Unit 1 Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

How many chromosomes would be present in a mature gamete if the organism has a diploid chromosome compliment of 12?

A

6

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2
Q

How many chromatids would be present in a cell at Metaphase II?

A

12

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3
Q

Morgan’s experiments on the white mutation in Drosophilia indicated…

A

that the ‘exceptional progeny’ not showing crosscross inheritance arose from nondisjunction

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4
Q

T/F: Mendel’s principle of ind. assortment does not apply to genes that are close together on the same chromosome (cmsm).

A

True

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5
Q

T/F: In birds, the female is the heterogametic sex?

A

True

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6
Q

Where is mRNA translated into protein?

A

ribosomes

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7
Q

Enough enzyme activity present from a single functional allele

A

haplosufficient enzyme

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8
Q

“Nothing from nothing ever yet was born…”

A

Lecretius (50 BC)

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9
Q

the concept that a tiny, preformed organism was transmitted from generation to generation

A

preformationism

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10
Q

Theory of Epigenesis (late 18th-19th century)

A

C.F. Wolff and K.E. von Baer: tissues and organs appear during development that are not originally present int he embryo

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11
Q

When did Darwin develop his theory to address variation he saw in population?

A

1838…not published for 21 years. Voyage of the Beagle was 1831-36

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12
Q

Natural Selection Arguments

A
  1. Organisms Vary
  2. Variation is inherited
  3. All organisms produce more offspring than can possibly survive and breed
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13
Q

Mendel: unit inheritance

A

factors are discrete and particulate entities; they are not mixed or diluted during inheritance

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14
Q

Mendel: Principle of Segregation

A

the paired factors segregate (separate) from each other in formation of gametes

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15
Q

Mendel: Principle of Inheritance:

A

Parental factors segregate at random (2 independent 3:1 ratios for each trait in a dihybrid cross)

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16
Q

(~1880): Studies in early insect embryogenesis showed a population of cells that arose early in development and gave rise to the gametes. who?

A

August Wesmann

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17
Q

Special type of cell division occurs in germ cells…meiosis:

A

E. Van Beneden, T. Boveri (1880s-1900)

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18
Q

characteristic of autosomal dominant inheritance (in pedigree chart)

A

1) affected individuals in every generation (1/2)

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19
Q

Achondroplasia and pseudoachondroplasia…what characteristics?

A

short-limbed dwarfism

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20
Q

autosomal recessive inheritance traits:

A

1/4 of children affected, trait “skips” generations

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21
Q

T/F: autosomal recessive traits may be associated with consanguinity (inbreeding)

A

true

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22
Q

talk about CMSM theory of inheritance:

A

1902: Sutton-Boveri Hypothesis…mendelian factors-genes- are located on cmsms

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23
Q

difference between meiosis between males and females:

A

Oogenesis: a single meiotic division gives rise to a single oocyte
Spermatogenesis: a single division gives rise to 4 mature sperm

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24
Q

Stage of Meiosis where oocyte remains at prophase of 1st m division for 15 to 50 years:

A

Dictyotene stage

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25
When is 2nd meiotic division initiated for females?
after fertilization
26
in what species are males the heterogametic sex?
humans, fruitflies, mealworms
27
In drosophilia, XO = | and XXY =
male, female
28
In humans, what determines maleness?
Y cmsm...TDF...SRY which also encodes transcription factor
29
Typical X linked recessive pattern of inheritance:
males affected, disorder passed through female carriers
30
Symptoms of Hypophophatemia:
short stature, bow-legs, lowered phophate levels in the blood. This is X linked dom. males transmit to none of their sons and all of their daughters
31
term for males passing on trait to all males
holandric (TDF or SRY gene)
32
trait inherited as autosomal dom, but only one sex shows the triat (example is familial male precocious puberty)
sex limited trait
33
pattern baldness- dominant trait that is more prominent in males than in females:
sex influenced inheritance
34
If parents are heterozygous for an autosomal recessive disorder, what is the probability of having 2 normal and 2 affected children in a 4 child family?
27/128 | p^4+4p^3q+6p^2q^2+4pq^3+q^4 = 1
35
In 1902, who demonstrated that a human trait was transmitted according to Mendel's laws?
A. Garrod
36
Name trait: inherited pattern of 3:1 for affected families (autosomal recessive) Garrod-"disease due to a defect in enzymatic pathway", "inborn error in metabolism" - first suggested that genes can code for enzymes
alcaptonuria
37
phenotype of heterozygote can be distinguished from that of homozygote ie snapdragons
incomplete dominance
38
for an organism w/ a diploid cmsm compliment of 12, how many chromatids would be present in a cell at meiotic metaphase I?
24
39
Goal of 1st meiotic division:
segregate homologous copies of each cmsms
40
goal of 2nd meiotic division:
distributes the identical copies (sister chromatids) that originated from cmsms replication
41
Which of the following is true regarding sickle cell anemia screening done in the 1970s? I. The screening tests for a disease that afflicts roughly 1 in 6000 African-Americans. II. Due to insufficient educational followup, there was confusion, where some carriers mistakenly thought they had the disease. III. Screening can only be performed on potential parents; a prenatal test is not available. IV. Testing information was made available to employers and insurance companies, leading to denial of jobs and health insurance to some sickle cell carriers.
I. False; Frequency is 1/600 in U.S. populations; II. True; educational follow up was lacking; III. False; prenatal testing is available; IV. True; information did get out to insurers and employers.
42
Huntington Disease: I. Is inherited as an autosomal recessive. II. Was a disease gene mapped to human chromosome 4 in the 1980s, using molecular techniques. III. Can be effectively treated, now that the molecular basis of the disease has been identified. IV. Is classified as a late-onset genetic disorder, since the disease neurological phenotype is manifest only later in life
I. False; HD is an autosomal dominant II. True; this was one of the first human genes to be mapped to a chromo- some using molecular markers; III. False; a cure is still unavailable. IV. True; symptoms of HD start to appear over time.
43
protease inhibitor produced in liver; released into bloodstream. required to prevent tissue damage from released cellular proteases.
Alpha-1-antitryspin Gene (A-1-A)
44
released from WBCs during infections; must be inactivated by A-1-A
neutrophil elastase
45
sugar residues attached as a post translational modification, changing mobility
glycoprotein ie A1A
46
ABO blood groups exhibit this
codominance
47
2 copies of a particular allele will lead to death of homozygous class during embryogenesis ie yellow locus of mice...1:1 ratio of yellow/normal
lethal alleles. in this case, A^y allele is dominant for coat color phenotype, but recessive for the lethality phenotype
48
genetic heterogeneity example
albinism, which can lead to complimentation (mutations carried by parents found on different genes)
49
protein deficiency leads to phenocopy (mimicry due to environmental affect) of albinism
Kwashiorchor...symptoms go away with protein intake
50
the degree or severity that a given genotype exhibits its phenotype
variable expressivity ie anonychia, neurofibromatosis
51
some individuals of appropriate genotype go undetected in population
reduced or incomplete penetrance ie Marfan syndrome (extreme height, long fingers)
52
pleiotropy
numerous phenotypic effects caused by a single gene
53
if the gene has been isolated, then nucleic acid probes can be used to identify differences in gene structure
southern blots
54
mRNa levels (direct gene product) can be detected in tissues by nucleic acid probes
Northern blots
55
isolated gene can be expressed in vitro to produce protein antigens....antibodies raised against the recombinant proteins can be used to detect the encoded protein product
western blots
56
southern blotting process
1. restriction enzymes break DNA 2. frags separated by electrophoresis, and DNA is denatured 3. Fragments transferred and then probed with a single stranded piece of a gene...detected by base paireing
57
expression of lobe gene in different Drosophilia melogaster follows what pattern?
variable expressivity
58
one gene modifying the phenotypic expression of a nonallelic gene when both genes are present in the genome
epistasis
59
Dihybrid mods: gene action with 9:7 ratio
complimentary gene action ie x to y to z
60
15:1 ratio...flower shape in shepherd's purse
duplicate gene action (dominant allele at either A or B locus will get to phenotype Z) only aabb insufficient
61
epistasis where a dominant allele at the B locus will block phenotype Y , and a dom allele at A locus will lead to Z
dominant epistasis (12:3:1 ratio)
62
9:3:4 ratio signifies what?
recessive epistasis
63
a result of the failure of sister chromatids to segregate during meiosis II
nondisjunction
64
refuted by Pasteur's famous "swan flask" experiment
spontaneous generation
65
specialized chromosomal region where sister chromatids are connected
centromere
66
formed during prophase I of meiosis, it contains a tetrad
synaptonemal complex
67
T/F: Since the charge of the HbS protein differs from the HbA protein, HbS/HbA heterozygotes can also be detected by using the technique of protein electrophoresis.
true
68
T/F: was the process of meiosis, discovered by the Morgan laboratory in 1900, that convinced scientists oth importance of Mendel’s observations in peas.
False
69
Gregor Mendel: a) was educated at the University of Vienna; b) was an Augustinian monk; c) corresponded with important scientists in his field; d) all of the above; e) none of the above.
D all of the above
70
concept that linked behavior of chromosomes in meiosis to behavior of Mendelian factors
Sutton-Boveri Hypothesis
71
individual that brings genetic disorder to attention of clinician
proband
72
proposed by Weismann, on basis of observations made during insect embryogenesis
germline reductional division