections

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9
Q

What are the three parts of the bladder

A

Apex, body, and neck

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10
Q

How many ligaments are associated with the bladder

A

3, median ligament of the bladder and two lateral ligaments of the bladder

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11
Q

What structure is the remnant of the fetal urachus and umbilical arteries

A

Median ligament of the bladder

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12
Q

Which nerve innervates the urethral muscle

A

Pudendal nerve

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13
Q

How many parts compose the male urethra

A

2, pelvic part (within the pelvis) and penile part (within the penis

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14
Q

How many parts of the penis are there, and what are they?

A

3, a root, a body, and a glans

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15
Q

Which artery supplies the corpus cavernosum in the root of the penis?

A

Deep artery of the penis

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16
Q

Is the retractor penis muscle distinct from the external anal sphincter at the level of the anus

A

Both muscles go to distinct areas, but the retractor penis muscle does share fibers with the external anal sphincter in the anal area

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17
Q

Which artery supplies the bulb of the penis

A

Artery of the bulb

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18
Q

Which muscle, when contracted, helps control venous return from the penis and helps maintain penile tumescence (keeping blood in/out to create an erection)

A

Ischiourethralis muscle

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19
Q

What allows the penis to bend around when the male dismounts during mating, but is still attached

A

There is a region of the body of the penis at the very beginning of it that is compressed from side to side and wrapped by a thick tunic

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20
Q

How many parts of the glans penis are there

A

2, proximal bulbus glandis, distal pars longa glandis

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21
Q

How exactly is the glans penis supplied with blood

A

There is no arterial connection between the bulbus glandis and the pars longa glandis, but venous channels do drain the pars longa glandis into the bulbus glandis
Bulbus glandis: branches of the dorsal artery of the penis
Pars longa glandis: far branches of external pudendal artery

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22
Q

Which arteries branch off of the caudal gluteal artery

A

Iliolumbar, cranial gluteal, lateral caudal, and dorsal perineal arteries

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23
Q

Which artery and nerve supply the middle and deep gluteal muscles

A

Cranial gluteal artery and cranial gluteal nerve

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24
Q

What does the external iliac artery become

A

When it passes through the vascular lacuna, it becomes the femoral artery

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25
Q

What is the only branch from the external iliac artery

A

Deep femoral artery, branches off right before vascular lacuna and courses caudally

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26
Q

What are the branches of the deep femoral artery

A

External pudendal artery and caudal epigastric artery

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27
Q

What does the medial circumflex femoral artery supply

A

Adductor muscle, vastus medialis muscle, obturator muscles, hip joint capsule, (deep branch) and semimembranosus muscles (transverse branch)

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28
Q

What are the branches, in order, of the femoral artery

A

Superficial circumflex iliac artery, lateral circumflex femoral, proximal caudal femoral artery, saphenous artery, descending genicular artery, and middle and distal caudal femoral artery

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29
Q

Which vein is being punctured for venipuncture on the lateral side of the back leg

A

Cranial branch of the lateral saphenous vein

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30
Q

Disregarding the branches and starting with the aorta, what is the main artery called as it courses down the hindlimb

A

Aorta–>external iliac–>femoral–>popliteal–>cranial tibial–>dorsal pedal

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31
Q

Which nerves arise from the lumbosacral plexus

A

Cranial and caudal iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal, lateral cutaneous femoral, genitofemoral, obturator, femoral, pudendal, caudal cutaneous femoral, caudal gluteal, cranial gluteal, and sciatic

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32
Q

Which nerve supplies the branches that innervate the rectal/anal area and reproductive anatomy

A

Pudendal nerve

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33
Q

What is the only nerve to innervate the superficial gluteal

A

Caudal gluteal nerve

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34
Q

When the cranial branch of the saphenous artery reaches the metatarsus, what happens

A

It divides into three dorsal common digital arteries

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35
Q

When the caudal branch of the saphenous artery reaches the tarsus, what happens

A

It becomes the medial plantar artery, which will have three branches (plantar common digital arteries)

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36
Q

What is the autonomous zone of the genitofemoral nerve

A

Proximal part of the medial thigh from the penis/pelvic midline to roughly mid way down the thigh

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37
Q

What is the autonomous zone of the saphenous nerve

A

Medial aspect of the leg from the stifle to the tarsocrural joint (includes the stifle itself)

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38
Q

What is the autonomous zone of the fibular nerve

A

Dorsal aspect of the paw and digits all the way up to (across from) the tarsocrural joint, and the lateral aspect of the limb below the tarsocrural joint

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39
Q

What is the autonomous zone for the tibial nerve

A

Palmar aspect of the paw and digits up to the tarsocrural joint

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40
Q

What is the autonomous zone of the lateral cutaneous femoral nerve

A

Lateral aspect of the upper limb from the later lumbar/beginning sacral area of the spine to just about the stifle on the cranial thigh

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41
Q

What is the autonomous zone of the sciatic nerve

A

Caudal lateral aspect of the leg from roughly the stifle joint to just below the tarsocrural joint

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42
Q

What is the autonomous zone of the caudal cutaneous femoral nerve

A

Caudal aspect of the upper thigh from the lateral midline of the upper limb wrapping around to the the back of the thigh almost to the testicles/vulva area

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43
Q

Which ligament is destroyed during a neuter

A

Ligament of the tail of the epididymis

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44
Q

What exactly happens in a dog that is cryptorchid

A

Either the inguinal canal closed too early and testes did not have time to move through or the testes did not descend fast enough to get through the canal before it closes

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45
Q

In a cryptorchid, what is the difference between intrainguinal and intrabdominal

A

In intrabdominal, the testicle gets stuck at the deep ring of the inguinal canal. In intrainguinal, the testicle gets stuck within the inguinal canal

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46
Q

Which muscle gives rise to the cremaster muscle

A

It is a thin strip off of the internal abdominal oblique that goes to the testicles

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47
Q

Where does the deep inguinal ring sit

A

Sits on the edge of the internal abdominal oblique

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48
Q

What wraps around the testicle as it descends through the inguinal canal

A

It will be wrapped in peritoneum

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49
Q

What is the double layer of peritoneum around the testicle called

A

Vaginal tunic

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50
Q

Is the cremaster muscle inside or outside of the vaginal tunic

A

It is against the vaginal tunic, but outside the parietal peritoneum (outermost layer of vaginal tunic)

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51
Q

In the male, which structures are enveloped by the vaginal tunic

A

Testis, spermatic cord, external pudendal artery and vein, and genitofemoral nerve

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52
Q

What surrounds both the cremaster muscle and the structures within the vaginal tunic

A

Spermatic fascia

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53
Q

What is the type of innervation in the nerve plexus of the testicles

A

It is autonomic and sensory and contains postganglionic sympathetic axons

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54
Q

Within the vaginal tunic, is the ductus deferens in the same space as the testicular vessels and nerves

A

Not quite, the vessels and nerves are in a pocket called the mesorchium, and the ductus deferens is in a pocket called the mesoductus deferens

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55
Q

When performing a neuter, what ligament must you break in order to remove the testicle through the incision in the scrotum

A

Ligament of the tail of the epididymis

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56
Q

Which vessels make up the pampiniform plexus

A

It is only the testicular vein wrapped and coiled many times in a pyramid fashion above the testicle. The testicular artery is within this area, but it is not included in this plexus

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57
Q

What direction do spermatozoa flow in the epididymis

A

They flow from head, to body, to tail

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58
Q

Where does sperm mature

A

Within the epididymis

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59
Q

What structure in the male would be the round ligament of the uterus/ovarian ligament in the female

A

Ligament of the tail of the epididymis

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60
Q

Why does the testicle need to sit outside the body cavity

A

Sperm needs to be kept at a specific temperature that is slightly lower that the temperature within the body cavity

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61
Q

Why does the pampiniform plexus wind all around the testicular artery

A

Blood coming in through the testicular artery is too hot, but blood leaving through the testicular vein is the same temperature as the testicle. Having the artery smothered by the vein caused heat exchange between the two so the excess heat is taken back to the body and levels out before reaching the testicle

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62
Q

What exactly is the purpose of the cremaster muscle

A

It attaches to the spermatic cord and contracts when the testicle gets too cold to pull it closer to the body

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63
Q

What muscle within the testicle causes the scrotum itself to shrink up around the testicle when it gets cold

A

Tunica dartos

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64
Q

Which two muscles exist to increase the temperature of the testicle

A

Cremaster muscle and the tunica dartos

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65
Q

What two things work to decrease the temperature of the testicle

A

Pampiniform plexus and location outside the body

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66
Q

What is the difference between an open castration and a closed castration

A

An open castration opens the peritoneal cavity via the spermatic cord, a closed castration removes the testicles without slicing them open and thus does not open the peritoneal cavity

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67
Q

How many ties (to tie off before cutting) would you need to perform a closed castration

A

2, as we are cutting straight through scrotum and all

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68
Q

How many ties (to tie off before cutting) would you need to perform an open castration

A

4, we slice the scrotum open and need two ties for the mesorchium and two ties for the mesoductus deferens

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69
Q

Which type of castration is better on small animals and why

A

Open castration because a surgical sweet, in theory, should be sterile enough that the peritoneal cavity is not exposed to anything that would kill the dog, and patients are usually sent home on precautionary antibiotics anyway

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70
Q

Which type of castration would be better for a large/farm animal

A

Closed castration because these situations are usually more about quantity than quality, so to speak, and these animals cannot always be loaded up for surgery for a simple neuter. While bleeding is more of a risk with this type, it will only happen for a small percentage of these procedures

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71
Q

What is the difference in the way pigs are often castrated

A

They tend to use the pull method. The scrotum is opened and the cords are yanked so they snap and the testicle comes out. Bleeding is certainly a risk with this method as well, and it is far less commonly performed in cats

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72
Q

Besides bleeding, what is a major possible risk to using the pull castration method

A

Because of the way the ductus deferens runs from the epididymis to the prostate, yanking it can rip a ureter off the bladder

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73
Q

Which layer of the penis is closest to the urethra

A

Corpus spongiosum

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74
Q

Which layer of the penis is bilateral

A

Corpus cavernosum

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75
Q

What happens to the distal portion of the corpus cavernosum

A

It ossifies and becomes the os penis

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76
Q

What is the purpose of the tunica albuginea

A

It is a super thick layer that surrounds the layers of the penis so that the pressure is contained when the tissues swell with blood

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77
Q

Which part of the penis is free

A

Glans penis

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78
Q

Which artery supplies the corpus spongiosum

A

Artery of the bulb of the penis

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79
Q

Which artery supplies the corpus cavernosum

A

Deep artery of the penis

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80
Q

Which artery supplies the glans penis

A

Dorsal artery of the penis

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81
Q

How does blood flow from the aorta to the penis

A

Internal iliac artery –> internal pudendal artery –> artery of the penis (which will then split into the artery of the bulb of the penis, the deep artery of the penis, and the dorsal artery of the penis)

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82
Q

Which muscle covers the corpus spongiosum

A

The bulbospongiosus muscle

83
Q

Which muscle covers the corpus cavernosum

A

The ischiocavernosus muscle

84
Q

Is the retractor penis muscle smooth or striated

A

It is smooth muscle that runs the ventral length of the penis

85
Q

Which part of the penis is responsible for mating dogs being tied together end to end

A

The bulbus glandis within the glans penis

86
Q

Oh Oh Oh To Touch And Feel A(V) Girls Vagina, Ah Heaven

A

Cranial nerves in order: Olfactory (I), Optic (II), Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), Trigeminal (V), Abducens (VI), Facial (VII), Vestibulocochlear (VIII), Glossopharyngeal (IX), Vagus (X), Accessory (XI), and Hypoglossal (XII)

87
Q

What does special visceral afferent mean

A

These are fibers that go towards the CNS and are related to the gastrointestinal tract (smell, taste, etc.)

88
Q

What does special somatic afferent mean

A

These are fibers that go towards the CNS and are related to vision, hearing, and balance

89
Q

What does general somatic efferent mean

A

These are fibers that carry motor impulses to somatic skeletal muscles (those related to vision, hearing, and balance)

90
Q

What does general visceral efferent mean

A

These are fibers that carry signals to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands as part of the autonomic nervous system (innervates the things not under voluntary control)

91
Q

What does general somatic afferent mean

A

These are fibers that innervate the surface of the body and carry information back to the brain as far as sensing touch, temperature, and pain

92
Q

What does general visceral afferent mean

A

These are fibers that carry information such as distention and/or chemical conditions back to the brain from organ systems, blood vessels, etc.

93
Q

What does special visceral efferent meant

A

These are nerve fibers that carry signals to the pharyngeal arches

94
Q

Which cranial nerves pass through the cribriform foramina

A

Cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve)

95
Q

Which cranial nerves pass through the optic canal

A

Cranial nerve II (optic nerve)

96
Q

Which nerves pass through the orbital fissure

A

Cranial nerve III (trochlear nerve), ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve (CN V), cranial nerve VI (abducens nerve),

97
Q

Are there any cranial nerves that do not exit the skull

A

Cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) does not exit

98
Q

Which nerves exit through the tempano-occipital fissure

A

Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve), cranial nerve X (vagus nerve), and cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve)

99
Q

LR6 Do4 Rest3

A

Innervation in the eye:
Lateral rectus and Retractor bulbi are innervated by cranial nerve 6
Dorsal oblique is innervated by cranial nerve 4
All the rest of the eye muscles innervated by cranial nerve 3

100
Q

Generally, where do the nerves in the hind limb arise from

A

Lumbosacral plexus

101
Q

Which spinal cord segments give rise to the sciatic nerve

A

Branches from L6, L7, S1, and S2

102
Q

What muscle does the femoral nerve emerge from

A

Iliopsoas muscle

103
Q

Which two heads of the quadriceps muscle does the femoral nerve dive between

A

Vastus medialis and rectus femoris

104
Q

What three muscles does the femoral nerve innervate

A

Iliopsoas, vastus medialis, and rectus femoris

105
Q

Which nerve is responsible for the extension of the genual joint (thus allowing weight to be bared on the hind limb)

A

Femoral nerve

106
Q

Which nerve innervates the middle gluteal muscle, the deep gluteal muscle, and the tensor fascia lattae muscle

A

Cranial gluteal nerve

107
Q

Which nerve runs with the internal pudendal artery

A

Pudendal nerve

108
Q

What is the best area to approach from surgically if you need to access the caudal portion of the rectum or anal sacs

A

Ischiorectal fossa, it is behind the limb muscles, full of fat, and behind any opening into the pelvic or abdominal cavity

109
Q

Which nerve and artery run through the ischiorectal fossa

A

Pudendal nerve and internal pudendal artery

110
Q

What is the largest nerve in the body

A

Sciatic nerve

111
Q

Which nerve innervates the semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and biceps femoris muscles (caudal muscles of the thigh)

A

Sciatic nerve

112
Q

What are the two main branches of the sciatic nerve

A

Common fibular nerve and tibial nerve

113
Q

Which nerve innervates the craniolateral muscles of the crus

A

Common fibular nerve

114
Q

Which nerve innervates the caudal muscles of the crus

A

Tibial nerve

115
Q

Which nerve runs between the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle along with the popliteal artery

A

Tibial nerve

116
Q

Innervates flexors of the tarsocrural joint, some extensors of the genual joint, and extensors of the digital joints

A

Common fibular nerve

117
Q

Innervates flexors of the genual joint, extensors of the tarsocrural joint, and flexors of the digital joints

A

Tibial nerve

118
Q

What happens if the sciatic nerve is injured higher up on the limb

A

There will be no motor innervation to the entire limb below the genual joint because you have essentially cut off all function of the tibial and common fibular nerves

119
Q

Which two nerves innervate the cranial and caudal areas of the upper thigh

A

Lateral cutaneous femoral nerve (cranial/lateral thigh)

Caudal cutaneous femoral nerve (caudal thigh)

120
Q

Which nerve innervates the upper thigh medially

A

Genitofemoral nerve

121
Q

Which nerve innervates the lateral and caudal crus

A

Sciatic nerve

122
Q

Which nerve innervates the dorsal aspect of the hind paw

A

Common fibular nerve

123
Q

Which nerve innervates the plantar aspect of the hind paw

A

Tibial nerve

124
Q

Which branch off the aorta gives rise to the vessels of the pelvis and its associated viscera

A

Internal iliac

125
Q

Which branch off the aorta gives rise to the vessels of the hind limb

A

External iliac

126
Q

Which artery branches off in the area of the pelvic plexus

A

Prostatic/vaginal artery

127
Q

What is our first branch from the external iliac artery

A

Deep femoral

128
Q

Which artery branches off from the deep femoral artery and gives rise to the caudal epigastric arteries

A

Pudendoepigastric trunk

129
Q

After the pudendoepigastric trunk branches off, what does the deep femoral artery become

A

Medial circumflex femoral artery

130
Q

Which vessel runs in the same direction as the obturator nerve towards the caudal thigh

A

Medial circumflex femoral artery

131
Q

Which nerve passes through the obturator foramen

A

Obturator nerve

132
Q

Which nerve innervates the muscles that adduct the limb (medial thigh muscles)

A

Obturator nerve

133
Q

At what point does the external iliac artery become the femoral artery

A

After the deep femoral branches off and the external iliac passes through the vascular lacuna

134
Q

Which vessel dives into the quadriceps with the femoral nerve

A

Lateral circumflex femoral artery

135
Q

Which vessel supplies the sartorius muscle

A

Superficial circumflex iliac artery

136
Q

What does the femoral artery become after the distal caudal femoral artery splits off just behind the genual joint

A

Popliteal artery

137
Q

What does the popliteal artery become as it passes the head of the tibia

A

Cranial tibial artery

138
Q

What does the cranial tibial artery become after it passes the tarsocrural joint

A

Dorsal pedal artery

139
Q

What are the only unpaired veins on the hind limb

A

Medial saphenous and lateral saphenous

140
Q

What connects the cranial and caudal branches of the saphenous veins together (so two cranials tied together in the front and two caudals tied together in the back)

A

Each is connected by an anastomotic branch

141
Q

If you blow one of the saphenous veins, do you need to worry about certain areas not being drained properly

A

No. The medial and lateral saphenous veins both drain the plantar and palmar aspects of the paw due to the anastomoses between each of their cranial and caudal branches

142
Q

What is the beginning of the digestive tract

A

Oral cavity

143
Q

What are the boundaries of the oral cavity

A

Lips (rostral), cheeks (lateral), palate (dorsal), muscle between mandibles (ventral)

144
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the oral cavity

A

Oral cavity proper (inside closed teeth), oral vestibule (between closed teeth and inside of lips)

145
Q

What type of joint holds the teeth in the gums

A

Gomphosis joint

146
Q

How many roots can an individual tooth have

A

1-3 roots depending on the type of tooth

147
Q

From rostral to caudal, what are the four different types of teeth

A

Incisors, canines, pre-molars, molars

148
Q

What are the different surfaces of a tooth

A

Lingual (touches tongue), vestibular (touches cheeks), contact (touching tooth to either side), occlusal (where superior arcade touches inferior arcade)

149
Q

How many teeth does an adult dog have

A

42 teeth

150
Q

How many of each type of tooth do adult dogs have on one side of the mouth

A

3 incisors on top and bottom. 1 canine on top and bottom. 4 pre molars on top and bottom. 2 molars on top, 3 molars on bottom

151
Q

How many teeth do puppies have

A

28

152
Q

Which teeth are not the same in puppies as they are in dogs

A

Puppies only have 3 pre-molars on top and bottom, and they do not have any molars

153
Q

Which pre-molar is the one that puppies don’t have until adulthood

A

Pre-molar #1, they have deciduous versions of #2-4

154
Q

Excluding surgery and/or trauma, in what order would a dog naturally lose teeth

A

From front to back

155
Q

How many teeth does an adult cat have

A

30

156
Q

How many of each type of tooth does an adult cat have on each side

A

3 incisors on top and bottom, 1 canine on top and bottom, 3 pre-molars on top, 2 on bottom, 1 molar on top and bottom

157
Q

Do cats have pre-molar #1

A

Numbering starts from the back, so no. They have pre-molar #2-4 on top, and #3-4 on bottom

158
Q

How many teeth does a kitten have

A

26

159
Q

Are there any teeth that a cat has that a kitten doesn’t have

A

They have deciduous versions of all the same teeth except they do not have molars

160
Q

At what age will all the deciduous teeth be erupted in puppies

A

2 months old

161
Q

At what age will all adult teeth come in for dogs

A

7 months old

162
Q

How many roots do incisors have

A

1

163
Q

How many roots do canine teeth have

A

1 large root

164
Q

How many roots do pre-molars have in dogs on the upper and lower arcade

A

Top: 1 has 1 root, 2 and 3 have 2 roots, 4 has 3 roots
Bottom: 1 has 1 root, 2-4 have 2 roots

165
Q

How many roots do the molars have in dogs on the upper and lower arcade

A

Top: 1 and 2 have 3 roots
Bottom: 1 and 2 have 2 roots, 3 has 1 root

166
Q

Where does the parotid salivary gland drain

A

Empties into the oral vestibule adjacent to the 4th pre-molar on the top

167
Q

Where do the mandibular and monostomatic sublingual salivary gland drain

A

Open on papilla right behind the mandibular incisors to drain into the oral cavity proper

168
Q

Where does the zygomatic salivary gland drain

A

Has many openings that drain into the oral vestibule at the 2nd molar on top

169
Q

What are the three layers of the eyeball

A

Outer fibrous coat, middle vascular coat (uvea), inner nervous coat

170
Q

How is the optic nerve different from the optic disk

A

Optic disk is where the optic nerve actually attaches to the retina in a small circle

171
Q

Where is the aqueous humor

A

Anterior chamber between cornea and lens, posterior chamber between iris and lens

172
Q

Where is the vitreous humor/body

A

Jelly in the vitriol chamber behind lens

173
Q

Where is the aqueous humor produced

A

Ciliary bodies

174
Q

Where is aqueous humor drained

A

Pectinate ligament

175
Q

How does glaucoma happen

A

The angle of the pectinate ligament becomes too narrow and it cannot drain the aqueous humor. It builds up and increases pressure under the cornea

176
Q

What would a photon pass through on its way to the retina

A

Cornea–>aqueous humor—>pupil/lens—>vitreous humor—>retina

177
Q

What is responsible for eye shine and night vision

A

Tapetum lucitum, reflects photons

178
Q

What is the difference between palpebral conjunctiva and bulbar conjunctiva

A 
Palpebral= inside of eyelid
Bulbar= reflection after the fornix curves around
179
Q

What keeps tear fluid in the eye

A

Conjunctival sac when eyes are closed

180
Q

Is the third eyelid behind the superior lid or the inferior lid

A

Sits behind the inferior eyelid

181
Q

Describe the path of tear fluid from start to finish

A

Produced in lacrimal gland–> comes out into conjunctival sac–> drains into lacrimal puncta in the medial corner of each eyelid–> drains into lacrimal duct–> drains to lacrimal sac–> drains into nasolacrimal duct all the way to ventral nasal meatus–> opening of nasolacrimal duct

182
Q

What is the only eye muscle to originate rostrally

A

Ventral oblique

183
Q

What is the purpose of the trochlea (cartilage piece) above the eyeball

A

The dorsal oblique hooks into it so, when it contracts, it can rotate the eyeball laterally instead of just pulling it caudally

184
Q

What are the three divisions of the pharynx

A

Oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx

185
Q

Where do the palatine tonsils sit

A

Underneath the semilunar folds

186
Q

Where is the opening of the auditory tube into the middle ear

A

Within the nasopharynx

187
Q

Why does yawning help your ears pop

A

Auditory tube within the nasopharynx. Yawning releases the air in the tube so it can equalize and you have the same air pressure on both sides of them tympanic membrane

188
Q

What is the only laryngeal cartilage that has two parts

A

Arytenoid cartilage

189
Q

What anchors the laryngeal cartilages to the skull

A

Hyoid apparatus

190
Q

What is the only bone in the hyoid apparatus that isn’t paired and crosses the midline

A

Basihyoid bone

191
Q

What part of the laryngeal cartilage is attached to the vocal ligament/vocal cords

A

Arytenoid cartilage

192
Q

Depending on the action (eating or breathing) what does the epiglottis actually block

A

Breathing through the nose: rests on soft palate and blocks oral cavity
Eating: blocks access to trachea

193
Q

When swallowing, is the epiglottis actually moving at all

A

Not really, the geniohyoideus muscle pulls the rest of the larynx forward which, in effect, causes the epiglottis to cover the entrance to the trachea

194
Q

What are the two categories of head muscle

A

Muscles of facial expression and muscles of mastication

195
Q

How many muscles of mastication open the mouth

A

1

196
Q

How many muscles of mastication close the mouth

A

3

197
Q

Which cranial artery senses blood pressure using baroreceptors

A

Internal carotid with the carotid sinus

198
Q

As we go across the skull, what are all the arteries that make up the main arterial supply (no branches, just the main one)

A

Common carotid–> external carotid–> maxillary–> infraorbital

199
Q

What is the difference between a fissure and a foramen

A

Fissure: space between two bones
Foramen: hole in bone

200
Q

What is the largest cranial nerve on cross section

A

Trigeminal nerve (CN 5)

201
Q

Which nerve can be damaged by the buckle on a halter/halter style leash

A

Facial nerve (CN 7)

202
Q

Which cranial nerve is directly responsible for the involuntary part of swallowing

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN 9)

203
Q

What is the longest cranial nerve in the body

A

Vagus nerve (CN 10)

204
Q

Some Say Money Matters But My Brother Says Big Booties Matter More

A

How to remember which of the cranial nerves are motor and which are sensory
S= sensory
M= motor
B= both

Anatomy Exam 3 (2 decks)

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