Type Rating Stuff Flashcards Preview

B737 > Type Rating Stuff > Flashcards

Flashcards in Type Rating Stuff Deck (101):
1

What are the North and South limitations of the aircraft (due to the IRS)?

60 deg S, 73 deg N

2

How many degrees of nose wheel steering does the tiller give?

78 degrees

3

How many degrees of nose wheel steering do the rudder pedals give?

7 degrees

4

From which fuel tank does the APU normally take fuel?

Tank 1

5

How many overwing exits on each side does the 737-400 have?

2

6

What is the Kva rating of the generators on the aircraft?

45Kva

7

What's the voltage of the TRUs?

28V

8

How many electrical buses can the APU supply in flight?

One

9

What is the load limit for an engine driver generator?

125 amps

10

When in flight does the TR3 disconnect relay open?

Glideslope capture of flight director or autopilot ILS

11

What voltage is the NiCad battery?

24V

12

What's the normal operating PSI of the hydraulic systems?

3000PSI

13

Why does the B hydraulic system reservoir have a larger capacity than the A system reservoir?

It links with the standby system, if required.

14

During ground operations, how much fuel should be in the number one fuel tank to ensure proper cooling of the A hydraulic fluid when using the electric hydraulic pump?

1676lbs / 760kg

15

What are the conditions that will activate the hydraulic landing gear transfer unit?

After T/O, engine N2 falls below 56%, gear lever UP, gear not UP.

16

What are the conditions required for activation of the hydraulic standby system in flight?

Flaps extended

17

What are the conditions required for activation of the hydraulic standby system on the ground?

Flaps extended, wheel speed greater than 60kts

18

What is the maximum permitted speed with the landing gear extended?

320kts / .82M

19

What is the maximum permitted speed to retract the landing gear?

235kts

20

What is the maximum permitted speed to extend the landing gear?

270kts / .82M

21

After landing, what conditions need to exist for the autobrake to operate?

Autobrake selector to required mode, right main gear spin up, thrust levers near idle.

22

Between which speeds on the take off roll will the autobrake not engage for an RTO?

60-90kts

23

In flight; if the gear is not down and the thrust levers are retarded to idle, what happens to the gear lights?

Red lights illuminate.

24

Which condition will cause the gear warning horn to sound (cannot be silenced)?

Flaps more than 15, gear not down, throttles in any position.

25

In which position should the landing gear lever be for manual gear extension?

OFF

26

Which hydraulic system normally powers the nose wheel steering?

A

27

Which hydraulic system normally powers the normal brakes?

B

28

How many packs can the APU power for take off, with engine bleeds off?

One

29

Up to 10,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?

One electrical system, one pack

30

Up to 17,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?

One electrical system OR one pack

31

Over 17,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?

One electrical system, NO pack

32

What is the maximum APU operating altitude?

FL350

33

Successful APU starts are assure upto what altitude?

25,000 ft

34

APU fuel is normally supplied by which fuel tank, but can also be supplied by which tanks?

Tank 1, but can be supplied with left pump from centre tank or tank 2 with crossfeed.

35

What's the max APU EGT at startup?

760C

36

What's the max continuous APU EGT?

710C

37

To start the APU, what is the minimum voltage required from the battery?

23V

38

Most pneumatic bleed valves on the a/c are _________ activated and _________ operated.

Electrically activated and pneumatically operated.

39

During the use of engine anti ice on the ground, in which position should the APU bleed valve be and why?

Closed, because APU bleed air could back pressure the engine 9th stage bleed, causing it to close and losing sufficient bleed pressure for engine anti ice.

40

Under which conditions does the DUAL BLEED light illuminate?

APU bleed valve open, engine bleed SWITCHES in open position, potential for engines to backpressure the APU

41

When is it acceptable to have the DUAL BLEED light on and what is the limitation?

During engine start; keep engine at idle power

42

The bleed trip off temperature sensor is in which position relative to the bleed air pre-cooler?

Downstream

43

For engine start, which position should the engine bleed switches be in?

OFF

44

How many operating packs are required to keep the cabin altitude below 8000 ft at maximum certified ceiling?

ONE

45

Above what cabin differential pressure does the flow control valve open?

2.5PSI

46

The pack valves are spring loaded to which position?

Closed

47

With a pack switch in AUTO position, aircraft in flight, flaps retracted, what will happen to the flow rate if the opposite pack goes off?

It will automatically switch to HIGH

48

Regarding the packs, when are the Ram air doors fully open?

On the ground, in flight with flaps extended, in flight when maximum cooling is required.

49

Roughly where in the cabin is the cabin temperature sensor?

Over row 3

50

A DUCT OVERHEAT warning illuminates when the air conditioning duct reaches what temperature?

88C

51

When a duct overheat is sensed, what happens to the mix control valves?

They drive full cold

52

For the 737-400, with a temperature controller set at AUTO, what temperature will it try to maintain?

21C

53

What is the maximum differential pressure for the aircraft?

8.65psid

54

What is the maximum differential pressure for take off and landing?

0.125psid

55

What cabin differential pressure will the aircraft try to maintain when at or below 28,000ft?

7.45psid

56

What cabin differential pressure will the aircraft try to maintain when above 28,000ft?

7.80psid

57

During taxi in, when does the main outflow valve move to full open?

N1 less than 50%

58

What is the normal rate of climb and descent of the cabin?

300fpm

59

Where is the accessory section on each engine?

At the side

60

Which stages of the compressor are variable vane?

First 4

61

Is it permissible for the oil pressure to go into the amber range and when?

Yes, at low power

62

Is the oil temperature sensed before or after it is cooled?

Before

63

When is the FLT position of the engine igniters used?

In-flight engine restarts

64

During the start procedure, when should you move the start lever from cutoff to idle?

N2 25% (minimum 20%)

65

At what % N2 should the starter cut out?

46% N2

66

The number 2 engine thrust reverser is powered by which hydraulic system?

B

67

To which position does the thrust reverser isolation valve fail?

Closed

68

When does the 'REVERSER' light on the overhead panel illuminate?

When reverser is in motion. (If position disagrees for more than 12s, you get a master caution)

69

Which fuel tanks are normally refuelled first?

Wings

70

The fuel in which fuel tank is usually consumed first?

Centre

71

What are the capacities of each wing fuel tank?

4555kgs

72

What is the capacity of the centre fuel tank?

7029kgs

73

How are the fuel pumps cooled and lubricated?

By the fuel

74

How many pumps are there per each fuel tank?

Two

75

Is it possible to transfer fuel between fuel tanks whilst in flight?

No

76

What is the maximum random fuel imbalance?

1000lbs / 453kg

77

The fuel pumps are AC or DC?

AC

78

Which fuel pumps operate at higher pressure, centre of wing?

Centre (so that centre tank empties first)

79

The engine fuel shut off valves are DC powered from which bus?

Hot battery bus

80

If both centre tank fuel pumps fail, is the centre tank fuel useable?

No

81

When is the crossfeed valve light illuminated bright blue?

When the valve is in motion.

82

What is the maximum fuel temperature?

+49C

83

What is the minimum fuel temperature?

+3C above fuel freezing temperature or -45C, whichever is greater.

84

Does the aircraft have tail anti ice?

No

85

For engine anti ice, does the engine bleed switch need to be on?

No

86

If you select engine anti ice ON, which other engine related system must be switched on?

Continuous ignition

87

Specifically, which part of the aircraft does the wing anti ice heat?

Leading edge slats only.

88

How are the wing anti ice valves operated?

By an AC motor.

89

If the power is lost to a wing anti ice valve, in which position does it fail?

In the position that it failed.

90

Which of the cockpit windows are electrically heated?

L1, L2, L4, L5, R1, R2, R4, R5

91

Specifically, what does the ON light mean with regard to the window heat system?

The system is applying electrical power to heat the windows

92

If a heated window overheats, how long should you wait before resetting it?

2-5 minutes

93

For how long before take off should the window heat be switched on?

10 minutes

94

The engine and APU fire squibs are powered by which electrical bus?

Hot battery bus

95

The engine and APU fire detection systems are powered by which electrical bus?

Battery bus (battery must be on for it to work)

96

The wheel well fire detection system is powered by which electrical bus?

AC transfer bus 1

97

When you pull up an engine fire switch, what does it do?

- Arms squib
- Closes fuel valve at the tank
- Closes bleed air valve
- Closes thrust reverser isolation valve
- Closes hydraulic valve (eng pump)
- Trips gen. field and breaker

98

When you pull up the APU fire switch, what does it do?

- Arms squib
- Closes APU fuel shut off valve
- Closes APU bleed air valve
- Closes APU inlet door
- Trips gen. field and breaker

99

When moving the fire detection / protection test switch to FIRE / OVHT, is it normal to get a FAULT light illuminated?

No

100

For cargo hold protection, which of the two bottles discharges at a slow rate?

Bottle 2

101

When would the A/P red light come on?

If the Horizontal Stabilizer is out of trim below 800 ft. when on a dual channel AP approach; or when ALT ACQ is inhibited during go-around (due to stabilizer out of trim on single channel g/a).