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Flashcards in USCG BTM Deck (183)
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0
Q

What is jurisdiction?

A

The government’s power to exercise legal authority over its persons, vessels, and territories

1
Q

What is authority?

A

The government’s legal power to act

2
Q

What authority does 14 U.S.C. 89 (a) give the Coast Guard?

A

The Coast Guard may make searches, examinations, arrests, seizures, inquiries, and inspections upon the high seas and waters which the U.S. has jurisdiction

3
Q

How can 14 U.S.C. 89 (a) be explained to the boating public?

A

The Coast Guard is authorized by 14 U.S.C. 89 to board any vessel subject to the jurisdiction or to the operation of any law of the United States, on the high seas and waters which the U.S. has jurisdiction, at any time, day or night, for the prevention, detection, and suppression of violations of the laws of the United States.

4
Q

What are the boarding team members scope of responsibilities?

A
  1. Reflect credit onto the Coast Guard by the manner in which they conduct boardings.
  2. Be responsive to the public for education of boating safety and legal requirements.
  3. Assist the boarding officer as necessary.
5
Q

What are the jurisdictional limitations (jurisdictional triangle)?

A
  1. Substantive law (law that prohibits certain action or requires affirmative conduct).
  2. Vessel status/flag
  3. Location
6
Q

What is required for boardings of U.S. vessels in foreign territorial waters?

A

Coastal nation permission

7
Q

Foreign vessels temporarily using waters subject to U.S. jurisdiction are ___ from U.S. numbering and safety carriage requirements.

A

exempt

8
Q

Which vessels are not subject to U.S. jurisdiction?

A

Foreign government-owned non-commercial vessels, and foreign naval or military vessels

9
Q

Do units and personnel have a “duty to retreat” to avoid law enforcement situations?

A

No, however, retreat is an alternative and may be the most reasonable decision, depending upon the circumstances.

10
Q

What is non-deadly force?

A

Any force other than deadly force.

11
Q

What are the situations in which non-deadly force may be used?

A
  1. Individual self-defense
  2. To compel compliance with an order the Coast Guard has authority to issue
  3. To prevent a federal crime, or where authorized, a serious state or foreign crime for which the Coast Guard has authority to act on behalf of that state or foreign government
  4. To affect a lawful arrest or prevent an escape when there is probable cause that the suspect committed a federal crime (or non-federal crime if lawfully acting under non-federal authority).
  5. To prevent the theft of, intentional damage to, or destruction of property (including information) that the Coast Guard has authority to protect.
12
Q

What is the Use of Force Policy?

A

Only the force reasonably necessary under the circumstances may be used. Force shall not be used where assigned duties can be discharged without it. Excessive force may never be used.

13
Q

Are BTMs authorized to fire warning shots?

A

NO

14
Q

Name the 3 types of self defense and their definitions.

A
  1. Individual: defending oneself or other persons from imminent danger
  2. Unit: defending a particular unit of US military forces or law enforcement agencies
  3. National: defense of U.S., U.S. forces, and, in certain circumstances, U.S. persons and their property, and/or U.S. commercial assets from a hostile act or demonstration of hostile intent
15
Q

What chapter in the MLEM is Use of Force Policy found?

A

Chapter 4

16
Q

What are the 4 types of subjects?

A
  1. Passive compliant: follows the officer’s task direction and verbal commands; will not harm the officer
  2. Passive resistor: does not follow the officer’s request or verbal directions but offers no physical resistance to the officer’s attempt to gain control
  3. Active resistor: subject does not follow the officer’s request or verbal directions, offers physical resistance that prevents the officer of gaining control
  4. Active aggressor: does not follow the officer’s requests or verbal directions, attempts to harm the officer
17
Q

What is the use of force continuum?

A
  1. Officer presence
  2. Verbal commands
  3. Control techniques
  4. Aggressive response techniques
  5. Intermediate weapons
  6. Deadly force
18
Q

What is officer presence?

A

Appearance, demeanor, verbal and non-verbal communication that create an atmosphere of compliance

19
Q

Why was the Use of Force Continuum created?

A

To show the different levels of force authorized when receiving certain types of resistance; the subject’s actions primarily determine the appropriate level of force that can be used in a specific situation.

20
Q

What are some factors that must be evaluated when moving up or down the UOF Continuum?

A
  1. Physical size and capabilities of the law enforcement team member compared to the subject
  2. Number of subjects
  3. The physical condition of both the member and the subject
  4. The environmental conditions.
21
Q

Which levels of the UOF Continuum are designed for controlling passive subjects?

A

Levels 1, 2, and 3

22
Q

Which levels of the UOF Continuum are designed for controlling active subjects?

A

Levels 4, 5, and 6

23
Q

Which level of the UOF Continuum is always used with level 3 and higher?

A

Level 2: verbal commands

24
Q

What are some situations in which drawing your weapon is recommended?

A
  1. When seeking known weapons or unaccounted-for subjects during an EISS
  2. When an aggressive subject has a visible weapon
  3. Whenever you feel threatened with deadly force
  4. When the potential for a deadly-force situation arises
25
Q

What are verbal commands?

A

Verbal commands are in the form of task direction with consequences aimed at the subject

26
Q

What are control techniques?

A

Techniques or actions with a low probability of causing connective tissue damage, lacerations to the skin, or broken bones

27
Q

What are the examples of control techniques we are allowed to use?

A

Escorts, transport wrist-lock, handcuffs, and pressure points

28
Q

What pressure points do we use?

A
  1. Mandibular Angle: under ear lobe
  2. Infra-orbital: under the nose
  3. Hypoglossal: under the chin
  4. Jugular notch: chest
  5. C-clamp: infra-orbital plus mandibular angle
29
Q

What are the rules for using pressure points?

A
  1. Immediate and intense pressure (100%)
  2. Loud verbal commands
  3. Release pressure when hands are up and compliance gained, do not move hand
30
Q

What are aggressive response techniques?

A

Techniques or actions that are likely to result in connective tissue damage, lacerations to the skin, or broken bones. This includes damage or irritation to the eyes, mouth, and mucus membranes

31
Q

What are examples of aggressive response techniques we are allowed to use?

A

Pepper spray, punches, kicks, stuns, takedowns

32
Q

What are intermediate weapons?

A

Techniques or actions with a high probability of causing connective tissue damage, lacerations to the skin, or broken bones

33
Q

What are examples of intermediate weapons we are allowed to use?

A

Expandable baton, non-lethal munitions

34
Q

What is the definition of deadly force?

A

Any technique or force that is likely to cause death and serious physical injury

35
Q

What is serious physical injury?

A

Physical injury to the body that results in: unconsciousness; protracted and obvious disfigurement; or protracted loss or impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental faculty

36
Q

List the situations when deadly force may be authorized

A
  1. Individual self-defense
  2. Effecting a lawful arrest or preventing an escape
  3. Protection of property
  4. Protection of hazardous materials or deadly weapons
  5. Deadly force in vessel on vessel situations
  6. Deadly force and airspace security
37
Q

What are the two levels of force most commonly used while conducting boardings?

A

Officer presence and verbal commands

38
Q

What is L.E.A.P.S.?

A
Listen
Empathize
Ask questions
Paraphrase
Summarize
39
Q

__(1)__ communication is the most important factor in communication. The majority of messages are transmitted by __(2)__.

A

Non-verbal

body language

40
Q

What is S.A.F.E.R. and what is it for?

A

To determine when to move up the Use of Force Continuum
Safety/security - Situation threatens you or others
Attack - If you or others are physically attacked
Flight - Subject will not follow requests of verbal task direction or physically moves to avoid officer
Excessive reps - Repeated requests or tasking over and over
Revised priorities - Other events demand action (discover contraband, fight erupts, etc.)

41
Q

What is T.A.C.K.?

A

Thorough - Convey the full meaning of the message
Acceptable - Socially acceptable to the audience
Clear - No acronyms, CG jargon, slang, etc.
KISS - Keep the message short and simple

42
Q

Describe individual self defense

A

The act of defending oneself or other persons by using force

43
Q

What tool do we use to support the use of force policy?

A

Deadly Force Triangle

44
Q

What is the deadly force triangle?

A

Weapon
Opportunity
Subject’s actions

45
Q

What are the parts of the 2 prong test (opportunity)?

A

The subject had unrestricted access to the weapon

You or others are within the maximum effective range of the weapon

46
Q

What is unrestricted access to a weapon?

A

Exists when there is nothing to stop the subject from getting to the weapon.

47
Q

What is maximum effective range?

A

The maximum distance at which a weapon may be expected to be effective and achieve the desired effect.

48
Q

What level of force is drawing your weapon considered?

A

Level 1

49
Q

When are you no longer authorized to use deadly force?

A

When the subject has discontinued the action that prompted you to use deadly force initially

50
Q

What is an ISS (Initial Safety Sweep)?

A

Quick and limited sweep of a vessel to check for sea worthiness and any safety hazards.
Must be done on every boarding.

51
Q

What is an EISS (Extended Initial Safety Sweep)?

A

A more focused sweep of a vessel when:

  1. There are known and unaccounted for weapons on board
  2. There are unaccounted for persons
  3. There are known safety hazards
52
Q

What does the 4th amendment provide?

A

The right of the people to be secure against unreasonable searches and seizures, and no warrants shall issue but upon probable cause

53
Q

What is probable cause?

A

The level of suspicion which would cause a reasonable and prudent person, given the overall circumstances, to believe a crime has been committed

54
Q

What is the definition of a search?

A

Intrusion or entry by an agent of the government on a quest for evidence into an area where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy

55
Q

What are the 2 types of spaces on a vessel?

A

Common spaces and private spaces

56
Q

What is a private space?

A

A space where a person has or likely had a reasonable expectation of privacy

57
Q

What is a common space?

A

A space in which no person aboard the vessel has a reasonable expectation of privacy

58
Q

What is the 2-pronged test for determining privacy?

A

Is there an expectation of privacy by a person in the place where he/she controls
AND
Is that expectation reasonable?

59
Q

What is reasonable suspicion?

A

The belief by a reasonable and prudent person based on articulable facts that something has happened; for example, criminal activity is afoot or a particular condition exists

60
Q

What is a plain view discovery?

A

The rule of evidence that permits a law enforcement officer who is lawfully present in an area to seize an item that is readily apparent as evidence

61
Q

2 elements of the Plain View doctrine

A
  1. The officer must be legally present in that space where the objects are found.
  2. It must be readily apparent that the items are evidence (admissible in court)
62
Q

What is a vessel safety inspection?

A

Systematic process used to ensure compliance with governmental regulations

63
Q

Is suspicion needed to conduct a vessel safety sweep?

A

No, because inspections are inherently reasonable

64
Q

Vessel safety sweeps are (5):

A

Limited in scope
Not searches for evidence of criminal violations
Important to ensure public safety
Serve an important public interest
Involve lesser expectations of privacy than searches for evidence of criminal activity

65
Q

Definition of a frisk search

A

Crushing and passing of the hands over the outer clothing of a person in search of weapons, when an officer suspects an individual may have a weapon that poses a threat to the boarding team or others

66
Q

Legal requirements to conduct a frisk search

A

You must have reasonable suspicion that a person may have a weapon that could endanger the officer or others

67
Q

Definition of a search incident to arrest (SIA)

A

Detailed “crush and feel” of an arrestee’s person and a thorough search of the outer clothing

68
Q

Purpose of a SIA

A

Ensure safety of the arresting officer and boarding party

69
Q

Coast Guard’s policy regarding SIAs

A

Should be conducted concurrently with the lawful arrest.

Should be repeated after the transfer of custody from one law enforcement unit to another.

70
Q

What are the requirements of an SIA?

A

The arrest must have been legal and search must be conducted as soon as possible after arrest

71
Q

What is the object of an SIA?

A

Weapons
Evidence
Means of escape

72
Q

What is evidence?

A

Something that is admissible in courts; anything, including testimony, documents, and tangible objects that tend to prove or disprove a fact in issue

73
Q

What is the chain of custody?

A

Custodial history of seized property, from the time it is seized until it is presented in court

74
Q

What does the acronym PWCS stand for?

A

Ports, waterways, and coastal securities

75
Q

What does 14 USC 2 say?

A

The Coast Guard shall enforce or assist in the enforcement of all applicable federal laws on, under, and over the high seas and waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United States

76
Q

What are the phases of a boarding?

A
  1. Pre-boarding
  2. Introduction
  3. ISS
  4. Boarding activities
  5. Disembarkment
  6. Post-boarding brief
77
Q

What is asylum?

A

Specific legal status granted by authorities to persons requesting protection from persecution or torture, who meet the definition of a refugee under U.S. law. Persons may apply for asylum only if they are physically present in the U.S., or at a port of entry

78
Q

How often do you think you may encounter hazardous situations during a boarding?

A

You will always encounter a situation that can be hazardous to you on every boarding

79
Q

What is the three-step process for handling hazardous situations?

A
  1. Identify: you must identify that there is a possible or definite hazard
  2. Communicate: you must communicate with your team, the master (if safe), and crew
  3. Secure or avoid: secure the hazard; if practical, have the crew/master rectify the hazard or completely avoid the hazard
80
Q

What is intrinsically safe?

A

Equipment and wiring that are incapable of releasing sufficient electrical energy under normal or abnormal conditions to cause the ignition of a specific hazardous atmospheric mixture in its most easily ignited concentration

81
Q

How do you know a piece of equipment is intrinsically safe?

A

Marked with a green dot

82
Q

What is the GasAlert Quatro?

A

4 gas analyzer

83
Q

In what conditions does the Quatro’s alarm sound?

A
  1. Oxygen is below 19.5% and above 22%
  2. Hydrogen sulfide limits are exceeded
  3. Carbon monoxide limits are exceeded
  4. Detects 10% of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)
84
Q

What is the EEBD policy?

A

Each boarding team member shall carry the Coast Guard standard emergency escape respirator during boardings in which they may enter enclosed spaces…

85
Q

What is the significance of an explosive atmosphere?

A

“Every combustible chemical has an upper and lower limit at which its vapors may ignite…
…boarding personnel shall not enter a space where the material’s LEL exceeds 10%”

86
Q

What kind of respirators shall boarding teams wear in which there are suspected respiratory biohazards?

A

N95/N100

87
Q

What is a GasAlert

A

.

88
Q

What are the 3 classes of intrinsically safe equipment?

A

Class I: Flammable gases or vapors
Class II: Combustible dust
Class III: Easily ignitible fibers or flyings

89
Q

How is hazardous material shipped as cargo identified?

A

Markings
Placards
Labels

90
Q

How do I know what and where hazmat is located on a ship?

A

Dangerous Cargo Manifest (bridge)

91
Q

What are confined spaces?

A

Large enough to allow a person to enter and perform work
Spaces not designed for continuous human occupancy
Limited or restricted means of entry and exit
Limited means of ventilation

92
Q

What are some examples of confined spaces?

A
Cargo tanks or holds
Pump rooms
Storage lockers
Tanks
Double bottom/sides
Voids, Forepeak
Crawl spaces
93
Q

What is an enclosed space?

A

Any space, other than a confined space, that is enclosed by bulkheads and possibly overheads

94
Q

What are some examples of enclosed spaces?

A

Cargo holds
Tanks
Quarters
Machinery and boiler spaces

95
Q

What are some hazardous characteristics of confined and enclosed spaces?

A

Contains or has the potential to contain hazardous atmosphere
Contains materials that has the potential for engulfing an entrant
The internal configuration that could trap or asphyxiate the entrant
Contains any other safety or health hazard

96
Q

What is the Confined and Enclosed Space policy?

A

“Spaces classified as confined or enclosed spaces shall be visually inspected and tested by a competent person to determine the atmosphere’s oxygen content and other potential hazards prior to initial entry…”

97
Q

In regard to the Confined and Enclosed Space policy, who is considered to be a “competent person”?

A

Certified industrial hygienist
Marine chemist
Gas-free engineer
Competent person

98
Q

Identify a custodial situation:

A

Custodial situation depends upon whether a reasonable innocent person in the subject’s position would feel a restraint on his/her freedom of movement to such an extent that is approaches a formal arrest

99
Q

What is the Fluid Shock Wave Principle?

A

Maximizes the kinetic energy that is transferred to the target area. This is done by driving the weapon, used for striking, through the target area (body). All active countermeasures use this principle.

100
Q

What subjects do we use Active Counter Measures (ACM) on?

A

Active resistor or aggressor

101
Q

What is a Sympathetic Response?

A

Similar effect the strike has on areas of the body that were not targeted

102
Q

Front Jab

A

Stop forward momentum of an approaching subject, create distance between subject and officer, set-up for another technique
Target area: chin, chest, shoulder area
Striking: palm/heel of hand

103
Q

Straight Punch

A

Target area: upper torso (meaty portion of chest)

Striking: forearm

104
Q

Brachial Stun

A

Target: brachial nerve at base of neck
Striking: palm/heel of hand, inner forearm, outer forearm

105
Q

Suprascapular Stun:

A

Target: located at junction where the traps meet the neck
Striking: use hammer fist straight down

106
Q

Elbow Strike:

A

Used when subject is bent over or trying to get up off the deck
Target: meaty portions of back, avoiding head, neck, and spine areas

107
Q

Knee Strikes

A

From the escort position

108
Q

Side Angle Kick

A

.

109
Q

Superficial Peroneal Kick

A

Used when officer is in inside position

Target: where the ankle meets leg (just above knot in shoelaces)

110
Q

Straight arm bar takedowns

A

Gain control by forcing subject into the prone position

111
Q

Modified takedown

A

Any way possible

112
Q

2-person takedown

A

.

113
Q

Closed baton

A

Stances: interview, ready, loaded
Keep finger over end
Strikes: chest area only

114
Q

Open baton

A

Stances: ready, loaded
Strikes: forearm strike, backhand cutting strike, leg strike, evasion/redirect, evasion leg strike

115
Q

Handcuffing

A

Cuff, adjust/double lock, check the immediate area

Prone: cuff, thumb, drop, step

116
Q

LE Belt Gear

A
  1. CG Personal Defense Weapon (PDW) - Sig P229 .40 cal
  2. Minimum of two 12 round magazines
  3. Expandable baton
  4. OC Spray
  5. Handcuffs & Key
  6. Flashlight
  7. Personal Radiation Device (PRD)
    Other equipment: PFD, body armor, secondary light source, keepers, holster, personal EPIRB, holster, magazine pouches, light ring, Atmospheric Monitoring Device
117
Q

Body Armor

A

Level IIIA; full front, side, and back protection between the top of the sternum to 2 fingers above the waist, neutral or positive buoyancy

118
Q

Holster

A

“Duty Holster” or “drop thigh holster;” retention features include thumb break or rolling hood style strap

119
Q

Handcuffs

A

Steel, chain-linked construction, 2-3 inks, capable of being double-locked, with a nickel, blued, or stainless steel finish

120
Q

Chemical Irritants

A

Oleoresin Capsicum (OC); no less than 5% OC concentration, no more than 10% OC concentration. NOT exceed 500,000 Scoville Heat Units (SHUs) or exceed 18% capsacinoids. It shall have a water-based carrier, be non-flammable, non-toxic, and produce a straight stream delivery (not fog)

121
Q

What are the 4 “S”s of OC usage?

A

Shake
Shout
Spray
Shuffle

122
Q

What is the effective distance for spraying?

A

Between 4 and 12 feet

123
Q

Expandable Baton

A

Only intermediate weapon authorized to be carried on the equipment belt. Steel shaft that is silver in color and corrosion resistant and have no knurling or sharp edges. Foam or other similar non-slip grip. Rigid when deployed, and no less than 15 inches and no greater than 22 inches when expanded.

124
Q

Personal Defense Weapon

A

Strong side, magazine inserted, round chambered

125
Q

Flashlight

A

No larger than 3 C-cell or 2 D-cell batteries

126
Q

What are actions you can take to increase your probability of survival as a hostage?

A

Do not antagonize or threaten the captors
Do not play hero
Do not panic, start whining or crying, or do anything bothersome to the captor
Maintain an even and calm disposition
Attempt to cultivate friendship with your captors or identify common interests. Mutual interests can be real or imagined
Present yourself as a person, not an object. Talk about your family, interests, etc. if it does not annoy the captor
Escape if there is a clear opportunity to do so

127
Q

What are actions you can take to increase the probability of survival for a hostage?

A
Contain and isolate
Stall for time
Limit communications
Control communications
Cooperate with trained negotiators
Do not solicit demands, desires, or deadlines
Do not trade or compromise
Do not endanger additional people
Do not make threats
Do not antagonize the captor
128
Q

When can Coast Guard personnel take appropriate action against a hostage taker?

A

If it appears imminent that a hostage or other innocent person is to be killed or seriously injured

129
Q

When may Coast Guard personnel take action against a hostage taker?

A

“Coast Guard personnel shall not normally attempt to free the hostages or arrest or otherwise incapacitate the hostage-takers unless it appears imminent that hostages or other innocent persons are about to be killed or seriously injured and there is no reasonable alternative.”

130
Q

What law is the specific statutory basis for the Coast Guard’s law enforcement mission?

A

14 USC 2

131
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: When acting as customs officers, Coast Guard personnel are bound by the same rules and regulations as other customs officers.

A

TRUE

132
Q

The primary authority for issuing Captain of the Port (COTP) orders regarding vessel and facility security is ____?

A

The Magnuson Act and 33 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) Part 6 (found on page 2-5 of MLEM)

133
Q

Boarding teams shall be comprised of at least ____ qualified Coast Guard personnel, at least one of whom shall be a qualified Boarding Officer.

A

Two

134
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The Boarding Officers can authorize the removal of their survival vest and PFD once on board a vessel.

A

TRUE

135
Q

Body armor shall meet Level ____ as a minimum specification described by the National Institute of Justice

A

IIIA

136
Q

What are the SMAC levels when detecting radiation with the Personal Radiation Detector?

A

4500 u rem, 20 cps

137
Q

What does the acronym SMAC mean in relation to detecting radiation with the Personal Radiation Detector?

A

Stop
Move away
Alert
Close-off

138
Q

What are the three types of loads for the M240 when conducting tactical boat operations?

A

Clear
Half load
Full load

139
Q

How many steps are there in the UOF continuum for vessel on vessel?

A

Four

140
Q

What weapons are authorized for Step II warn?

A

M16
M240
M870 Police Shotgun

141
Q

What is the target distance when aiming the LA51 Flash Bang Munitions at a Target of Interest’s bow?

A

30-50 yards

142
Q

What are is NOT part of the security zone?

A

Assessment zone

143
Q

OC spray: The aerosol must contain no greater than ____ and no less than ____ OC concentration.

A

10%

5%

144
Q

OC spray shall not exceed ____ capsacinoids.

A

0.2%

145
Q

What is the only intermediate weapon authorized to be carried on the equipment belt?

A

Expandable baton

146
Q

What are the characteristics of the expandable baton?

A

Steel shaft, silver in color, corrosion resistant, and have no knurling or sharp edges. Foam or non-slip grip. Shall be rigid when deployed. No less than 15 inches and no greater than 22 inches long when expanded.

147
Q

What is a BISS?

A

A quick and limited protective inspection of a vessel for boarding team safety

148
Q

What determines the scope of a BISS? (4)

A
  1. Circumstances of the boarding
  2. Size, type, and condition of the vessel
  3. Demeanor of the crew
  4. Information about potential threats or hazards
149
Q

What is the scope of a BISS?

A

Limited to identifying potential safety hazards and evaluating the vessel’s seaworthiness

150
Q

What areas of a vessel are included in a BISS?

A
  • Bilges, engineering, and machinery spaces
  • Cargo or fish holds
  • Areas where safety hazards may be present
151
Q

When is it appropriate to conduct an Extended Initial Safety Sweep (EISS)?

A

An EISS may be conducted only when reasonable suspicion exists that there is a particular hazard that may threaten the boarding team

152
Q

What is an EISS?

A

It is still part of the protective inspection but is more focused than a BISS

153
Q

What is a known weapon?

A

Any weapon made aware to the boarding team by:
1. Statements by the crew
2. Intelligence
3. Visible examination
And the location is reasonably well known

154
Q

What is the scope of an EISS for a known weapon?

A

The EISS should only be conducted to secure and neutralize the weapon when the location of the weapon is reasonably well known

155
Q

What is an unaccounted for person?

A

When the BO has reasonable suspicion that unaccounted for persons are aboard the vessel

156
Q

What is the scope of an EISS for an unaccounted for person?

A

A sweep of all person-sized compartments, including private spaces to locate the missing person(s). The sweep shall end when the unaccounted for person(s) has been located.

157
Q

What is a suspected safety hazard?

A

When the BO has reasonable suspicion there is a particular safety hazard that may threaten the team

158
Q

What are some examples of a suspected safety hazard?

A
  • Pervasive odor of fuel
  • Missing deck plates or lifelines
  • Sheen behind the vessel
  • Vessel riding low in the water
159
Q

What is the scope of an EISS for a suspected safety hazard?

A

Only sweep individual areas or items in the vessel aimed at addressing the particular suspected safety hazard(s)

160
Q

When do you stop your EISS?

A

Once the basis for the suspicion is otherwise addressedt

161
Q

Why hold a Post-ISS debrief? (4)

A
  1. Discuss the layout of the boat
  2. Discuss the location and type of hazards
  3. Alert the boarding team of items of a suspicious nature
  4. Discuss precautions to safely conduct the boarding
162
Q

What is the difference between a search, BISS, and an EISS?

A

Search requires probable cause, and is a quest for evidence.
BISS requires no suspicion and it is for safety.
EISS requires reasonable suspicion and is to identify a particular safety issue

163
Q

What is the role of the Master for both levels of ISSs?

A

The master or his designee should be invited to accompany the boarding team for both types of ISS, unless this action is inadvisable

164
Q

What are some factors to consider for the role of the Master for both levels of ISSs? (7)

A
  1. Safety concerns
  2. Number of people onboard
  3. Navigation of the vessel
  4. Master’s familiarity of the vessel
  5. Cooperation of the master
  6. Overall appearance of the vessel
  7. Law enforcement intelligence
165
Q

What is a suspected safety hazard?

A

.

166
Q

What are mandatory officer actions prior to using deadly force?

A
  1. Identify themselves as law enforcement officers
  2. Issue an order to cease the dangerous activity
  3. Determine that, in view of the threat, the use of deadly force does not create an undo risk to others
167
Q

What is disabling fire?

A

A special method of preventing an escape of a vessel - this method is NOT intended as a use of deadly force

168
Q

What is the definition of a weapon?

A

The physical means to cause death or serious bodily injury to yourself or others

169
Q

What is the reactionary gap?

A

The distance between the officer and a subject.

A minimum 4-6 foot gap provides the officer time to react to any aggressive action by the subject

170
Q

What is line of fire?

A

The path between a member of the boarding team and a subject

171
Q

What is triangulation?

A

The tactical separation of boarding team members that minimizes crossfire and bunching, and maximizes defensive fire impact by directing it to a single point

172
Q

What is the object of triangulation?

A

Ensures that the team members:

  1. Stay out of the line of fire
  2. Maintain a clear line of fire
  3. Maintain sufficient separation
173
Q

What is cover?

A

Any article or barrier that will stop or divert the path of the bullet; the most important single tactic for surviving a dangerous situation

174
Q

What is concealment?

A

Any article or environment that puts you out of the sight or view of a subject; however, concealment alone will not stop bullets

175
Q

What are examples of concealment?

A

Bright lights
Darkness
Fog
Smoke

176
Q

What is the fatal funnel?

A

Areas such a doorways, stairwells, hallways, thresholds, and transitional areas that represent the greatest threat during an entry, as they are generally narrow, confining areas that offer little or no cover or concealment

177
Q

What is weapons awareness?

A

Knowing where your weapon is, at all times, in relation to others on the vessel you are boarding, and keeping the weapon in a position that limits another’s access to it

178
Q

What is contact and cover officers?

A

A technique that divides responsibilities for boarding team members between conducting business with the subject (contact) and defensive awareness (cover)

179
Q

What is a contact officer?

A

The contact officer is the primary communicator with the subject:

  1. Records information
  2. Performs search
  3. Issues all boarding forms
  4. Handcuffs subjects
180
Q

What is a cover officer?

A

The cover officer devotes full attention to the subject(s) and other potential threats from a position of surveillance and control:

  1. Maintains surveillance of potential threat areas
  2. Informs other boarding team members of threats
  3. Intervenes with force
  4. Discourages hostile acts or escape attempts
  5. Prevents destruction of evidence by suspects
  6. Handles routine radio communications
181
Q

What is a survival contingency plan?

A

A way out; a place to go if the situation deteriorates

182
Q

What is the fluid shock wave?

A

Occurs when striking hard and deep with follow-through impels the effects of the blow to spread and magnify throughout the body’s liquid environment to a much greater degree than the single event (strike)