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Flashcards in Unit 2 & 3 Deck (94)
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1
Q

What is classified information?

A

Official information that has been determined to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and is marked to indicate its classified status when in documentary form.

2
Q

What of type of material would cause exceptionally GRAVE DAMAGE to national security if disclosure is unauthorized?

A

Top Secret.

3
Q

Which type of classification decision involves incorporating new material into a document that is already classified?

A

Derivative.

4
Q

What markings are classified documents required to have?

A

(1) The overall classification of the document.
(2) The agency, office of origin, and date of the document.
(3) The office or source document that classified the information or “Classified By” line.
(4) For originally classified documents or material only, a “Reason:” for classification line.
(5) For derivatively classified documents or material only, a “Derived From:” line.
(6) Notebooks, binders, folders, etc., conspicuously mark such items containing classified documents or material with the highest classification of the material contained therein.
(7) Declassification instructions and any downgrading instructions that apply.

5
Q

You should never send what type of material through the BITS or the postal system?

A

Top Secret.

6
Q

How should you file FOUO material when building security is provided?

A

With other unclassified records in unlocked files or desks drawers.

7
Q

Due to the sensitive nature of FOUO information, how long should we properly manage FOUO records?

A

Until the information is no longer FOUO or is ready for disposal.

8
Q

How must you dispose of record copies of FOUO documents?

A

In accordance to the Federal Records Act and the DOD Component records management directives.

9
Q

When can a first party requester not receive information that is in his or her record that is located in a system of records?

A

When the information does not directly pertain to the first party requester.

10
Q

When can you release PA material to a third party?

A

When the subject agrees orally or in writing.

11
Q

When personal information is sent over e-mail within DOD, you must ensure what?

A

(1) There is an official need.
(2) All addressee(s) (including “cc” addressees) are authorized to receive it under the PA.
(3) It is protected from unauthorized disclosure, loss, or alteration.

12
Q

What is the Federal Register?

A

The official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of federal agencies and organizations, as well as executive orders and other presidential documents.

13
Q

Who must address privacy requirements during the development lifecycle of the information system?

A

Information system owners and developers.

14
Q

How can you give a PAS to a subject when you are collecting information from him or her for a system of records?

A

Orally or in writing.

15
Q

What are some examples of nonreleasable PII?

A

(1) Marital status.
(2) Number, name, and sex of dependents.
(3) Civilian educational degrees and major areas of study.
(4) School and year of graduation.
(5) Home of record.
(6) Home address and phone.
(7) Age and date of birth.
(8) Present or future assignments for overseas or for routinely deployable or sensitive units.
(9) Office, unit address or duty phone for overseas or routinely deployable or sensitive units.
(10) Race/ethnic origin.
(11) SSN.
(12) EDIPI (DOD Identification Number).

16
Q

Define a PII breach.

A

A loss of control, compromise, unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized acquisition, unauthorized access, or any similar term referring to situations where persons other than authorized users and for an other than authorized purpose have access or potential access to PII, whether physical or electronic.

17
Q

What is the FOIA exemption 7, and what type of records does it pertain to?

A

Investigative records – Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes; i.e., civil, criminal, or military law, including the implementation of executive orders or regulations issued pursuant to law.

18
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating all replies to FOIA requests?

A

FOIA manager.

19
Q

When is a FOIA request considered received?

A

When the FOIA office responsible for processing the request physically receives it and the requester states a willingness to pay fees set for the appropriate fee category, has paid any past FOIA debts (if applicable), and has reasonably described the requested records.

20
Q

What type of request can have multiple organizations review or coordinate on it?

A

Complex.

21
Q

How can you access the publication and forms official repository?

A

Via the Air Force e-Publishing Web

22
Q

What office checks for content accuracy, currency, and integrity of publications and forms and their compliance with publications and use of forms before publication approval?

A

Authoring OPR.

23
Q

Are extensions of instructions; provide additional guidance for performing tasks.

A

Manuals.

24
Q

Are used to extend or add material to higher-level publications.

A

Supplements.

25
Q

Are informal “how to” publications.

A

Pamphlets.

26
Q

Are informational and only suggest guidance.

A

Nondirective publications.

27
Q

Are posters or graphic illustrations.

A

Visual Aids.

28
Q

What are the three types of non-prescribed forms?

A

Office, on-time, and test forms.

29
Q

What are the two types of publications and forms review the OPR performs?

A

Two-year and special reviews.

30
Q

Which form is used when performing a review on a publication?

A

AF Form 673.

31
Q

What is the purpose of the ICR program?

A

To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collection and reporting requirements. It establishes procedures for information collecting and reporting of internal, public, and interagency requirements.

32
Q

Which section of the product announcements deals with forms?

A

Part two.

33
Q

Whose responsibility is it to implement the records management program in compliance of Air Force instruction?

A

Commanders and staff agency chiefs.

34
Q

Unauthorized destruction of official records is punishable by what?

A

Up to three years confinement and a fine.

35
Q

What the three types of records?

A

Federal, state, and personal.

36
Q

Which type of record relates to an individual’s private affairs and not related to government business?

A

Personal.

37
Q

Which office develops policy and guidance necessary to implement the Air Force Records Management Program?

A

SAF/A6PP.

38
Q

Liaison between unit and base records manager.

A

Functional area records manager.

39
Q

Responsible for legal custody of office records.

A

Chief of office of record.

40
Q

Manages the programs within his or her command.

A

Command records manager.

41
Q

Manages the local staging area.

A

Base records manager.

42
Q

Maintains the office file plan.

A

Records custodian.

43
Q

What are the next steps in the production process of the office Records Management Program after determining the records to maintain?

A

Building the file plan, approving the file plan, and labeling and filing the records.

44
Q

What type of records should never be entered into the Air Force Records and Information Management System?

A

Sensitive, Classified, or PA material.

45
Q

Which type of filing arrangement is associated with date sequence?

A

Chronological.

46
Q

On the file plan, how many disposition authorities (table and rule) are allowed per record series?

A

Only one.

47
Q

What information does the file folder label display?

A

The item number and series title, table and rule number, cutoff instructions, office of record and disposition instructions.

48
Q

How should documents be assembled for filing?

A

With the latest action on the top.

49
Q

What are the steps taken when you respond to an official records search request?

A

Acknowledge receipt of the search request, search, acknowledge whether you had negative or positive results, and complete and close out the request by giving information about your search. If you locate any records that qualify, be sure to follow positive records preservation instructions according to the AF RDS in AFRIMS.

50
Q

What is the purpose of the DD Form 2861?

A

It gives the reader a reference “trail” to follow when a document is located somewhere else.

51
Q

Why is the charge-out records activity important while maintaining a files plan?

A

The RC must use some type of charge-out and follow-up system to ensure that borrowed documents are returned to the files.

52
Q

Describe some responsibilities that are involved with the records disposition program?

A

The disposition process involves:

(1) Scheduling all records for retention or periodic destruction.
(2) Preserving records that reflect the organization, functions, policies, decisions, procedures, and essential transactions of the Air Force.
(3) Preserving records that protect the legal and financial rights of the government and of individuals that Air Force actions directly affect.
(4) Offering records of enduring value for permanent preservation in the national archives.
(5) Promptly and systematically disposing of records of temporary value.
(6) Setting up safeguards against illegal removal, loss, or destruction of records.

53
Q

What are two conditions that could warrant early retirement of records?

A

(1) Destruction of records by hostile or potentially hostile action is an ever-present danger and the records are considered valuable enough to warrant preservation until expiration of the normal retention period.
(2) Records take up space urgently needed for military purposes and are not referred to frequently enough to warrant a longer local retention unless they are of sufficient importance in protecting the legal or financial rights of individuals or the Air Force.

54
Q

When a disposition schedule changes what, if anything, should you do to inactive records?

A

Bring inactive and cutoff records under the new standard.

55
Q

What does cutoff describe?

A

A designated point in time or the completion of a specific action or event after which personnel can no longer place records in the active file.

56
Q

What is the SF135 used for?

A

To identify records for retirement to a federal records center or staging area or to transfer records to another organization.

57
Q

When transferring e-records, what are the three types of files/media the NARA accepts?

A

Magnetic tape, CD-ROM and FTP.

58
Q

Define electronic records.

A

Data in a form that can be read and processed by a computer and satisfy the legal definition of a record.

59
Q

People involved in managing electronic records on a shared network.

A

Records custodian, Chief of office of record, and Base records manager.

60
Q

What serves as the foundation for managing all electronic records?

A

The plan structure created in AFRIMS.

61
Q

What function does the staging area serve for the records program?

A

This facility receives, maintains, and services inactive records for all activities and tenant units on or near the base.

62
Q

What is the minimum files-to-space ration acceptable in the staging area?

A

Two cubic feet of files to each square foot of floor space.

63
Q

For security purposes File plan titles should never contain what?

A

File plan title will not contain sensitive, classified, FOUO, or PA information.

64
Q

Which program sets the framework for developing Air Force manpower standards?

A

The Air Force Management Engineering program.

65
Q

What are two tools that are used to help manage manpower resources?

A

The UMD and the UPMR.

66
Q

Which manpower tool lists available unit positions and the people that occupy them?

A

The UPMR.

67
Q

What does a PEC describe?

A

The mission by the identification of the organizational entities and resources needed to perform the assigned mission.

68
Q

Air Force Manpower Standards are based on what?

A

The concept that similar work center operations are efficient and standardized throughout the Air Force or MAJCOM.

69
Q

What environments are manpower standards primarily developed to support?

A

Peacetime.

70
Q

What is the primary strategy for the Air Force OJT program?

A

The strategy is to develop, manage, and execute training programs by providing realistic and flexible training producing a highly skilled and motivated force capable of carrying out all tasks and functions in support of the mission.

71
Q

After a trainee has been assigned to the work center, when must a supervisor perform an initial evaluation of the trainee’s qualifications?

A

within 60 days of the trainee’s assignment (120 days for the Air Reserve component).

72
Q

What are the three components of the Air Force OJT program?

A

Job knowledge, job proficiency and job experience.

73
Q

What part of the training plan identifies all the day-to day requirements required to be performed in a duty position?

A

The MTL.

74
Q

Which upgrade training examination is a closed book examiniation?

A

The CDC course examination.

75
Q

What is the rank requirement for obtaining the Craftsman, 7-skill level?

A

SSgt.

76
Q

What does the term “local area” mean as it refers to Airmen starting or ending leave?

A

The place of residence from which the member commutes to the duty station on a daily basis.

77
Q

Who is the approval authority for leave that is granted for members to resolve emergencies but do not have enough accrued leave?

A

Unit commander.

78
Q

Who oversees the convalescent leave program?

A

The Air Force Surgeon General.

79
Q

What is the formal communication between a rater and the ratee that gives job performance expectations?

A

The ACA.

80
Q

Which Web-based tool allows commanders access to pending and projected evaluations?

A

The BLSDM.

81
Q

What publication displays all enlisted study references authorized for enlisted promotion testing?

A

The EPRRC.

82
Q

When awarded a BTZ promotion, a member can wear the SrA rank how long prior to reaching the fully qualified phase point?

A

Six months.

83
Q

Within how many months of their ETS do FTAs receive SRP consideration?

A

15 months.

84
Q

What is the term used for the maximum number of years in conjunction with rank Airmen may serve before required to separate or retire?

A

HYT.

85
Q

What are the SRB zones?

A

(1) Zone A is between 17 months and 6 years of service.
(2) Zone B is between 6 and 10 years of service.
(3) Zone C is between 10 and 14 years of service.
(4) Zone E is between 18 and 20 years of service.

86
Q

What is the maximum amount a time that a member can remain on a control roster?

A

Six months.

87
Q

What type of action, if given, is mandatorily filed in an officer’s UIF?

A

LOR.

88
Q

In the BLSDM, commanders can delegate access to members who are within what unit symbol or code?

A

PAS.

89
Q

Which system contains a member’s career brief which can be accessed by commanders and their delegates?

A

The AMS.

90
Q

Which program is part of the INTRO Program?

A

The Sponsorship Program.

91
Q

What is the purpose of the Personnel Reliability Program?

A

To ensure personnel who perform duties involving nuclear weapons meet the reliability standards through screening, selecting, and continuous evaluation of personnel who handle and control the launch of or access to nuclear weapons or nuclear weapons systems.

92
Q

What are the three categories of Air Force Specialty Code award programs?

A

(1) Airmen—Air Force Outstanding Administration Airman.
(2) NCOs—Air Force Outstanding Administration Noncommissioned Officer.
(3) SNCOs—Air Force Outstanding Administration Senior Noncommissioned Officer.

93
Q

A Décor 6 is automatically produced for which three events?

A

(1) PCS/A.
(2) Retirement.
(3) Separation.

94
Q

What Web-based application should a member use to apply for retirement?

A

The Virtual Military Personnel Flight application.