Unit 3 - GI Lecture 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What can cause hyperplastic/neoplastic lesions?

A

parapoxvirus infection and papillomavirus infection

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2
Q

What specifically does parapoxvirus cause?

A

bovine papular stomatitis and Orf (contagious ecthyma, sore mouth)

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3
Q

What does papillomavirus infection cause in the oral cavity?

A

viral induced oral papillomas

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4
Q

What species are commonly affected by parapoxvirus infection?

A

sheep, goats

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5
Q

What age is typically affected by parapoxvirus infection?

A

generally young animals

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6
Q

What clinical signs are associated with parapoxvirus infection?

A

pustular, crusting and proliferative lesions on the non-woolled/non-haired areas of the skin and occasionally in the mouth and esophagus

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7
Q

True or False: Parapoxvirus infection is not contagious

A

FALSE

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8
Q

What species are commonly affected with viral papillomas?

A

dogs and cattle

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9
Q

What age is typically affected with viral papillomas?

A

generally young animals

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10
Q

What clinical signs are associated with papillomavirus infection?

A

single to multiple cauliflower-like masses on the lips and gums

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11
Q

What is the outcome of papillomavirus infection?

A

spontaneously recover following the development of immunity

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12
Q

What are the differentials for oral mass-like lesions?

A

inflammatory, hyperplasia, neoplasia

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13
Q

How does inflammation lead to an oral-mass like lesion?

A

mass due to an influx of inflammatory cells and the production of granulation tissue or fibrosis

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14
Q

What is oral hyperplasoa often secondary to?

A

periodontal disease or malocclusion, certain drigs, genetic, viral induced

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15
Q

What benign neoplasms are commonly found in the oral cavity?

A

peripheral odontogenic fibroma and epulides

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16
Q

What malignant neoplasias are commonly found in the oral cavity?

A

squamous cell carcinoma, fibrosarcoma, malignant melanoma, acanthomatous ameloblastoma

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17
Q

What clinical signs are associated with oral masses?

A

facial swelling, excessive salivation, anorexia, weight loss, dysphagia, halitosis, and masses

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18
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

difficulty in swallowing

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19
Q

How can puncture wounds lead to inflammatory masses?

A

puncture wounds cause a deep seeded bacterial infection which leads to an inflammatory mass

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20
Q

What signs are associated with infectious inflammatory lesions?

A

fever, inflammatory leukogram

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21
Q

What are some examples of oral masses due to hypersensitivity reactions?

A

canine and feline oral eosinophilic granulomas

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22
Q

What is wooden tongue caused by?

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

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23
Q

What does Actinobacillus lignieresii cause?

A

pyogranulomatous to granulomatous inflammation

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24
Q

What are the causes of focal to multifocal gingival hyperplasia?

A

chronic irritation or viral infection

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25
What are the causes of diffuse gingival hyperplasia?
drug administration or inherited
26
What is the prognosis if an animal has a peripheral odontogenic fibroma?
good - they are present on the gingiva and are easily excised by surgical excision
27
What are some gross indicators that an oral mass is more likely benign?
well-demarcated, surface not ulcerated, underlying bone non soft/lytic, adjacent teeth are not loose/absent
28
What oral masses are common in cats?
squamous cell carcinomas
29
What are the common sites of oral masses in cats?
tongue and gingiva
30
What are the common oral masses in dogs?
squamous cell carcinoma, dibrosarcoma, acanthomatous ameloblastoma, malignant melanoma
31
The oral and pharyngeal mucosa is the ___ most common site of malignant tumors in the dog?
4th
32
What are the common sites of canine and feline oral squamous cell carcinomas?
tonsils (dogs), gingiva, lips, tongue
33
Squamous cell carcinomas in the tonsils of the dog are extra nasty, nasty, or so-so?
extra nasty
34
What is the behavior of squamous cell carcinomas in the tonsils of dogs?
they are locally invasive and metastasize early and often
35
Squamous cell carcinomas in the tongues of dogs and cats are extra nasty, nasty, or so-so?
nasty
36
What is the behavior of squamous cell carcinomas in the tongues of dogs and cats?
locally invasive, frequently recur, regional lymph node metastasis is common (in the dog only)
37
Squamous cell carcinomas in the gingiva of the dog and cat are extra nasty, nasty, or so-so?
so-so
38
What is the behavior of squamous cell carcinomas in the gingiva of cats and dogs?
locally invasive, often invades bone, difficult to completely excise, frequent local recurrence (metastasis ranges from 5-10% in dogs, 13-28% in cats)
39
What gross indicators that an oral mass may be malignant?
poorly-demarcated, surface is ulcerated, underlying bone is soft/lytic, adjacent teeth are loose/abscent
40
What is the most common oral malignancy in dogs?
malignant melanomas
41
What are the common sites for malignant melanoma in dogs?
gingiva and lips - may not be black
42
What is the bilogical behavior of canine oral malignant melanomas?
locally invasive, frequently recur, may invade bone, and metastasis is common
43
What are the common sites for oral fibrosarcoma?
maxilla and mandible of large, purebred dogs
44
What is the biological beavior of oral fibrosarcomas?
locally invasive, frequently recur, often invades bone, metastasis is relatively uncommon
45
What is the origin of acanthomatous ameloblastoma?
odontogenic epithelium
46
What are the common sites of acanthomatus ameloblastomas?
macilla and mandible
47
What is the biologic behavior of acanthomatous ameloblastomas?
locally invasive, will infiltrate into bone, not reported to metastasize
48
What is the prognosis for most oral malignancies?
poor
49
What are the classes of diseases of the esophagus?
congenital/developmental obstructive/traumatic erosive/ulcerative, exudative lesions mass lesions
50
What can cause erosive/ulcerative, exudative lesions?
viral and reflux esophagitis
51
What can cause mass lesions in the esophagus?
inflammation, hyperplasia, neoplasia
52
What is megaesophagus?
abnormal dilation of esophagus due to a lack of normal contraction
53
What clinical signs are associated with megaesophagus?
post-prandial regurgitation
54
What are the two types of megaesophagus?
congenital and acquired
55
What are the causes of congenital megaesophagus?
genetic or persistent right aortic arch
56
What breeds are predisposed to genetic congenital megaesophagus?
Great danes, Irish setters, Newfoundlands, German Shepards, Shar pei, Labrador retrievers, Siamese cats, Thoroughbred colts
57
What causes genetic congenital megaesophagus in wire-haired fox terriers?
autosomal recessive traits
58
What causes genetic congential megaesophagus in miniature schnauzers?
autosomal dominant traits
59
What is likely the cause of genetic congenital megaesophagus?
incomplete nerve development in the esophagus
60
What is acquired megaesophagus?
neuromuscular disease leading to weakness of the esophageal musculature
61
What are the types of acquired megaesophagus?
primary idiopathic acquired and secondary acquired megaesophagus
62
What does secondary acquired megaesophagus result from?
another disease causing neuromuscular weakness
63
What other diseases can cause secondary acquired megaesophagus?
Myasthenia gravis, hypoadrenocorticism, polymyositis, polyradiculoneuritis, lead poisoning, systemic lupus, erthematosus, dysautonomia idiopathic
64
What is the important sequela to all types of megaesophagus?
aspiration pneumonia
65
Is vomiting an active or passive process?
active
66
Is regurgitation an active or passive process?
passive
67
What does megaesiphagus lead to?
post-prandial regurgitation
68
What is choke?
obstruction or impaction of the esophagus
69
What is choke due to?
ingestion of large, inadequately chewed food or masses of fibrous ingesta
70
What may choke lead to?
pressure necrosiis and ulceration of the esophageal mucosa
71
What can ingestion of sharp objects lead to?
penetrations which cause a periesophageal infection which may follow the facial planes to the mediastinum thus causing pleuritis
72
What viruses cause viral esophagitis in cattle?
mucosal disease (BVD), Malignant Cattarrhal Fever (MCF). Rhinderpest
73
Where are lesions localized due to mucosal disease (BVD) in cattle?
muzzle, oral cavity, esophagus, rumen, abomaasum, intestine, colon
74
Where lesions localized due to Malignant Catarrhal fever in cattle?
muzzle, oral cavity, esophagus, rumen, abomaasum, intestine, colon
75
Where are lesions localized due to Rhinderpest in cattle?
oral cavity, esophagus, abomasum, intestine, colon
76
What is reflux esophagitits?
reflux of gastric acid, pepsin, and bile salts onto the stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus can lead to ulceration
77
What may reflux esophagitis be associated with?
chronic vomiting or a hiatal hernia
78
What may reflux esophagitis lead to?
erosive/ulcerative esophagitis with eventual stricture
79
What is the pathogenesis of a Spirocerca lupi infection?
1. K-9 ingests L3 2. Larvae penetrate the gastic mucosa and migrate to the thoracic aorta 3. larvae migrate from the aorta to the esophagus 4. mature into adults and invoke the development of esophageal fibroplasia/granulomas
80
What are the consequences of Spirocerca lupi aortic migration?
aortic scarring leading to aneurysms
81
What are the consequences of Spirocerca lupi causing esopheal fibroplasia/granuloma?
neoplastic transformation to fibrosarcoma or osteosarcoma
82
What are the clinical signs associated with esophageal fibroplasia/granuloma?
regurgitation, vomiting, decreased food intake, weight loss, emaciation
83
What are the common diseases of the forestomachs?
traumatic reticuloperitonitis, grain overload, bloat, and rumenitis
84
What is Traumatic reticuloperitonitis also known as?
hardware disease
85
What is traumatic reticuloperitonitis caused by?
perforation of the reticulum by a metallic foreign body
86
What does localized release of the reticulum contents lead to?
abscessation/adhesions
87
What does extensive release of reticulum contents lead to?
peritonitis
88
What does migration of the non-sterile object into the thoracic cavity lead to?
pleuritis/pericarditis
89
What can precipitate traumatic reticuloperitonitis?
increased abdominal pressure in late pregnancy or at parturition
90
What clinical signs are associated with traumatic reticuloperitonitis?
1. sudden drop in milk production 2. Depression, loss of appetitie, and weight loss 3. Stretched head and neck 4. Reluctance to walk, arched back and tucked up abdomen 5. Mild rumen bloat 6. Audible grunt in early stages 7. Elevated temperature
91
What is grain overload also known as?
rumen acidosis
92
What is the amount of a feed required to produce grain overload dependent on?
the type of grain
93
How are the cereal grains ranked in their propensity to cause grain overload?
wheat > barley > corn > oats > sorghum
94
What is the pathogenesis of rumen acidosis?
1. Ingest excessive amounts of readily fermentable carbohydrates 2. Bacterial fermentation 3. Increased production of acids 4. Ruminal pHd drops to below 5 5. Gram negative flora and protozoa die 6. Rapid proliferation of gram-positive, lactic acid producing bacteria 7. rumen pH 4.5-4 8a. rumen atonoy 8b. systemic dehydration 8c. systemic acidosis 8d. cardiovascular collapse, shock, and death
95
What gross lesions are associated with grain overload?
abundant grain and fluid in the rumen
96
How do you diagnose grain overload?
check pH
97
What histological features are seen with grain overload?
vacuolar degeneration of epithelium with focal microabscesses
98
At necropsy how do you diagnose grain overload?
histopath, wet mounts, and gram stain
99
What are the sequella to grain overload?
bacterial/mycotic rumenitis or hepatic necrobacillosis