Flashcards in Type Rating Stuff Deck (101):
What are the North and South limitations of the aircraft (due to the IRS)?
60 deg S, 73 deg N
How many degrees of nose wheel steering does the tiller give?
How many degrees of nose wheel steering do the rudder pedals give?
From which fuel tank does the APU normally take fuel?
How many overwing exits on each side does the 737-400 have?
What is the Kva rating of the generators on the aircraft?
What's the voltage of the TRUs?
How many electrical buses can the APU supply in flight?
What is the load limit for an engine driver generator?
When in flight does the TR3 disconnect relay open?
Glideslope capture of flight director or autopilot ILS
What voltage is the NiCad battery?
What's the normal operating PSI of the hydraulic systems?
Why does the B hydraulic system reservoir have a larger capacity than the A system reservoir?
It links with the standby system, if required.
During ground operations, how much fuel should be in the number one fuel tank to ensure proper cooling of the A hydraulic fluid when using the electric hydraulic pump?
1676lbs / 760kg
What are the conditions that will activate the hydraulic landing gear transfer unit?
After T/O, engine N2 falls below 56%, gear lever UP, gear not UP.
What are the conditions required for activation of the hydraulic standby system in flight?
What are the conditions required for activation of the hydraulic standby system on the ground?
Flaps extended, wheel speed greater than 60kts
What is the maximum permitted speed with the landing gear extended?
320kts / .82M
What is the maximum permitted speed to retract the landing gear?
What is the maximum permitted speed to extend the landing gear?
270kts / .82M
After landing, what conditions need to exist for the autobrake to operate?
Autobrake selector to required mode, right main gear spin up, thrust levers near idle.
Between which speeds on the take off roll will the autobrake not engage for an RTO?
In flight; if the gear is not down and the thrust levers are retarded to idle, what happens to the gear lights?
Red lights illuminate.
Which condition will cause the gear warning horn to sound (cannot be silenced)?
Flaps more than 15, gear not down, throttles in any position.
In which position should the landing gear lever be for manual gear extension?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the nose wheel steering?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the normal brakes?
How many packs can the APU power for take off, with engine bleeds off?
Up to 10,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?
One electrical system, one pack
Up to 17,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?
One electrical system OR one pack
Over 17,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?
One electrical system, NO pack
What is the maximum APU operating altitude?
Successful APU starts are assure upto what altitude?
APU fuel is normally supplied by which fuel tank, but can also be supplied by which tanks?
Tank 1, but can be supplied with left pump from centre tank or tank 2 with crossfeed.
What's the max APU EGT at startup?
What's the max continuous APU EGT?
To start the APU, what is the minimum voltage required from the battery?
Most pneumatic bleed valves on the a/c are _________ activated and _________ operated.
Electrically activated and pneumatically operated.
During the use of engine anti ice on the ground, in which position should the APU bleed valve be and why?
Closed, because APU bleed air could back pressure the engine 9th stage bleed, causing it to close and losing sufficient bleed pressure for engine anti ice.
Under which conditions does the DUAL BLEED light illuminate?
APU bleed valve open, engine bleed SWITCHES in open position, potential for engines to backpressure the APU
When is it acceptable to have the DUAL BLEED light on and what is the limitation?
During engine start; keep engine at idle power
The bleed trip off temperature sensor is in which position relative to the bleed air pre-cooler?
For engine start, which position should the engine bleed switches be in?
How many operating packs are required to keep the cabin altitude below 8000 ft at maximum certified ceiling?
Above what cabin differential pressure does the flow control valve open?
The pack valves are spring loaded to which position?
With a pack switch in AUTO position, aircraft in flight, flaps retracted, what will happen to the flow rate if the opposite pack goes off?
It will automatically switch to HIGH
Regarding the packs, when are the Ram air doors fully open?
On the ground, in flight with flaps extended, in flight when maximum cooling is required.
Roughly where in the cabin is the cabin temperature sensor?
Over row 3
A DUCT OVERHEAT warning illuminates when the air conditioning duct reaches what temperature?
When a duct overheat is sensed, what happens to the mix control valves?
They drive full cold
For the 737-400, with a temperature controller set at AUTO, what temperature will it try to maintain?
What is the maximum differential pressure for the aircraft?
What is the maximum differential pressure for take off and landing?
What cabin differential pressure will the aircraft try to maintain when at or below 28,000ft?
What cabin differential pressure will the aircraft try to maintain when above 28,000ft?
During taxi in, when does the main outflow valve move to full open?
N1 less than 50%
What is the normal rate of climb and descent of the cabin?
Where is the accessory section on each engine?
At the side
Which stages of the compressor are variable vane?
Is it permissible for the oil pressure to go into the amber range and when?
Yes, at low power
Is the oil temperature sensed before or after it is cooled?
When is the FLT position of the engine igniters used?
In-flight engine restarts
During the start procedure, when should you move the start lever from cutoff to idle?
N2 25% (minimum 20%)
At what % N2 should the starter cut out?
The number 2 engine thrust reverser is powered by which hydraulic system?
To which position does the thrust reverser isolation valve fail?
When does the 'REVERSER' light on the overhead panel illuminate?
When reverser is in motion. (If position disagrees for more than 12s, you get a master caution)
Which fuel tanks are normally refuelled first?
The fuel in which fuel tank is usually consumed first?
What are the capacities of each wing fuel tank?
What is the capacity of the centre fuel tank?
How are the fuel pumps cooled and lubricated?
By the fuel
How many pumps are there per each fuel tank?
Is it possible to transfer fuel between fuel tanks whilst in flight?
What is the maximum random fuel imbalance?
1000lbs / 453kg
The fuel pumps are AC or DC?
Which fuel pumps operate at higher pressure, centre of wing?
Centre (so that centre tank empties first)
The engine fuel shut off valves are DC powered from which bus?
Hot battery bus
If both centre tank fuel pumps fail, is the centre tank fuel useable?
When is the crossfeed valve light illuminated bright blue?
When the valve is in motion.
What is the maximum fuel temperature?
What is the minimum fuel temperature?
+3C above fuel freezing temperature or -45C, whichever is greater.
Does the aircraft have tail anti ice?
For engine anti ice, does the engine bleed switch need to be on?
If you select engine anti ice ON, which other engine related system must be switched on?
Specifically, which part of the aircraft does the wing anti ice heat?
Leading edge slats only.
How are the wing anti ice valves operated?
By an AC motor.
If the power is lost to a wing anti ice valve, in which position does it fail?
In the position that it failed.
Which of the cockpit windows are electrically heated?
L1, L2, L4, L5, R1, R2, R4, R5
Specifically, what does the ON light mean with regard to the window heat system?
The system is applying electrical power to heat the windows
If a heated window overheats, how long should you wait before resetting it?
For how long before take off should the window heat be switched on?
The engine and APU fire squibs are powered by which electrical bus?
Hot battery bus
The engine and APU fire detection systems are powered by which electrical bus?
Battery bus (battery must be on for it to work)
The wheel well fire detection system is powered by which electrical bus?
AC transfer bus 1
When you pull up an engine fire switch, what does it do?
- Arms squib
- Closes fuel valve at the tank
- Closes bleed air valve
- Closes thrust reverser isolation valve
- Closes hydraulic valve (eng pump)
- Trips gen. field and breaker
When you pull up the APU fire switch, what does it do?
- Arms squib
- Closes APU fuel shut off valve
- Closes APU bleed air valve
- Closes APU inlet door
- Trips gen. field and breaker
When moving the fire detection / protection test switch to FIRE / OVHT, is it normal to get a FAULT light illuminated?
For cargo hold protection, which of the two bottles discharges at a slow rate?