Unit 3 Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

T/F: Methylation leads to change in chromatine structure (histone mods), more condensed state is transcriptionally inactive (genes are “off”)

A

true

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2
Q

shown by Avery to convert R type penumococcus to pathogenic S strain

A

transforming principle

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3
Q

processing complex important in silencing gene activity at the translational level

A

RISC

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4
Q

agent capable of causing breaks in cmsms

A

clastogen

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5
Q

associated with epigenetic modifications observed during genomic imprinting

A

DNA methylation

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6
Q

indicated that DNA might be self-complimentary

A

Chargaff’s rule

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7
Q

bacteria with additional nutritional requirements relative to wild type

A

auxotroph

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8
Q

integration event associated with lysogeny

A

prophage

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9
Q

causes effective sterility in watermelons and bananas

A

triploidy

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10
Q

used by Hershey and Chase to demonstrate that DNA was the genetic material

A

^32P

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11
Q

involved in mutation observed in Fragile X Syndrome

A

trinucleotide repeats

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12
Q

a form of genetic exchange in bacteria that involves the pickup of naked DNA by competent cells

A

transformation

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13
Q

which stretch of DNA would be most stable?

A

one with all T/C

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14
Q

In the fruitfly Drosophilia, how many Barr bodies would be present in an XXY female?

A

zero

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15
Q

this was originally characterized in nematodes and associated with control of particular genes

A

RNA induced gene silencing

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16
Q

T/F: At least 1/2 of all human genes are estimated to be microRNA targets

A

False, 1/3

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17
Q

What mediates RNA interference?

A

micro-RNAs

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18
Q

Pre-miRNAs undergo active transport from nucleus to cytoplasm where they are recognized by enzyme ‘____’, which reduces the pre-miRNA into a short-lived miRNA:miRNA duplex which is released and picked up by RISC.

A

Dicer

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19
Q

T/F: miRNA:miRNA duplex which is released and picked up by RISC.

A

T

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20
Q

Additions or losses of parts of the genome: on fertilization, the zygotes from this event will have a 2n+1 (trisomic) or 2n-1 (monosomic) chromosome complement

A

aneuploidy

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21
Q

45, X

A

Turner Syndrome

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22
Q

47; XXY

A

Klinefelter syndrome

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23
Q

47, XYY

A

Double Y syndrome (prison)

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24
Q

47, XXX

A

Triplo-X (Trisomy X) syndrome

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25
T/F: As the number of X chromosomes increases (e.g. 48, XXX; 49, XXXX) phenotypic problems increase
true
26
human autosomal aneuploidy is worse than sex cmsm aneuploidy?
true
27
T/F: all autosomal monosomies lead to inviability?
true
28
47, 21+
Down Syndrome
29
breaks and fusions which occur in nonhomologous chromosomes but do not affect gene expression.
reciprocal translocation
30
T/F: alternate segregation will produce balanced gametes, while adjacent segregation causes gene duplications and difficiencies in gametes
T
31
in a recip trans heterozygote, long arms of 2 acrocentrics joined together forms...
Robertsonian translocation
32
this cmsm is a combo of longer 9 cmsm and shorter 22 cmsm, and is seen in almost all cases of chronic myelogenous luekemia
Philadelphia cmsm (enzyme inhibitor developed to treat this cancer)
33
genetic complementation can be used to select for hybride cells in ___ medium
HAT (in hybrid cells, human cmsms are lost)
34
a strand break is introduced in the paired chromatids strand invasion occurs, with subsequent base-pairing of complementary strands ligation (new DNA synthesis) and branch migration occurs with the formation of a heteroduplex region This describes?
Holliday Model for Recombination
35
[A]=[T] and [C]=[G]
Chargaff's rules
36
associated with amplification of a trinucleotide repeat in DNA
Fragile X syndrome
37
Triticale is a useful agriculteral example
amphidiploid
38
proven in 1958 through use of CsCl density centrifugation
semiconservative DNA rep
39
a somatic mutational event observed in chronic myelogenous leukemia
reiprocal transolcation
40
plasmid that has acquired a part of the bacterial cmsm
F' factor
41
combines cmsm sets from different species
allopolyploidy
42
DNA picked up by a virus in one cell can be transferred to another cell when that virus infects it
transduction
43
exchange of DNA btwn a donor and a recipient cell connected by means of hairlike structures, the pili
conjugation
44
a bacteriophage adsorbs to a host bacteria in a liquid growth mediium. Before lysis, the infected cell is added to a suspension of cells and then plated on an agar plate to form a lawn. How many plaques are expected to result from this infection event?
1
45
T/F: heterozygosity for an inversion cmsm will result in a reduction in recombination frequency for genes located in the vicinity of the inversion
True
46
centromere not included in the inversion; also produces acentric and dicentric chromosomes.
peracentric inversion
47
centromere is included in the inversion; recombinant products have centromeres but still carry duplications and deletions.
pericentric inversion
48
. How many chromosomes would be found in somatic cells of an amphidiploid allohexaploid derived from three plants, one with N = 6, N= 8; N = 12?
52
49
In humans, Hunter Syndrome is a sex-linked recessive trait that shows complete penetrance. Two phenotypically normal parents produce a phenotypically normal daughter, a son with Hunter Syndrome, and a daughter with Hunter Syndrome. No other symptoms are evident. The origin of the affected daughter most likely resulted from: a) nondisjunction during meiosis I in the father; b) nondisjunction during meiosis I in the mother; c) nondisjunction during meiosis II in the father; d) nondisjunction during meiosis II in the mother; e) nondisjunction during meiosis in BOTH parents.
D
50
Which of the following are true? a) mutations causing a change in phenotype occur rarely; b) different genes mutate at different rates; c) disruption of gene function through mutation occurs at higher frequency than restoration of function through mutation; d) all of the above; e) none of the above.
D
51
an organism with wild-type growth requirements; will be able to grow on minimal medium
prototroph
52
T/F: in replica plating experiments, resistant cells are due to random mutation in original population, NOT physiological selection
true
53
T/F: bacterial chromosome not involved in F- to F+ conversion... conversion to prototroph (a- to a+) is a low frequency event…
True
54
Does Hfr transfer donor status to recipient cells?
no
55
What is the evidence that both F factor and bacterial chromosome are circular?
If both are circles, a single x-over integrates the entire F factor
56
when the F' factor replicates, it passes the bacterial gene AND the F factor genes to recipient cell...
sexduction
57
a genetic factor capable of integrating into the bacterial chromosome
episome (F factor)
58
gene transfer mediated by a virus
transduction
59
during this cycle, virus binds and injects genome, then replicates genome, then produces phage proteins, then packages phage genome and lysis host cell
lytic life cycle
60
phage capable of integration into host cell genome
lysogenic response...damage to host cell DNA will cause virus to "bail out" and enter lytic cytle
61
transfer of genetic material due to integration of a lysogenic phage into the host genome… e.g. lambda bacteriophage
specialized transduction
62
phage classification: kill the host…will always undergo a lytic infection cycle
virulent phage
63
cell capable of picking up DNA
competant cell
64
Capable of moving information within and between genomes…
trasposable elements
65
Euk cmsms is composed of ________?
1/3 DNA and 2/3 protein (1/3 histone and 1/3 non-histone)
66
T/F: DNA was transforming principle with mice tests
true (Hershey-Chase experiment in 1952 confirmed)
67
used to demonstrate that replication does proceed bidirectionally
autoradiography
68
substrates of DNA rep
primer strand with free 3' OH group and deoxynucleotide trisphosphate
69
products of DNA rep
extended chain and pyrophosphate
70
Requirements for DNA polymerase:
primer with free 3' OH group, dNTPs, and template strand
71
helicase/SSB protein bind at ?
rep fork
72
major replication enzyme in E. coli
DNA Pol 3
73
transposon that uses an RNA intermediate
retrotransposon
74
______ in microorganisms (e.g. plasmids) can be used to propagate that DNA within individual cells...
Autonomously replicating genetic elements
75
what are the properties of restriction endonucleases?
have a specific recognition sequence (e.g 4-6 bp) many enzymes have palindromic recognition sites… DNA cut with these enzymes is broken within the strand (endonuclease) some of the enzymes leave a single strand overhang (‘sticky end’)
76
what are the important properties of plasmids?
origin of replication restriction sites to introduce DNA means of selection for introducing plasmid into bacterial cell
77
Vectors that are hybrids between plasmids and lambda phage can replicate in a cell like a plasmid or be packaged like a virus they can carry larger DNA inserts than plasmids
cosmids